Top 40 GA Questions For RBI Office Attendant Exam 2026, General Awareness Practice Set

The Reserve Bank of India has scheduled the RBI Office Attendant Exam 2025 for 1st March 2026, and General Awareness consists of 30 questions out of a total of 120. If you are preparing for the Exam, GA is one section you simply cannot afford to ignore. To help you prepare smarter, we have compiled the Top 40 GA Questions for RBI Office Attendant 2026, all based on Govt Schemes, RBI policies, Polity, History, Banking & Finance, and other subjects with answers and detailed explanations.

Top 40 GA Questions For RBI Office Attendant Exam 2026

Here are the RBI Attendant GA Important Questions listed below. Attempt all questions on your own before checking the answers.
Also, pay special attention to the explanation. These questions are high-priority and have a strong chance of appearing in the exam. After completing all the questions, calculate your scores and estimate your preparation:

Q1. In February 2026, Walmart-owned fashion e-commerce platform Myntra strengthened its technology leadership by appointing a new Chief Technology Officer. Who among the following was appointed as the CTO of Myntra?

(a) Raghu Krishnananda
(b) Pramod Adiddam
(c) Ankur Khurana
(d) Kaushik Mitra
(e) Sandeep Kataria

Ans.(b)

Sol.
• Myntra, the Walmart-owned fashion e-commerce platform, has appointed Pramod Adiddam as its Chief
Technology Officer (CTO).
• The appointment was announced on 7 February 2026 and is effective immediately.
• Pramod Adiddam takes over the technology leadership responsibilities at the company.
• He succeeds Raghu Krishnananda, who served as Chief Product and Technology Officer (CPTO).
• Raghu Krishnananda had been in the role for over five years before leaving the organisation in April 2025.

Q2. Toyota Motor Corporation announced a leadership reshuffle in early 2026. Who among the following was appointed as the new Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Toyota, effective April 1, 2026?

(a) Koji Sato
(b) Akio Toyoda
(c) Kenta Kon
(d) Hiroki Nakajima
(e) Masahiro Inoue
Ans.(c)

Sol.
• Toyota Motor Corporation has appointed Kenta Kon as its new Chief Executive Officer (CEO).
• The leadership change comes amid a major restructuring effort, including a high-profile plan to privatise a key unit.
• Kenta Kon, currently serving as Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of Toyota, will assume the role of CEO from 1 April
2026.
• He will replace Koji Sato, who became CEO in 2023.
• After stepping down as CEO, Koji Sato will take up the position of Vice Chairman.
• He will also assume a newly created role as Chief Industry Officer.

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Q3. In February 2026, the RBI removed a major restriction under the Voluntary Retention Route (VRR) to deepen the domestic bond market. What was the cap that was removed?

(a) ₹1 trillion
(b) ₹1.5 trillion
(c) ₹2 trillion
(d) ₹2.5 trillion
(e) ₹3 trillion

Ans.(d)

Sol.
• In February 2026, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) removed the ₹2.5 trillion investment cap under the Voluntary Retention Route (VRR) for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs).
• The move aims to deepen domestic bond markets and improve the stability of capital flows.

• Earlier, investments under VRR were subject to a separate overall cap of ₹2.5 trillion.
• Under the revised framework:
o VRR investments will now be governed by the existing investment ceilings applicable under the general route.
o This provides greater flexibility to foreign investors.

Q4. In February 2026, the RBI proposed to enhance collateral-free lending to MSMEs to address persistent credit constraints. What was the revised limit proposed by the central bank?

(a) ₹12 lakh
(b) ₹15 lakh
(c) ₹18 lakh
(d) ₹20 lakh
(e) ₹25 lakh
Ans.(d)

Sol.
• In February 2026, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposed to double the collateral-free loan limit for MSMEs.
• The limit is proposed to be increased from ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh.
• The move aims to improve access to formal credit for micro, small and medium enterprises.
• Many MSMEs, especially micro and small units, face difficulty in obtaining loans due to lack of sufficient
collateral.

Q5. In the context of India’s digital governance exports, which specific group of countries has signed Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) for the implementation of the ‘DigiLocker’ platform as of February, 2026?

(a) Singapore, Bhutan, Nepal, and France
(b) Mauritius, Qatar, Sri Lanka, and UAE
(c) Cuba, Kenya, UAE, and Lao People’s Democratic Republic
(d) Singapore, UAE, Kenya, and Mauritius
(e) Cuba, Bhutan, France, and Qatar
Ans.(c)

Sol.
• As of February 2026, India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is operational in more than eight countries, marking
a major milestone in global digital payment integration.
• Countries where UPI is live include:
United Arab Emirates, Singapore, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, France, Mauritius, and Qatar.
• The international rollout of UPI is helping:
o Boost cross-border remittances.
o Promote financial inclusion.
o Strengthen India’s position as a global fintech leader.
• In addition, Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) have been signed with several countries for the adoption of
DigiLocker-based digital document systems.
• Countries that have signed DigiLocker cooperation MoUs with India:
o Cuba
o Kenya
o United Arab Emirates
o Lao People’s Democratic Republic (LPDR)
• These agreements aim to enable secure digital identity, document exchange, and public service delivery across
borders.

Q6. At the 12th Asian Indoor Athletics Championships 2026, India finished sixth in the medal standings with a total of five medals. Where were the championships held?

(a) Tokyo, Japan
(b) Doha, Qatar
(c) Tianjin, China
(d) Bangkok, Thailand
(e) Seoul, South Korea
Ans.(c)

Sol.
• India concluded its campaign at the 12th Asian Indoor Athletics Championships, held in Tianjin, China, from 6–8 February 2026.
• The country finished 6th in the overall medal standings with a total of five medals.
• Tejaswin Shankar delivered the standout performance by winning the gold medal in the men’s heptathlon on 8 February 2026.
• He scored 5,993 points, setting a new national indoor record, surpassing his earlier record of 5,650 points set in 2021 in the United States.
• India secured additional medals on the final day:
o Pooja – Silver medal in high jump
o Tajinderpal Singh Toor – Silver medal in shot put
o Ancy Sojan – Bronze medal in long jump
• The host nation China dominated the championship, finishing first with 34 medals (10 gold, 11 silver, 13 bronze).

Q7. According to the Network ReadinessIndex (NRI) 2025 released in February 2026, India’s improved position reflects its progress in digital infrastructure, governance, and technology adoption. What rank has India secured in the NRI 2025?

(a) 40th
(b) 42nd
(c) 45th
(d) 48th
(e) 50th
Ans.(c)

Sol.
• India has improved its position by four places to rank 45th in the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2025, released in February 2026.
• The index evaluates the network-based readiness of 127 economies across the world.
• It is based on performance in four key pillars: Technology, People, Governance, and Impact, covering 53 indicators.
• The report is prepared by the Portulans Institute, an independent, non-profit research and educational organisation based in Washington, D.C.
• India’s overall score improved from 53.63 in 2024 to 54.43 in 2025.
• India secured 1st rank globally in the following indicators:
o Annual investment in telecommunication services
o AI scientific publications
o ICT services exports
o E-commerce legislation
• India ranked 2nd globally in:
o FTTH/Building Internet subscriptions
o Mobile broadband internet traffic

o International Internet bandwidth
• India secured 3rd rank in:
o Domestic market scale
o Income inequality indicator
• The report noted that India’s network readiness is higher than expected for its income level.
• Among lower-middle-income countries, India ranked 2nd.
• The United States was ranked 1st globally in the Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2025.

Q8. Services claimed the Santosh Trophy 2025–26 after a narrow victory over Kerala, further strengthening their legacy in Indian domestic football. How many Santosh Trophy titles has Services won after this victory?

(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Seven
(d) Eight
(e) Nine
Ans.(d)
Sol.
• Services won the 79th National Football Championship for the Santosh Trophy 2025–26 by defeating Kerala 1–0 in the final.
• The final was played at Dhakuakhana Football Stadium in Dhakuakhana, Assam, on 8 February 2026.
• With this victory, Services secured their eighth Santosh Trophy title in the history of the tournament.
• The match was closely contested, with Services managing a narrow but decisive win.
• The triumph further strengthened Services’ legacy as one of the prominent teams in the Santosh Trophy competition.

Q9. The joint aerial exercise “Buddy Squadron” commenced in February 2026 atOsan Air Base to strengthen integrated tactical capabilities between allied air forces. The exercise is conducted between which of the following countries?

(a) Japan and United States
(b) South Korea and United Kingdom
(c) South Korea and United States
(d) Australia and United States
(e) South Korea and France
Ans.(c)

Sol.
• The South Korean and United States air forces began the joint aerial exercise “Buddy Squadron” on 9 February 2026 at Osan Air Base in Pyeongtaek, South Korea.
• The exercise is scheduled to run until 13 February 2026.
• Objective: To enhance interoperability and integrated tactical capabilities between the two allied air forces.
• The exercise is a battalion-level drill, conducted in rotation between the two countries.
• It focuses on sharing air-to-air combat tactics and conducting integrated tactical training.
• The training involves fourth- and fifth-generation fighter aircraft to improve operational readiness.
• Compared to previous editions, the number of participating aircraft per session has more than doubled, and the number of sorties has also increased significantly.
• The exercise reflects the strong defence partnership between South Korea and the United States and aims to strengthen joint operational preparedness in the region.

Q10. In February 2026, a major digital initiative was launched to integrate testing and certification services for electronic and IT products onto a single platform under MeitY. Which portal was inaugurated for this purpose?

(a) SARATHI
(b) SATYA
(c) SAATHI
(d) SAMRIDH
(e) SAMPARK
Ans.(b)

Sol.
• Shri Jitin Prasada, Minister of State for Commerce & Industry and Electronics & Information Technology, inaugurated the STQC Lab Automation Portal – SATYA on 9 February 2026.
• The portal is a major digital initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India.
• The Standardisation Testing and Quality Certification (STQC) Directorate ensuresthe quality,security, and reliability
of electronic and IT products and services.
• The SATYA portal integrates STQC services into a single, user-friendly digital platform for citizens, industry,startups, MSMEs, and government departments.
• It enables faster service delivery, improved predictability, and greater confidence in the certification process.
• The portal helps startups and MSMEs by reducing procedural burdens and enabling quicker market entry for compliant and secure products.
• The initiative supports the national visions of Digital India, Minimum Government – Maximum Governance, and Ease of Doing Business.
• By digitising certification processes, SATYA makes quality assurance more accessible, efficient, and citizen-friendly.

Q19. Recently, in February 2026, the Delhi Government launched the “Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana” to support the education and financial security of girls. What is the total assistance amount provided under the scheme in instalments until graduation?

• (a) ₹40,000
• (b) ₹56,000
• (c) ₹50,000
• (d) ₹75,000
• (e) ₹1,00,000

Ans.(b) Sol.

• On 10 February 2026, the Delhi Government announced a new welfare initiative named “Lakhpati Bitiya Yojana.”
• The scheme is aimed at ensuring a secure and bright future for girls in the national capital.
• Under the scheme, eligible girls will receive financial assistance of ₹56,000 in instalments.
• The assistance will begin from birth and continue until the completion of graduation.
• After the successful completion of education, the scheme will mature, and the beneficiary will receive more than ₹1 lakh.
• The announcement was made by Delhi Chief Minister Rekha Gupta during a press briefing.
• The entire process—from application to payment—will be fully online and transparent, removing the need for physical visits to government offices.
• The scheme integrates social security with education-linked incentives.
• It aims to promote gender equity, financial inclusion, and long-term human capital development in Delhi.

Q20. The national-level fair “SARAS Aajeevika Mela–2026,” showcasing rural traditions, folk arts, and women’s entrepreneurship, is being organised in which of the following cities?

• (a) Jaipur
• (b) Chandigarh
• (c) Gurugram
• (d) Lucknow
• (e) Bhopal

Ans.(c) Sol.

• Gurugram, Haryana, is hosting the national-level event “SARAS Aajeevika Mela–2026” starting from 10 February 2026 at Leisure Valley Park Ground, Sector-29.
• The fair will continue from 10 February to 26 February 2026, presenting a vibrant showcase of India’s rural traditions, folk arts, and women’s entrepreneurship.
• The event is being inaugurated by Union Minister of Rural Development and Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, Shivraj Singh Chouhan.
• The fair offers a “Mini India” experience, displaying crafts, textiles, and traditional products from across the country.
• More than 900 women entrepreneurs from 28 states are participating, representing various Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
• The event aims to promote rural livelihoods, traditional crafts, and women-led enterprises under the government’s rural development initiatives.

Q21. V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority became India’s first major port to receive the IGBC Platinum Rating, which is the highest certification in green building standards. Which organisation awards the IGBC Platinum Rating?

• (a) Bureau of Energy Efficiency
• (b) Indian Green Building Council
• (c) Central Pollution Control Board
• (d) National Green Tribunal
• (e) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Ans.(b) Sol.

• V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority has become India’s first major port to receive the IGBC Platinum Rating, the highest certification of the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC).
• The Administration Building follows the port’s Green Policy and waste management plan to promote sustainability.
• The building is equipped with rooftop solar panels and a high Solar Reflectance Index (SRI) reflective roof coating to reduce the Urban Heat Island effect and improve energy efficiency.
• Resource efficiency has been enhanced through IoT-enabled water meters, Indoor Air Quality (IAQ) monitoring systems, rainwater harvesting, and water-saving plumbing fixtures.
• These measures have resulted in a 37% reduction in potable water usage.
• All wastewater is treated in an on-site Sewage Treatment Plant (STP) and fully reused.
• The Administration Building operates on 100% renewable energy.
• 89% of electricity is generated on-site through solar power, while 11% is sourced from off-site renewable energy.
• The port has also received Shunya and Shunya Plus certifications from the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power.
• The Shunya Certification system ensures that a building’s annual energy demand is met entirely through renewable energy sources.
• A Shunya building is a Net Zero Energy Building that produces as much energy as it consumes annually, with an Energy Performance Index (EPI) between 0 and 10 kWh/m2/year.
• A Shunya Plus building is a Net Positive Energy Building that generates more renewable energy than it consumes, with an EPI of less than 0 kWh/m2/year and exports surplus energy to the grid.
• At the port, the Hospital and CISF Barracks have received the Shunya Plus certification.
• The Administrative Building and Guest House have received the Shunya certification.

Q22. Under the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector (WLGSP), which district in Madhya Pradesh was selected as the pilot district for the project?

• (a) Indore
• (b) Balaghat
• (c) Jabalpur
• (d) Gwalior
• (e) Rewa

Ans.(b) Sol.

• Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh was selected as the pilot district under the World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector (WLGSP).
• Under the pilot project, a 500 metric tonne (MT) godown was constructed at the Bahudeshiya Prathamik Krishi Saakh Sahakari Society Maryadit, Parswada in Balaghat district.
• The project was fully completed and inaugurated on 24 February 2024 by the Prime Minister of India.
• The newly constructed godown has been hired by the Madhya Pradesh Warehousing and Logistics Corporation (MPWLC).
• The plan is being implemented at the level of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) and other cooperative societies.
• The initiative aims to strengthen storage infrastructure, reduce post-harvest losses, and enhance the cooperative agricultural ecosystem.

Q23. In February 2026, the CEO of Rolls-Royce met Prime Minister Narendra Modi in New Delhi to discuss plans to expand the company’s operations in India under the Viksit Bharat vision. Who is the CEO of Rolls-Royce who attended this meeting?

• (a) Warren East
• (b) John Rishton
• (c) Tufan Erginbilgic
• (d) Leena Nair
• (e) Guillaume Faury

Ans.(c) Sol.

• On 11 February 2026, Rolls-Royce CEO Tufan Erginbilgic met Prime Minister Narendra Modi in New Delhi.
• During the meeting, both sides discussed plans to significantly expand Rolls-Royce’s operations in India.
• The expansion is aligned with the Government of India’s “Viksit Bharat” vision for economic growth and industrial development.

Q24. National Productivity Week observed from 12 to 18 February, 2026. Which organisation conducts this annual observance across India?

• (a) NITI Aayog
• (b) National Productivity Council
• (c) Ministry of MSME
• (d) FICCI
• (e) Quality Council of India

Ans.(b) Sol.

• The National Productivity Council (NPC) celebrated its 68th Foundation Day on 12 February 2026.
• To mark the occasion, National Productivity Week is being observed from 12 to 18 February 2026 across the country.
• The theme for the 68th National Productivity Week is: “Clusters as Growth Engine: Maximizing Productivity in MSMEs.”
• These activities are being conducted through 12 Regional Directorates of NPC located in: Bengaluru, Bhubaneswar, Chandigarh, Chennai, Gandhinagar, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Kanpur, Kolkata, Mumbai, and Patna.
• The National Productivity Council is an autonomous society under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• NPC was established in 1958 with the objective of becoming a knowledge leader in productivity and supporting India’s global competitiveness through sustainable and inclusive socio-economic development.

Q25. In February 2026, the Indian Navy assumed command of Combined Task Force (CTF) 154 under the Combined Maritime Forces. What is the primary role of CTF 154 within the CMF structure?

• (a) Counter-terrorism operations
• (b) Anti-submarine warfare
• (c) Training and capacity building of member nations
• (d) Coastal surveillance of the Indian Ocean
• (e) Humanitarian evacuation missions

Ans.(c) Sol.

• In a significant step toward strengthening multinational maritime security, the Indian Navy has assumed command of Combined Task Force (CTF) 154.
• CTF 154 is a multinational training task force under the Combined Maritime Forces (CMF).
• The change of command ceremony was held on 11 February 2026 at the CMF Headquarters in Manama, Bahrain.
• The ceremony was presided over by Vice Admiral Curt A. Renshaw, Commander of CMF, US NAVCENT, and the US Fifth Fleet.
• Commodore Milind M. Mokashi of the Indian Navy formally took over as Commander of CTF 154 from the outgoing Italian Navy commander.
• CTF 154 was established in May 2023 under the CMF framework.
• It focuses on training and capacity building for member nations to enhance maritime security.
• The task force reflects the growing trust in India’s operational expertise and its role as a Preferred Security Partner among the 47 CMF member nations.

Q26. On 13 February 2026, the Prime Minister approved the PM RAHAT Scheme aimed at providing immediate medical support to accident victims. What is the maximum amount of cashless treatment provided under the scheme?

• (a) ₹50,000
• (b) ₹75,000
• (c) ₹1 lakh
• (d) ₹1.5 lakh
• (e) ₹2 lakh

Ans.(d) Sol.

• On 13 February 2026, Prime Minister Narendra Modi approved the PM RAHAT Scheme.
• The decision was taken in the first set of approvals after shifting to Seva Teerth.
• The scheme aims to provide immediate medical assistance to road accident victims.
• Under the PM RAHAT Scheme, accident victims will receive cashless treatment up to ₹1.5 lakh.
• The objective of the scheme is to ensure that no life is lost due to lack of timely medical treatment.

Q27. According to the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2025 released in February 2026, India improved its global ranking among 182 countries. What position did India secure in the index?

• (a) 86th
• (b) 88th
• (c) 89th
• (d) 91st
• (e) 96th

Ans.(d) Sol.

• In February 2026, Transparency International released the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2025.
• India ranked 91st out of 182 countries and territories, improving from 96th position in 2024.
• The Corruption Perceptions Index is the most widely used global corruption ranking.
• It has been published annually since 1995 by the non-governmental organisation Transparency International.
• The CPI ranks countries based on their perceived levels of public sector corruption, determined through expert assessments and opinion surveys.
• The index uses a scale from 0 to 100: 0 indicates a highly corrupt country, and 100 indicates a very clean country.
• Least corrupt countries in 2025: Denmark, Finland, and Singapore.
• Most corrupt countries 2025: South Sudan, Somalia, and Venezuela.
• India’s performance showed a five-place improvement, moving from 96th rank in 2024 to 91st rank in 2025.

Q28. Recently, in February 2026, the National Stock Exchange of India appointed an independent advisor to oversee its long-awaited initial public offering. Which firm was selected for this role?

• (a) Goldman Sachs
• (b) JP Morgan
• (c) Rothschild & Co
• (d) Morgan Stanley
• (e) Lazard

Ans.(c) Sol.

• On 12 February 2026, the National Stock Exchange of India (NSE) announced the appointment of Rothschild & Co as an independent advisor for its proposed Initial Public Offering (IPO).
• The appointment is part of the exchange’s efforts to move forward with its long-awaited IPO.
• Rothschild will assist NSE in selecting lead bankers, legal counsels and other intermediaries for the IPO.

Q29. In February 2026, the Reserve Bank of India approved the re-appointment of Sanjay Agarwal as Managing Director of AU Small Finance Bank. This appointment marks which term for him as MD of the bank?

• (a) First term
• (b) Second term
• (c) Third term
• (d) Fourth term
• (e) Fifth term

Ans.(c) Sol.

• In February 2026, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved the re-appointment of Sanjay Agarwal as the Managing Director (MD) of AU Small Finance Bank.
• This will be his third term as the Managing Director of the bank.
• The new term will become effective from 19 April 2026.
• The approval comes at a time when AU Small Finance Bank is working towards becoming a universal lender.
• The bank is currently the largest small finance bank in India.

Q30. World Radio Day is observed annually on 13 February to commemorate the establishment of United Nations Radio in 1946. What is the official theme of World Radio Day 2026?

• (a) Radio for Digital Transformation
• (b) Radio and Artificial Intelligence: AI is a tool, not a voice
• (c) Radio: Voice of Democracy
• (d) AI-Driven Broadcasting for All
• (e) Smart Radio for Smart Nations

Ans.(b) Sol.

• World Radio Day is observed every year on 13 February.
• The day commemorates the establishment of United Nations Radio in 1946.
• The theme for World Radio Day 2026 is: “Radio and Artificial Intelligence: AI is a tool, not a voice.”
• To mark the occasion, Akashvani Raipur (Chhattisgarh), in collaboration with UNESCO, is organising a World Radio Day Conclave on 13 February 2026.
• The theme highlights that while AI can improve efficiency and inclusiveness, it should remain a supporting tool, not a replacement for the human voice, editorial judgement, and credibility of radio broadcasting.
• Akashvani has served the nation with the motto “Bahujan Hitaya, Bahujan Sukhaya.”
• It was established in 1936 and brought under public ownership after India’s Independence.
• Today, Akashvani is among the largest broadcasting organisations in the world, in terms of languages broadcast and audience diversity.

Q31. Under the RBI’s new acquisition financing rules, banks are permitted to lend up to what proportion of the acquisition value?

• (a) 50%
• (b) 75%
• (c) 65%
• (d) 60%
• (e) 80%

Ans.(b) Sol.

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed Indian banks to finance acquisitions up to 20% of their eligible capital base.
• Earlier, the draft rules had proposed a cap of 10% of Tier-1 capital, but banks requested a higher limit.
• The RBI accepted the banks’ recommendation and increased the cap to 20% in the final guidelines.
• Previously, Indian banks were not permitted to finance acquisitions, which placed them at a disadvantage compared to foreign banks and investment funds.
• The new rule opens a fresh avenue for credit growth for Indian banks.
• Banks will be allowed to lend up to 75% of the acquisition value.
• Acquisition financing will be permitted for the purchase of both listed and unlisted companies.
• The acquisition of stakes can be through equity shares, compulsorily convertible debentures (CCDs), or a combination of both.

Q32. The Emergency Landing Facility inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 14 February 2026 at Moran Bypass is the first of its kind in the Northeast. In which state is this facility located?

• (a) Assam
• (b) Manipur
• (c) Arunachal Pradesh
• (d) Meghalaya
• (e) Tripura

Ans.(a) Sol.

• Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated an Emergency Landing Facility on 14 February 2026.
• The facility is located on the Moran Bypass along a national highway in Dibrugarh district of Assam.
• It is the first such facility in Northeast India.
• The Emergency Landing Facility has been designed and constructed in coordination with the Indian Air Force.
• It will support the landing and take-off of both military and civil aircraft during emergencies.

Q33. The inauguration of the Waterjet Production & Testing Facility of M/s Marine Jet Power (MJP) India in Goa in February 2026 marked a significant milestone for maritime self-reliance. With this development, India became which country in the world to host such a facility?

• (a) First
• (b) Second
• (c) Third
• (d) Fourth
• (e) Fifth

Ans.(c) Sol.

• The Director General of the Indian Coast Guard, DG Paramesh Sivamani, inaugurated the Waterjet Production & Testing Facility of M/s Marine Jet Power (MJP) India in Goa on 13 February 2026.
• The facility marks a significant step in India’s pursuit of maritime self-reliance (Aatmanirbharta).
• With this facility, India becomes the third country in the world, after the United States and South Korea, to host such a waterjet production and testing centre.
• The facility has been set up under a Manufacturing and Transfer of Technology framework.
• It will help establish a domestic supply chain and enable indigenous testing of waterjet propulsion systems.
• The centre is expected to become a regional hub for South Asia and nearby regions.
• The initiative will also contribute to employment generation, support the MSME ecosystem, and enhance technology absorption in India.

Q34. In February 2026, the Prime Minister approved Startup India Fund of Funds (FoF) 2.0 to strengthen the innovation ecosystem. What is the corpus of this fund?

• (a) ₹5,000 crore
• (b) ₹7,500 crore
• (c) ₹8,000 crore
• (d) ₹12,000 crore
• (e) ₹10,000 crore

Ans.(e) Sol.

In February 2026, the Prime Minister approved the Startup India Fund of Funds (FoF) 2.0 with a corpus of ₹10,000 crore to strengthen India’s innovation ecosystem, particularly in deep tech, early-stage ideas, advanced manufacturing, and breakthrough technologies.

Q35. In February 2026, the Prime Minister announced the doubling of the loan target under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) to strengthen the agricultural value chain. What is the new loan target under the scheme?

• (a) ₹1.25 lakh crore
• (b) ₹1.5 lakh crore
• (c) ₹1.75 lakh crore
• (d) ₹2 lakh crore
• (e) ₹2.5 lakh crore

Ans.(d) Sol.

In February 2026, the Prime Minister announced the doubling of the loan target under the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund from ₹1 lakh crore to ₹2 lakh crore to strengthen India’s entire agriculture value chain.

Q36. On 13 February 2026, the Prime Minister announced a revised target under the Lakhpati Didi initiative. What is the new target set to be achieved by March 2029?

• (a) 4 crore Lakhpati Didis
• (b) 5 crore Lakhpati Didis
• (c) 10 crore Lakhpati Didis
• (d) 6 crore Lakhpati Didis
• (e) 8 crore Lakhpati Didis

Ans.(d) Sol.

• On 13 February 2026, the Prime Minister announced a new target of 6 crore Lakhpati Didis to be achieved by March 2029.
• This new goal doubles the earlier scale and ambition of the programme.
• The government has already crossed the milestone of 3 crore Lakhpati Didis.
• This achievement was reached more than a year ahead of the original target of March 2027.

Q37. The National Statistical Systems Training Academy (NSSTA) celebrated its 18th Foundation Day on 13 February 2026 with a theme focused on strengthening official statistics to support India’s long-term development vision. What was the official theme of the celebration?

• (a) Data for Development: Statistics for All
• (b) Strengthening Statistical Systems for Digital India
• (c) Reimagining Capacity Building for Official Statistics to achieve vision of Viksit Bharat@2047
• (d) Transforming Data Governance for Atmanirbhar Bharat
• (e) Statistics for Inclusive Growth and Sustainability

Ans.(c) Sol.

• The National Statistical Systems Training Academy (NSSTA) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) celebrated its 18th Foundation Day on 13 February 2026.
• The event was held at the Mahalanobis Auditorium, NSSTA, Knowledge Park-II, Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
• The theme for the 2026 celebration was “Reimagining Capacity Building for Official Statistics to achieve the vision of Viksit Bharat@2047.”
• The occasion highlighted NSSTA’s journey as a premier Central Training Institute for strengthening India’s official statistical system.
• NSSTA focuses on developing a skilled, ethical, and future-ready statistical workforce.
• It also aims to improve the quality, timeliness, and credibility of official statistics in the country.
• The National Statistical Systems Training Academy (NSSTA) was established on 13 February 2009.

Q38. The International Conference on Dam Safety (ICDS 2026), organised under the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project, was held on 13–14 February 2026 at which of the following locations?

• (a) IIT Delhi
• (b) IISc Bengaluru
• (c) IIT Bombay
• (d) NIT Trichy
• (e) Anna University

Ans.(b) Sol.

• The International Conference on Dam Safety (ICDS) 2026 is being held from 13–14 February 2026 at the J.N. Tata Auditorium, Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
• The conference is organised under the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP) Phase II & III.
• It is jointly organised by the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation (DoWR, RD&GR) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India, and the Water Resources Department, Government of Karnataka.
• The event is conducted in collaboration with the Central Water Commission (CWC), Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, and the World Bank.
• ICDS 2026 serves as a global platform for sharing experiences, research developments, case studies, and best practices in dam safety governance and management.
• The conference brings together engineers, regulators, academicians, and industry experts to discuss emerging challenges, harmonised safety standards, and international cooperation.
• Representatives from 12 countries participated: India, Austria, Australia, Sri Lanka, Netherlands, Canada, Zambia, Zimbabwe, France, Japan, Philippines, and the United States.

Q39. In February 2025, the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) signed an agreement with Synergy Quantum India Pvt. Ltd. to develop an automated tool aimed at strengthening cybersecurity. What is the primary objective of this collaboration?

• (a) Developing new quantum computers
• (b) Building satellite-based encryption systems
• (c) Detecting quantum-vulnerable cryptographic algorithms
• (d) Launching a national cyber insurance scheme
• (e) Establishing new telecom infrastructure

Ans.(c) Sol.

• In February 2025, the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT), the telecom R&D body under the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), signed an agreement with Synergy Quantum India Pvt. Ltd.
• The collaboration aims to strengthen India’s cybersecurity against emerging threats from quantum computing.
• The two organizations will jointly develop an automated tool to detect, classify, and report cryptographic algorithms that are vulnerable to quantum attacks.
• The primary objective is to create a system that can scan devices and identify the cryptographic algorithms and security mechanisms they use.
• The tool will detect all security vulnerabilities and clearly differentiate between quantum-safe and quantum-vulnerable algorithms.

Q40. With reference to the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF), approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2026, consider the following statements:

1. It provides ₹1 lakh crore as Central Assistance.
2. At least 50% of project financing must come from market sources.
3. The Fund will be operational from FY 2025–26 to FY 2027–28.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• (a) 1 only
• (b) 1 and 2 only
• (c) 2 and 3 only
• (d) 1, 2 and 3
• (e) 1 and 3 only

Ans.(b) Sol.

• Recently, in February 2026, the Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the launch of the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) with a total Central Assistance of ₹1 lakh crore. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Central Assistance will cover 25% of the project cost, provided that at least 50% of the project cost is mobilized from market sources. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Fund is expected to generate a total investment of about ₹4 lakh crore in the urban sector over the next five years.
• The UCF will encourage market financing, private sector participation, and citizen-centric reforms to deliver high-quality urban infrastructure.
• The main objective of the Fund is to build resilient, productive, inclusive, and climate-responsive cities, making them key drivers of economic growth.
• The Fund will be operational from FY 2025–26 to FY 2030–31, with a possible extension up to FY 2033–34. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• It implements the Union Budget 2025–26 vision related to Cities as Growth Hubs, Creative Redevelopment of Cities, and Water and Sanitation.
• At least 50% of project financing must come from market sources such as municipal bonds, bank loans, and Public–Private Partnerships (PPPs), while the rest may be contributed by States, UTs, ULBs, or other sources.
• Projects will be selected through a transparent, competitive, challenge-based process, focusing on high-impact and reform-oriented proposals.
• The Fund emphasizes reforms in urban governance, financial systems, operational efficiency, and urban planning.
• A ₹5,000 crore corpus has been created to improve the creditworthiness of 4,223 cities, including Tier-II and Tier-III cities, especially for first-time access to market finance.
• The Fund aims to position Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) as bankable asset classes in the financial market.

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