Topics to be covered are:

Introduction

What is Genetic Engineering?

Historical Developments

Process and Techniques

Advantages

Challenges

Dangers associated with Genetic Engineering

Gene Editing CRISPR-Cas-9

Way forward and Conclusion

In recent history, Genetic Engineering could also be one among the greatest breakthroughs with the invention of an atom and space flight. We can’t ignore that over 50 years or so, the field of genetic engineering has developed rapidly may be due to the greater understanding of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as the chemical double helix code from which genes are made.

The engineering term is used to describe the process by which the genetic makeup of an organism can be altered or changed by using “recombinant DNA technology.

We have seen via COVID-19 that how biological pathogens can be as destructive as nuclear missiles. However, through Genetic Engineering, technological advancements can also provide a cure and a strong defense against it. Thus, at the global level, there should be efforts in developing bio-defences.

This year, Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded jointly to Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna “for the development of a method for genome editing.” It’s awarded for the discovery of one of gene technology’s sharpest tools: the CRISPR/Cas9 genetic scissors.

UPSC 2021 Online Coaching Classes | Bilingual GS Foundation Batch

What is Genetic Engineering?

It is the artificial manipulation, modification, and recombination of DNA or other nucleic acid molecules to modify an organism or population of organisms.

It is a term that was first introduced into our languages in the 1970s to explain the emerging field of recombinant DNA technology and some other things that were going on.

With the help of genetic engineering, scientists are able to move desirable genes from one plant or animal to another or from a plant to an animal or vice versa.

In other words, we can say that genetic engineering is a technology in which a specific gene can be selected and implanted into the recipient organism.

Some of the examples are:

The process of Genetic engineering consists of splicing an area of a chromosome, gene, that controls a particular characteristic of the body. And can be reprogrammed to produce an antiviral protein.

This gene is removed and can be placed into a bacterial cell where it is often sealed into the DNA chain by using ligase.

What is ‘Vaccine Nationalism’?

Genetic Engineering: Historical Developments

The genetic engineering term embraced both artificial selection and all the interventions of biomedical techniques including artificial insemination, in vitro fertilization that is test-tube babies, cloning, and gene manipulation.

However, the term in the latter part of the 20th century referred to as the methods of recombinant DNA technology or gene cloning. In this DNA molecules from two or more sources are combined either within the cells or in vitro and are then inserted into the host organisms in which they are able to propagate.

In 1968 with the discovery of restriction enzymes the possibility of recombinant DNA technology emerged and the discovery was done by the Swiss microbiologist Werner Arber.

The same year American microbiologists named Hamilton O. Smith purified and called type II restriction enzymes. They were found to be essential to genetic engineering as they have the ability to cleave a specific site within the DNA.

In 1970–71, drawing on Smith’s work an American molecular biologist Daniel Nathans helped advance the DNA technique of recombination and demonstrated that type II enzymes might be useful within the studies of genetics.

In 1973, Genetic engineering based on recombination was pioneered by the American biochemists Stanley N. Cohen and Herbert W. Boyer. They were among the first to cut DNA into fragments then they rejoin the different fragments and insert the new genes into the E. coli bacteria, which later reproduced.

What is Serosurvey and what does it indicate?

Genetic Engineering: Process and Techniques

Many recombinant DNA technology has the insertion of foreign genes into the plasmids of common laboratory strains of bacteria. Plasmids are small rings of DNA but are not the part of the bacterium’s chromosome which is the main repository of the organism’s genetic information.

They are also capable of directing protein synthesis and like chromosomal DNA, they are reproduced and passed on to the progeny of bacteria. Therefore, incorporating the foreign DNA into a bacterium, almost number of a limitless copies researchers can obtain of the inserted gene.

And if the inserted gene is operative that is if it directs the synthesis of protein then the modified bacterium will produce the protein specified by the foreign DNA.

In the early 21st century the techniques of genetic engineering that is emerged are centred on gene editing. It is based on a technology known as CRISPR-Cas9 and allows the researchers to customise a living organism’s genetic sequence by generating very specific changes to its DNA.

What are the advantages of Genetic Engineering?

Let us brief you that Genetic engineering techniques are used only when all other techniques have been exhausted. The crops that are developed through genetic engineering are referred to as transgenic crops or genetically modified (GM) crops. Examples are Bt Cotton, genetically engineering plants with more desirable traits are drought-resistant plants, disease resistant-crops, plants that grow faster, etc.

Genetic Disorder treatment and Other Diseases. Through genetic engineering, genetic disorders may also be corrected by replacing the faulty gene with a functional gene. Like Disease-carrying insects, such as mosquitoes, may be engineered into becoming sterile insects, etc.

Therapeutic Cloning is a process in which embryonic cells are closed to obtain biological organs for transplantation.

With gene-editing technique CRISPR/Cas-9, there is a hope of curing inherited diseases etc.

How can Serial interval manage COVID-19?

What are the challenges of Genetic Engineering?

As we have seen that genetic engineering is beneficial in several ways but it also has some sort of disadvantages like:

There may be some kind of irreversible changes. As per some scientists that genetically-modified genes may have an irreversible effect with some unknown consequences. GMO can cause some harmful genetic effects and from one species to another, genes moving is not genetically engineered.

Related with GMO crops, some health issues can be generated. There are concerns that the creation of food may cause an allergic reaction.

There are several kinds of moral and ethical issues borderlines with the genetic engineering techniques. One of the major and common questions that raised is that humans have the right to manipulate the laws and nature.

A research report in Nature Medicine contradicts the likelihood of intentional engineering of Sars-CoV-2, genetic engineering could well be the cause of the next pandemic.

Is there any sort of dangers associated with Genetic Engineering?

Some or the other way as the technology is growing in greater pace as CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) gene-editing which are developed a few years ago consists of the same natural mechanism in which the bacteria is used to trim pieces of genetic information from one genome and then insert it into the another. This mechanism in which bacteria developed to defend from viruses has been turned into a cheap, simple, or quick way to edit the DNA of any organism in the laboratory.

The gene-editing CRISPR is cheap and easy to use. Several scientists across the world are researching and experimenting with this technology  and the technologies have democratised to such an extent that any country can engineer viruses. Not only dangers come from governments but also non-state actors, bio-hackers can have access to the same tools. Also, it has been said that researchers can recreate deadly viruses which may take humanity decades to eradicate it.

‘Health in India’ Report: Explained

About Gene Editing CRISPR/Cas9

Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer A. Doudna have discovered one among gene technology’s sharpest tools: the CRISPR/Cas9 genetic scissors. Researchers by using this technology can change the DNA of animals, plants and microorganisms with extremely high precision. It will pave the revolutionary impact on the life sciences and also contributes to new cancer therapies and should make the dream of curing inherited diseases come true.

According to the researchers by using the CRISPR/Cas9 genetic scissors, it is now possible to change the code of life over the course of a few weeks.

During the studies of Emmanuelle Charpentier, Streptococcus pyogenes, one among the bacteria which will cause the foremost harm to humanity and she discovered a previously unknown molecule that’s tracrRNA. As per her research and work, tracrRNA may be a part of bacteria’s ancient immune system and CRISPR/Cas disarms viruses by cleaving their DNA. In 2011, she published her discovery and the same year she initiated a collaboration with Jennifer Doudna.

Jennifer Doudna is an experienced biochemist who has a vast knowledge of RNA. Together they succeeded in recreating the bacteria’s genetic scissors in a test tube and simplified them so that they can be easily used.

The function of the scissor is to recognise DNA from viruses and both Charpentier and Doudna proved that they could be controlled so that they will be able to cut any DNA molecule at a predetermined site. Where the DNA is cut it becomes easier to rewrite the code of life.

In 2012, genetic scissors  CRISPR/Cas9 were discovered by Charpentier and Doudna and so their use has exploded. The research has contributed in several ways, in various important discoveries, plant researchers have been able to develop crops that withstand mould, pests and drought.

It is also used in medicine, clinical trials of new cancer patients therapies are underway and are said that the dream o being able to cure inherited diseases may come to true.

No doubt that the discovery of genetic scissors have taken the life sciences into a new epoch and in various ways are bringing the greatest benefits to humankind.

Therefore, it is necessary that with the development of new technologies good side of it should be accelerated like Leveraging Artificial Intelligence & Big Data, Deploying 3D Printing, Gathering of Genomic Data, etc.

At last, we can conclude that technologies are developed for providing the benefits and there is a need of the hour to use it and analyse the data and develop the treatments. With the help of Genetic Engineering, India can make a strong position and lead the world in research and innovation. As discussed above gene-editing technology will pave the revolutionary impact on the life sciences and also contributes to new cancer therapies and may make the dream of curing inherited diseases come true.

What is ‘Feluda’ Test?

UPSC General Studies Geography Video Course

To clear the UPSC CSE 2021 exam, aspirants must be very strong in their fundamentals along with the current affairs. Adda247 has taken an important step to help all CSE aspirants by providing them daily quizzes on App. Now aspirants will get free quizzes to practice along with analysis of The Hindu, PIB, etc.

1. In which state of India, Saddam Beach is located?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka
(d) Kerala
2. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the entire coal industry was nationalised during 1972-73.
2. The South Asian nation depends on Coal India for more than 80 per cent of its domestic production.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC 2021 Online Coaching Classes | Bilingual GS Foundation Batch
3. During whose Prime ministership, the ninth schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Gulzari Lal Nanda

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 45, 27 October
4. Which of the following is/are the features of Additional Tier-1 Bonds?
1. These have higher rates than tier-II bonds.
2. These bonds have no maturity date.
3. Individual investors too can hold these bonds.
Choose the correct option
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. In context to the art and archaeological history of India, which among the following was made earliest?
(a) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
(b) Varaha Image at Udayagiri
(c) Lingaraja Temple at Bhubneshwar
(d) Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 44, 26 October
6. Consider the following statements.
1. World Polio Day was established by Rotary International on 24th October to celebrate the birth of Jonas Salk, who developed a vaccine against poliomyelitis..
2. On 24 February, 2012, the WHO removed India from the list of countries with active endemic wild poliovirus transmission.
3. In 2014, two years later, the South-East Asia Region of the WHO, of which India is a part, was certified as polio-free.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 43, 23 October
7. Which one of the following name the traditional system of irrigation found in cold desert is known as:
(a) Dhekli
(b) Furrow
(c) Kuhls
(d) Mothi

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 42, 22 October
8. With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements.
1. Article 121 states that no discussions shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties except upon a motion for the removal of the judge.
2. Article 211 says that no discussion shall take place in the legislature of a state with respect to the conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.
Which of the following statement(s)given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 41, 21 October
9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information System (INCOIS)?
1. INCOIS was established in 1999 as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
2. INCOIS is the nodal agency to provide tsunami advisories to India.
3. INCOIS has also partnered with Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and NASA.
Choose the correct option
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
10. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. Dampa Tiger Reserve: Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary: Sikkim
3. Saramati Peak: Nagaland
Choose the correct option
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: 1(d), 2(c), 3(b), 4(d), 5(a), 6(a), 7(c), 8(c), 9(b), 10(b)

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 28 October, 2020

UPSC Prelims Syllabus 2021: General Studies and CSAT for CSE

Daily news will speed up the preparation for the Civil Services Examination and it also plays a crucial role to grasp the current affairs topic comprehensively. Here we have covered most of the topics related to various categories including National, International, Sports, Science and Technology, and so on.

1. Third India-US 2+2 dialogue

– India and the US have met the third edition of the 2+2 dialogue.  Both the countries have inked defence pact, Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-Spatial Cooperation (BECA).

– It aims towards the expansion of geospatial information sharing between armed forces of the two countries. These militaries came in the backdrop of India’s tense border standoff with China in eastern Ladakh.

– As per the 2+2 dialogue, both the countries talk about the critical issues including ways to further expand the already close relationship between the militaries of the two countries along with broader issues of mutual interest in the Indo-Pacific region.

– Under this dialogue, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and National Aeronautics and Space Administration agreed for the collaboration that includes the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) satellite which is scheduled to be launched by 2022.

UPSC 2021 Online Coaching Classes | Bilingual GS Foundation Batch

2. Agreement between India Post and United States Postal Service (USPS)

– India Post and United States Postal Service (USPS) have inked an agreement for the electronic exchange of customs data related to postal shipments exchanged between the two countries.

– The agreement aims to facilitate ‘ease of exports’ for small and large exporters through postal channels.

– This agreement will be very helpful to transmit and receive electronic data of international postal items prior to their physical arrival at the destination and would enable customs clearance of postal items in advance in line with the evolving global postal framework. This will also encourage the performance of postal services in terms of reliability, visibility and security.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 27 October, 2020

3. India-Australia Circular Economy Hackathon

– Atal Innovation Mission and Australia’s Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation (CSIRO) will organise a two-day hackathon on circular economy called ‘India-Australia Circular Economy Hackathon (I-ACE)’, in December 2020.

– The idea of I-ACE was conceived during a virtual summit on 4th June, 2020, between the Hon’ble Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Australian counterpart. It aims to explore innovative ways to boost the circular economy in India and Australia. It also concentrates on the identification and development of innovative technology solutions by students, startups and MSMEs of both nations.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 26 October, 2020

4. Sudan and Israel Relationship

– Sudan, an African nation was technically at war with Israel since its foundation in 1948, has now become the third country to forge diplomatic relations with it. This happened so because a deal brokered by the USA with Sudan.

– Earlier, the USA brokered diplomatic pacts between Israel and the UAE and Bahrain as well, to normalise their relations. The deal would deepen Sudan’s engagement with the West.

– The deal follows USA’s conditional agreement to remove Sudan from its blacklist of countries accused of sponsoring terrorism.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 24 October, 2020

5. The PLACID Trial

– The PLACID Trial was conducted by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and is the first and largest randomised control trial to be completed in the world. The aim behind the research was to investigate CPT’s effectiveness for the treatment of Covid-19. It is the first and largest randomised control trial to be completed in the world.

– A multicentre randomized controlled trial which is called as PLACID Trial has shown that the use of convalescent plasma (CP) as a therapeutic for Covid-19 patients showed no positive effects and did not improve the outcome of the patients.

– The randomised controlled trial (RCT) is a trial in which subjects are randomly assigned to one of two groups: one (the experimental group) receiving the intervention that is being tested, and the other (the comparison group or control) receiving an alternative (conventional) treatment.

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 45, 27 October

UPSC Prelims Syllabus 2021: General Studies and CSAT for CSE

UPSC CSE 2020 परीक्षा को पास करने के लिए, उम्मीदवारों को करंट अफेयर्स के साथ अपने फंडामेंटल में बहुत मजबूत होना चाहिए। Adda247 ने सभी CSE उम्मीदवारों को ऐप पर दैनिक क्विज़ प्रदान करके उनकी मदद करने के लिए एक महत्वपूर्ण कदम उठाया है। अब उम्मीदवारों को द हिंदू, पीआईबी, आदि के विश्लेषण के साथ अभ्यास करने के लिए मुफ्त क्विज़ मिलेंगे।

1. भारत में धार्मिक प्रथाओं के संदर्भ में “स्थानकवासी” संप्रदाय निम्नलिखित है:
(a) वैष्णववाद
(b) बौद्ध धर्म
(c) शैव मत
(d) जैन धर्म
2. स्टेट ऑफ ग्लोबल एयर 2020 के अनुसार, 2019 में सबसे अधिक PM2.5 एक्सपोजर वाले शीर्ष दस देशों में से कौन सा देश है?
1. भारत
2. बांग्लादेश
3. पाकिस्तान
4. नेपाल
सही विकल्प चुनें
(a) 1, 2 और 3
(b) 1, 3 और 4
(c) 1, 2 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4
3. लागत मुद्रास्फीति सूचकांक के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें।
1. इसका उपयोग मुद्रास्फीति के कारण त्रैमासिक वस्तुओं और परिसंपत्तियों की कीमतों में वृद्धि का अनुमान लगाने के लिए किया जाता है।
2. कीमतों को मुद्रास्फीति दर से मेल कराने के लिए इसकी गणना की जाती है।
निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 दोनों
(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2
4. भारतीय रॉक-कट वास्तुकला के इतिहास के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
1. भारत में सबसे पुरानी जीवित रॉक-कट गुफाएं बादामी में हैं।
2. सम्राट चंद्रगुप्त मौर्य ने मूल रूप से अजीविका के लिए बाराबर रॉक-कट गुफाएं बनाई थीं।
3. एलोरा में, गुफाओं को विभिन्न धर्मों के लिए बनाया गया था।
सही उत्तर चुने।
(a) केवल 1
(b) 2 और 3 ही
(c) केवल 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3

https://www.adda247.com/product-onlineliveclasses/6470/upsc-2021-online-coaching-classes-bilingual-gs-foundation-batch
5. जिला विकास परिषदों (डीडीसी) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें।
1. डीडीसी का कार्यकाल तीन वर्ष का होगा।
2. परिषद एक वर्ष में कम से कम चार “सामान्य बैठकें” आयोजित करेगी, प्रत्येक तिमाही में एक।
3. जिले के अतिरिक्त जिला विकास आयुक्त (या अतिरिक्त डीसी) जिला विकास परिषद के मुख्य कार्यकारी अधिकारी होंगे।
4. केंद्र शासित प्रदेश जम्मू और कश्मीर में डीडीसी के सदस्य मतदाताओं द्वारा सीधे चुने जाएंगे।
निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
(a) 2 और 3
(b) 1, 3 और 4
(c) 1 और 4
(d) 2, 3 और 4
6. भारतीय संविधान अनुच्छेद के अनुसार, किसी की पसंद के व्यक्ति से शादी करने के अधिकार को कौन सुरक्षित करता है?
(a) अनुच्छेद 18
(b) अनुच्छेद 19
(c) अनुच्छेद 21
(d) अनुच्छेद 25
7. उत्पादन-जुड़े प्रोत्साहन (पीएलआई) योजना के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं?
1. इस योजना की घोषणा सरकार द्वारा केवल मोबाइल फोन और चिकित्सा उपकरणों के लिए की जाती है।
2. इलेक्ट्रॉनिक्स पर राष्ट्रीय नीति के एक भाग के रूप में 1 अप्रैल को अधिसूचित किया गया।
सही उत्तर चुने।
(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 2
(c) 1 और 2 दोनों
(d) न तो 1 और न ही 2
8. भारत के निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य में भारत की पहली समुद्री विमान सेवा शुरू होगी?
(a) केरल
(b) गुजरात
(c) तमिलनाडु
(d) महाराष्ट्र
9. नासा के OSIRIS-REx मिशन के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें।
1. यह नासा का पहला मिशन है जिसका उद्देश्य प्राचीन क्षुद्रग्रह से एक नमूना वापस लाना है।
2. OSIRIS-Rex का मतलब है ओरिजिन, स्पेक्ट्रल इंटरप्रिटेशन, रिसोर्स आइडेंटिफिकेशन, सिक्योरिटी-रेजोलिथ एक्सप्लोरर।
3. हाल ही में, नासा के OSIRIS-Rex अंतरिक्ष यान ने क्षुद्रग्रह बेनु को संक्षेप रूप से छुआ था।
निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
(a) 1, २ और ३
(b) 1 और 3
(c) 2 और 3
(d) 1 और 2
10. एकीकृत निर्देशित मिसाइल विकास कार्यक्रम (IGMDP) के तहत निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी मिसाइल विकसित हुई?
1. पृथ्वी
2. अग्नि
3. त्रिशूल
4. नाग
5. आकाश
सही उत्तर चुने
(a) 1, 3 और 4
(b) 1, 4 और 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 और 5
Ans: 1(d), 2(d), 3(b), 4(c), 5(a), 6(c), 7(b), 8(b), 9(a), 10(d)

To clear the UPSC CSE 2021 exam, aspirants must be very strong in their fundamentals along with the current affairs. Adda247 has taken an important step to help all CSE aspirants by providing them daily quizzes on App. Now aspirants will get free quizzes to practice along with analysis of The Hindu, PIB, etc.

1. Thottavariyam, Panchavariyam, Ponvariyam and Erivaryam in ancient India were:
(a) Titles of different functions of village administration.
(b) Land Revenue officers
(c) During ancient times, names of different varnas.
(d) Military officer’s titles
2. Which of the following country recently hosted the first-ever Ministerial Meeting of the G-20 Anti-Corruption Working Group (ACWG)?
(a) Turkey
(b)The Republic of Korea
(c) India
(d) Saudi Arabia

UPSC 2021 Online Coaching Classes | Bilingual GS Foundation Batch
3. Consider the following statements regarding the Monoclonal Antibodies.
1. Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are produced by clones derived from a single parent cell.
2. They are made by cloning a unique white blood cell.
3. mAbs have monovalent affinity, it binds only to the same epitope.
Which of the following statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Which of the following is/are the other names of Himalayan brown bears?
1. Himalayan red bear
2. Isabelline bear
3. Dzu-Teh
Choose the correct option
(a) Only 1
(b) Both 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 44, 26 October
5. Residuary powers in the federation established by the Government of India Act 1935 were given to the:
(a) Provincial Legislature
(b) Federal Legislature
(c) Governor-General
(d) Provincial Executives
6. Consider the statements regarding Ropeway Project.
1. Recently, it was launched by the PM Narendra Modi on Mount Girnar in Junagadh city.
2. It is being touted as the longest temple ropeway in Asia.
3. It has been developed by the Usha Breco Limited.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 43, 23 October
7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Independent External Monitors (IEMs)?
1. IEM reviews independently and objectively, whether and to what extent parties have complied with their obligations under the pact.
2. They may submit a report to the chief executive of the organisation concerned or directly to the CVO and the CVC if they find serious irregularities attracting the Prevention of Corruption Act provisions.
Choose the correct option
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. In context to colonial rule in India, who introduced the Sunset Law?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Arthur Wellesley
(c) William Jones
(d) Charles Cornwallis

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 42, 22 October
9. Name the National Park that lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) Vatnajokull National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Valley of Flowers National Park
(d) Manuel Antonio National Park
10. Consider the following statements regarding the Gyan Circle Ventures?
1. They are Technology Business Incubators (TBI).
2. Funded by the Ministry of Information Technology (MeitY).
3. Led by the Indian Institute of Information Technology, Sri City (Chittoor), Andhra Pradesh.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: 1(a), 2(d), 3(d), 4(d), 5(c), 6(d), 7(c), 8(d), 9(c), 10(c)

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 27 October, 2020

UPSC 2020 Civil Services Main Examination: How to fill Detailed Application Form (DAF)?

UPSC Prelims Syllabus 2021: General Studies and CSAT for CSE

Daily news will speed up the preparation for the Civil Services Examination and it also plays a crucial role to grasp the current affairs topic comprehensively. Here we have covered most of the topics related to various categories including National, International, Sports, Science and Technology, and so on.

1. Mechanical Engineering Block, Bio-Technology and Chemical Engineering Block

– Union Minister for Education Dr. Ramesh Pokhriyal ‘Nishank’ virtually inaugurated newly constructed Mechanical Engineering Block, Bio-Technology and Chemical Engineering Block and facilities including Central Instrumentation and Reaction Engineering Laboratory of NIT Arunachal Pradesh.

– According to Ramesh Pokhriyal, “Our educational institutions should inculcate in the minds of their students a scientific temperament and should serve as a box of knowledge.”

– Kiren Rijiju appreciated the efforts of the Ministry of Education to bring out New Education Policy (NEP) for the betterment of the education system from primary to a higher level.

UPSC 2021 Online Coaching Classes | Bilingual GS Foundation Batch

2. “Bundi: Architectural Heritage of a Forgotten Rajput Capital”

– The Ministry of Tourism’s Dekho Apna Desh Webinar series titled “Bundi: Architectural Heritage of a Forgotten Rajput Capital” focused on Bundi, Rajasthan.

– Bundi erstwhile capital of Hada Rajput province known as Hadauti located in south-eastern Rajasthan, is one such place.

–  The webinar was presented by  Charudatta Deshmukh, an Architect-Urban Planner, an urbanist with over 25 years of experience in managing planning and design of urban infrastructure and development projects including Airports, Special Economic Zones, Transportation & Urban Redevelopment, Metro Rail, Environmental Sustainability and Slum Rehabilitation.

Bundi is also known as City of step walls, blue city and also as Chotti Kashi. In ancient times, the area around Bundi was apparently inhabited by various local tribes, of which the Parihar Tribes, Meena was prominent.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 26 October, 2020

3. Child Care Leave

– While briefing about some of the major reforms brought by Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT) under the Modi government, Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER), MoS PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space, Dr Jitendra Singh said that the male employees of the government are also now entitled to Child Care Leave.

– According to Dr. Jitendra Singh, the provision and privilege of Child Care Leave (CCL) will be available only for those male employees who happen to be “single male parent”, which may include male employees who are widowers or divorcees or even unmarried and may, therefore, be expected to take up the responsibility of child care as a single-handed parent.

Further, He said that the provision and privilege of Child Care Leave (CCL) will be available only for those male employees who happen to be “single male parent”, which may include male employees who are widowers or divorcees or even unmarried and may therefore, be expected to take up the responsibility of child care as a single-handed parent.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 24 October, 2020

4. ‘India–Australia Circular Economy Hackathon (I-ACE)

1 AIM (Atal Innovation Mission), in association with CSIRO, is organizing a two-day hackathon on the circular economy, ‘India–Australia Circular Economy Hackathon (I-ACE)’, on 7 and 8 December.

The idea of I-ACE was conceived during a virtual summit on 4 June, between the Indian and Australian prime ministers, exploring innovative ways to boost the circular economy in India and Australia.

I-ACE will focus on identification and development of innovative technology solutions by bright-minded students, startups and MSMEs of both nations.

The four key themes for the hackathon are as follows:

  • Innovation in packaging reducing packaging waste
  • Innovation in food supply chains avoiding waste
  • Creating opportunities for plastic waste reduction
  • Recycling critical energy metals and e-waste

– Shortlisted students and startups/MSMEs will be called for the hackathon, where two winners (one student and one startup/MSME) per theme from each country will be announced at an award ceremony on 11 December.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 23 October, 2020

5. In the Indus Valley Civilisation, Evidence of dairy production

– For the first time, scientifically it has been proved that dairy production was in place in the Indus Valley civilization in 2500 BCE.

– It is the earliest known evidence of dairy production.

– The results were based on molecular chemical analysis of residue in shards of pottery found at the archaeological site of Kotada Bhadli located in Gujarat.

–  59 samples were studied in which 22 showed the presence of dairy lipids.

– 2020 also marks the 100 years of discovery of Indus Valley Civilisation.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 22 October, 2020

6. Two New Ramsar Sites

– Kabartal Wetland (Bihar) and Asan Conservation Reserve (Uttrakhand) have been designated as Ramsar sites, making them ‘Wetlands of International Importance’, recently.

– India designated 10 more wetlands earlier in 2020 as a Ramsar site and the total number from 27 becomes 37.

– So, now with 2 more inclusions, the total number of Ramsar sites in India becomes 39 and is the highest in South Asia.

7. Draft Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019

– To examine the draft Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, recently, Facebook India’s policy head has appeared before the 30-member Joint Committee of Parliament.

– However, Amazon has declined to appear on the ground of risky travel amidst the pandemic.

– Amazon, Twitter, Facebook, Google and Paytm are among the companies from whom the committee has sought views on data security and protection amid concerns that the privacy of users is being “compromised” for commercial interest.

UPSC 2020 Civil Services Main Examination: How to fill Detailed Application Form (DAF)?

UPSC Prelims Syllabus 2021: General Studies and CSAT for CSE

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 44, 26 October

 

As we know that the aspirants who clear the UPSC Civil Services Prelims Examination 2020 will be shortlisted based on the General Studies Paper I score which in total is of 200 marks.

Civil services Mains Examination 2020 will be held from 8 January, 2021 and all the candidates who have qualified have to fill online Detailed Application Form (DAF) and submit it online to apply for the UPSC Mains Examination.

About Detailed Application Form (DAF)

It is a form that candidates have to fill and upload online on the official website of UPSC to apply for the mains examination.

This form is applicable for those who qualified for the Civil Services Prelims Examination. For General and OBC Candidates Fees is Rs 200 and there is a total fee exemption for female candidates and SC/ST Candidates.

Also kindly visit the official website of UPSC to get the link for DAF.

Guidelines for filling the online Detailed Application Form (DAF)

First, it is advised for the candidates to read carefully the Rules of the Examinations that is conditions of eligibility etc. as published in the Gazette of India and Detailed Application Form of the Examination is available on the link www.upsc.gov.in.

Second, it is important to read the following instructions available on the UPSC official website before filling the online Detailed Application Form (DAF).

UPSC 2021 Online Coaching Classes | Bilingual GS Foundation Batch

How to Apply?

1. Detailed Application Form has to be filled by the Candidates and have to submit Online by using the website www.upsc.gov.in.

2. It is necessary to ensure via candidates that all columns should be filled correctly. No correspondence will be entertained by the Commission from candidates to change any of the entries made in the online Detailed Application Form.

Guidelines are as follows:

1. It is necessary for the candidates to get themselves registered first before filling up the Online Detailed Application Form (DAF) at the UPSC official website after declared qualified in the written part of the Examinations.

2. It is necessary for the candidates to create registration accounts by Clicking appropriately on the link provided below the “login” button.

3. On the registration module, Name (as recorded in the matriculation/Secondary examination certificate), Roll Number (in six-digit format) and Date of Birth (as recorded in the matriculation/secondary examination certificate) and e-mail address are to be provided.

4. (a) It is compulsory to fill all the fields.

(b) Candidates should ensure that they have provided a valid and an active e-mail address in the e-mail address field as the login credentials will be sent to the respective registered e-mail addresses provided by the candidates.

5. After clicking the submission button, the candidates will get a message on their screen, clearly mentioning the name and e-mail that they have been registered and a password will be sent to the candidate’s e-mail address.

6. After completing this, the candidates are required to go back to the UPSC official website and log into the login Module with their Roll Number of six digits along with the password.

7. The online DAF has SIX modules namely:

1. Personal,

2. Educational Information

3. Parental Information

4,. Employment Information

5. Upload documents and

6. Final Submission

8. All the modules should be filled by the candidates completely before finally submitting the form online by using the Final Submission Module.

9. Candidates should save each module after completing the same. However, candidates will have the option to make changes in any module before final submission of DAF. Once Final Submission has been made, no change will be possible Online.

10. Candidates are required to upload scanned copies of documents like proof of Age, Educational Qualification, Community Certificate, PH Certificate etc. as mentioned in the Instructions to Candidates for filling in the Detailed Application Form (DAF).

11. Candidates may note that some of the fields namely Candidate’s name, Date of Birth, Father’s Name, Mother’s name, email address, Physically Challenged category, Disability percentage etc. have been pre-populated using the information provided by the candidate at the time of filling up the earlier Online Application Form for writing the Written Examination/Preliminary Written Examination.

Such fields cannot be changed by the candidate. However, if a Candidate notes any error/discrepancy in these fields, he or she may make a separate detailed representation to the Commission including all relevant documents, in support of his claim. The Commission will decide each such case on merit and its decision in such cases shall be final.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 26 October, 2020

Also, have a look at the important instructions that are required to fill the Online Application Form.

1. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully before filling up the application form.

2. Online submission of application can only be made at website https://upsconline.nic.in. Detailed instructions are available at the site. Candidate should read the instructions carefully before making any entry or selecting options. Candidate should supply all the required details while filling up the online form. Mandatory fields are marked with * (asterisk) sign.

3. Candidates may please note that changes are not allowed in the online application, once it is submitted. If you wish to make any changes, you may submit a fresh application with requisite revision by the last date for receipt of application i.e. 27-10-2020 (6:00 P.M.). Your registration-id for latest completely submitted application will be considered for processing and all earlier submitted applications will stand cancelled. It is also advised that the email-id and mobile number must be retained for future references.

4. Online Application Form is available in English and in Hindi Language but it can only be filled in the English Language.

5. The filling of online application contains two parts.

6. In Part I registration, the candidate will have to fill basic information. On submission of details, candidate will be prompted to check the details and make a correction, if any, in the application.

7. Part-II Registration consists of following Stages: filling up Payment details (except for fee exempted candidates), uploading of Photograph, Signature, Photo Identity Card Document, selection of examination centre and Agreeing to Declaration.

8. Registration of Part-I & Part-II will be treated as valid from 07-10-2020 to 27-10-2020 (6:00 P.M.).

9. Candidate must press “I agree” button after he /she finds that information supplied by him /her is in order and no correction is required. Thereafter no correction/modification shall be allowed.

10. When “I agree” button is pressed, a page with Registration Number will be generated. Please note down Registration Number or take a print out of the page. The application is incomplete without payment, uploading of scanned photograph, signature, Photo Identity Card Document, selection of centre and agree to declaration.

11. Scanned photograph should be in JPG format and must be uploaded first. The digital size of the file should not exceed 300 KB each and must not be less than 20 KB and resolution 350 pixels (Width) X 350 pixels (Height) minimum, 1000 pixels (Width) X 1000 pixels (Height) maximum and Bit Depth of image file should be 24 bit.

12. After uploading your photograph then upload your scanned signature in JPG format. The digital size of each file should not exceed 300 KB each and must not be less than 20 KB and resolution 350 pixels (Width) X 350 pixels (Height) minimum, 1000 pixels (Width) X 1000 pixels (Height) maximum and Bit Depth of image file should be 24 bit.

13. Next upload your photo identity card document in PDF format only. The digital size of the PDF file should not exceed 300 KB and must not be less than 20 KB.

14. Candidates can pay the application fee online, through Credit/Debit Card/Net banking facility of any Banks or by cash challan in SBI bank.

15. To pay the fee in cash, a candidate should take a printout of challan generated online after completion of registration. The candidate may go to nearest SBI branch for depositing fee after 24 hours of generation of challan. “Pay by Cash” mode option will be deactivated at 23.59 hours of 26-10-2020 i.e. one day before the closing date. However, applicants who have generated their Pay-in-slip before it is de-activated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during banking hours on the closing date of application.

16. Those who want to pay online through SBI portal can do so directly during submission of online form.

17. Those who are exempted from payment of fee can skip steps 14 to 16.

18. Please provide the photo identity card number and upload a copy of the same in Online Application Form and remember to carry it at the time of Personality Test/Examination at the venue.

19. On successful completion of your complete application, an auto-generated email message will be sent on your registered email-id. In case an email is not received by you please check/ensure that submission of Part-II of the Application has been made by you.

20. Candidates with less than 40% disability will not be considered for any relaxation which are applicable to PwBD candidates and is required to pay a fee if not exempted under the rules.

Note: Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the Centres except Ahmedabad, Delhi, Dispur and Kolkata. Allotment of Centres will be on the ‘first-apply-first allot’ basis, and once the capacity of a particular Centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice.

Hoping, that all the doubts regarding DAF and filling the form are cleared.

All the Best for the exam and for the future!

Source: upsc.gov.in

UPSC Prelims Syllabus 2021: General Studies and CSAT for CSE

To clear the UPSC CSE 2021 exam, aspirants must be very strong in their fundamentals along with the current affairs. Adda247 has taken an important step to help all CSE aspirants by providing them daily quizzes on App. Now aspirants will get free quizzes to practice along with analysis of The Hindu, PIB, etc.

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
1. It is an Independent Body and is only responsible to the Parliament.
2. It was set up by the Government in February, 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by K. Santhanam.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC 2021 Online Coaching Classes | Bilingual GS Foundation Batch
2. Which of the following are designated as Ramsar Sites recently making them ‘Wetlands of International Importance’?
(a) Kabartal Wetland (Bihar)
(b) Asan Conservation Reserve (Uttarakhand)
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
3. In the context to the history of philosophical thought in India, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Sankhya School?
1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of the soul.
2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.
Choose the correct answer
(a)Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 43, 23 October
4. Consider the following statements regarding India’s first seaplane.
1. Seaplane is a fixed-wing aeroplane designed for taking off and landing on sea only.
2. There are three main types of seaplanes: flying boats, hull seaplanes and floatplanes.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about “Devadasis System” which was an undesired and unhealthy practice of forcing girls to be as Devadasis?
1. It is a religious practice in which parents marry a daughter to a deity or a temple.
2. Usually, the marriage occurs after the girl reaches puberty.
Choose the correct answer
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 42, 22 October
6. Which of the following rivers flow/flows through Arunachal Pradesh?
1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7. Which of the following scheme of the government was/were aligned with World Food Day’s 2020 theme to grow, nourish and sustain together?
1. Indira Rasoi Yojana
2. Antyodaya Anna Yojana
3. Sampada Yojana
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 41, 21 October
8. Which of the following country will remain in FATF’s grey list till February 2021?
(a) Iran
(b) Pakistan
(c) Iraq
(d) None of the above
9. Which country has first time launched Flash Flood Guidance Services?
(a) Nepal
(b) Srilanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) India

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 40, 20 October
10. In which of the following regions in India, Tank irrigation is more common?
(a) Arid and Semi-Arid region having scanty rainfall.
(b) Rocky plateau region having uneven and highly seasonal rainfall,
(c) Coastal regions with regular rainfall.
(d) Regions having the presence of perennial rivers and plenty of rainfall.
Ans: 1(c), 2(c), 3(b), 4(d), 5(a), 6(c), 7(b), 8(b), 9(d),10(b)

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 26 October, 2020

UPSC Prelims Syllabus 2021: General Studies and CSAT for CSE

UPSC CSE 2020 परीक्षा को पास करने के लिए, उम्मीदवारों को करंट अफेयर्स के साथ अपने फंडामेंटल में बहुत मजबूत होना चाहिए। Adda247 ने सभी CSE उम्मीदवारों को ऐप पर दैनिक क्विज़ प्रदान करके उनकी मदद करने के लिए एक महत्वपूर्ण कदम उठाया है। अब उम्मीदवारों को द हिंदू, पीआईबी, आदि के विश्लेषण के साथ अभ्यास करने के लिए मुफ्त क्विज़ मिलेंगे।

1.किस श्रेणी के तहत हाल ही में, विधि आयोग ने अपनी 255 वीं रिपोर्ट में भी चुनावी सुधारों पर कई सिफारिशें की हैं?

  1. राजनीतिक योगदान और पार्टी उम्मीदवार खर्च पर सीमा।
  2. मानदंडों और आवश्यकताओं का प्रकटीकरण ।
  3. चुनाव की राज्य निधि।
    उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिये

(a) 1 और 2
(b) 1 और 3
(c) केवल 1
(d) 1, 2 और 3

2.हाल ही में, भारत के किस राज्य ने केंद्र सरकार के तीन फार्म अधिनियमों को औपचारिक रूप से खारिज कर दिया?
(a) हरियाणा
(b) पंजाब
(c) केरल
(d) पश्चिम बंगाल

3.मराठा पैदल सेना में, सबसे निचली रैंक थी:
(a) जुमलदार
(b) नायक
(c) हवलदार
(d) पटनायक

4.भारतीय संस्कृति की एक प्रमुख परंपरा ध्रुपद के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें।

1.यह हिंदुस्तानी शास्त्रीय संगीत की सबसे प्राचीन शैली है जो आज तक अपने मूल रूप में जीवित है।2.ध्रुपद शब्द DHRUVA से बना है स्थिर इवनिंग स्टार जो हमारी आकाशगंगा और PADA मीनिंग पोएट्री के माध्यम से चलता है।
3.यह भक्ति संगीत का एक रूप है जो अथर्ववेद के प्राचीन पाठ से इसकी उत्पत्ति का पता लगाता है।निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
(a) 1 और 2
(b) 2 और 3
(c) केवल 3
(d) 1 और 3

5.निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन कालेश्वरम लिफ्ट सिंचाई परियोजना के बारे में सही है/हैं?

  1. यह तेलंगाना में गोदावरी नदी पर एक बहुउद्देश्यीय सिंचाई परियोजना है।
  2. इसे 2015 में शुरू किया गया था।
  3. मूल रूप से इसे डॉ बी आर अम्बेडकर प्राणहिता चेवेल्ला सुजला श्रवण्थी परियोजना कहा जाता है
    सही विकल्प चुनें(a) 1 और 2

(b) 1 और 3
(c) 2 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3

6.वह कौनसा कारण है जिससे वार्षिक केंद्रीय बजट लोकसभा द्वारा पारित नहीं किया जाता है?
(a) सुझावों के लिए, बजट राज्य सभा को संदर्भित किया जाता है।
(b) प्रधानमंत्री मंत्रिपरिषद के त्यागपत्र को प्रस्तुत करता है।
(c) बजट को संशोधित कर फिर से प्रस्तुत किया जाता है।
(d) केंद्रीय वित्त मंत्री को इस्तीफा देने के लिए कहा जाता है।

7.निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें।

  1. भारत में साइबर अपराधों के कारण 2019 में 1.25 ट्रिलियन रुपये का नुकसान हुआ।
  2. देश में साइबर अपराध से संबंधित मुद्दों को संभालने के लिए भारतीय साइबर अपराध सहकारिता केंद्र (I4C) की स्थापना के लिए एक योजना स्थापित की गई है।

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 2
(c) दोनों 1 और 2
(d) न तो 1 न ही 2

8.निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन डेमोकोक क्षेत्र के बारे में सही है/हैं?

  1. यह एक विवादित क्षेत्र है जो नुल्लाह और सिंधु नदी के संगम के पास स्थित है।
  2. यह क्षेत्र डेमचोक, लद्दाख और डेमोगोग, नगरी के गांवों पर केंद्रित है।
    सही विकल्प चुनें

(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 2
(c) दोनों 1 और 2
(d) न तो 1 न ही 2

9.परिसीमन आयोग के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें।

  1. परिसीमन आयोग के आदेशों को किसी भी अदालत के समक्ष विचाराधीन नहीं कहा जा सकता है।
  2. परिसीमन आयोग भारत के राष्ट्रपति द्वारा नियुक्त किया जाता है और भारत निर्वाचन आयोग के सहयोग से काम करता है।
    निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

(a) केवल 1
(b) केवल 2
(c) दोनों 1 और 2
(d) न तो 1 न ही 2

10.निम्नलिखित में से क्या किसान क्रेडिट कार्ड (KCC) के उद्देश्य हैं?

  1. कटाई के बाद के खर्च
  2. कृषक परिवार की उपभोग आवश्यकताएं।
  3. कृषि संपत्ति के रखरखाव के लिए पूंजी।

https://www.adda247.com/product-onlineliveclasses/6470/upsc-2021-online-coaching-classes-bilingual-gs-foundation-batch

सही विकल्प चुनें
(a) 1 और 2
(b) 2 और 3
(c) 1 और 3
(d) 1, 2 और 3

Ans: 1(d), 2(b), 3(c), 4(a), 5(b), 6(b), 7(a), 8(c), 9(c), 10(d)

Daily news will speed up the preparation for the Civil Services Examination and it also plays a crucial role to grasp the current affairs topic comprehensively. Here we have covered most of the topics related to various categories including National, International, Sports, Science and Technology, and so on.

1. National Conference on Vigilance and Anti Corruption

– Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the National Conference on Vigilance and Anti-Corruption on 27th October, 2020 via video conferencing.

– The theme is सतर्क भारत, समृद्ध भारत (Vigilant India, Prosperous India).

– The Central Bureau of Investigation organizes this National Conference coinciding with ‘Vigilance Awareness Week’, which is observed in India every year from 27th October to 2nd November.

– Activities in this conference would be focused on Vigilance issues aimed at raising awareness and reaffirming India’s commitment to the promotion of integrity and probity in public life through citizen participation.

2. BRO Road to the Nation

– Defence Minister Rajnath Singh dedicated the 19.85 Km Alternate Alignment of the National Highway 310 from km 0.00 to km 19.350 to the Nation in Sikkim.

– The Defence Minister while addressing the gathering on the occasion complimented the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) for its unwavering commitment towards delivering outstanding quality infrastructure in record time and optimal costs.

– The BRO over the last some years has undertaken an unprecedented expansion of its capabilities through technology infusion in material, equipment and construction techniques.

– The Atal Tunnel, DS-DBO Road, the new alignment of the National Highway 310 are examples of high quality, fast-paced results delivered by the BRO towards strategic and operational preparedness.

3. National coaching camp for Table Tennis

– The Sports Authority of India has approved the national coaching camp for Table Tennis, which will commence on 28th October till 8th December.

– The camp comprising 11 players (5 male, 6 female) and four support staff will be conducted by the Table Tennis Federation of India at the Delhi Public School, Sonepat.

– The camp will abide by the Standard Operating Procedures set up by the Sports Authority of India for the resumption of sporting activities.

– This will be the first national camp for Table Tennis that will be held after the announcement of the nationwide lockdown due to coronavirus in March this year.

4. Forex Reserves

– As per the data of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the country’s foreign exchange (forex) reserves touched a lifetime high of USD 555.12 billion after it surged by USD 3.615 billion in the week ended 16th October 2020.

– The reason for the increase was due to a sharp rise in Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs) which is a major component of the overall reserves.

About Foreign Exchange Reserves

They are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies. It can include bonds, treasury bills and other government securities.

Note: Most of the foreign exchange reserves are held in U.S. dollars.

5. Pakistan to stay on FATF “Grey List”

– The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) has decided to keep Pakistan on the “greylist”.

– The 27-point action plan had been issued by the FATF after placing Pakistan on the ‘Grey List’ in June 2018.

– The action plan pertains to curbing money laundering and terror financing.

– The task force’s International Cooperation Review Group (ICRG) recently noted that Pakistan had complied with 21 points.

6. MultiModal Logistics Park

– The Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways has laid the foundation stone for the country’s first MultiModal Logistics Park (MMLP) at Jogighopa in Assam.

– It is developed under the Bharatmala Paritojana of the Government of India.

– India will be able to establish trade with Bangladesh through the Jogighopa waterway terminal.

About Bharatmala Pariyojana

– It is an umbrella program for the highways sector envisaged by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

– 35 locations have been identified for development of MultiModal Logistics Parks to reduce the congestion on proposed economic corridors, enhance logistic efficiency and reduce logistics costs of freight movements.

– It will have direct connectivity with National Highway 17.