Table of Contents
The NTA released the Official JEE Mains Answer Key 2024 online on its official website. NTA JEE Mains official Answer Key 2024 for Session 1 includes correct answers to the questions posed in the entrance test which helps candidates check their answers and forecast their expected score. The direct JEE Mains Answer Key 2024 Link is given here below.
JEE Mains Answer Key 2024
After the JEE Mains answer key 2024 is issued, candidates now have a window to raise objections to the answers, if any, by paying a fee (Rs. 200) for each question. After that, the NTA will analyze the candidates’ feedback and prepare the final answer key. To acquire the official Answer key for JEE Main 2024 session 1, applicants must enter their application number and date of birth. candidates may refer to the official JEE Mains answer key 2024 PDF for Shiftwise exams.
JEE Mains 2024 Answer Key Date
The National Testing Agency started Session 1 of Joint Entrance Test 2024 on January 24, 27, 29, 30, 31, and February 1, 2024, at exam centers around the country. A total of 55,493 students took the paper 2 (BArch, BPlanning) exam, while 11,70,036 took the paper 1 (BE/BTech) test.
Candidates who appeared in the Entrance test, are anxiously searching for the JEE Mains Answer Key 2024 of their shifts. Students can utilize these JEE Mains answer key to doublecheck their answers and anticipate their expected scores.
Answer key of JEE Mains 2024 Overview
Candidates were able to anticipate their likely marks by using the JEE Main 2024 answer key. Nonetheless, the ultimate scores were released alongside the JEE Main 2024 results. Candidates who are dissatisfied with the NTA answer key 2024 can submit their objections online via the JEE Mains 2024 answer key challenge login page. To file objections in the provisional answer key, applicants must pay INR 200 for each question. The NTA authority will analyze the objections presented by the candidates, and modifications may be made in the JEE Main Final Answer Key 2024. In the table below, you can see the important highlights of the JEE Main Answer key 2024.
JEE Mains 2024 Answer Key  
Particulars  Details 
Examination Name  Joint Entrance Examination (JEE Main 2024) 
Exam conducting Body  National Testing Agency 
Session  Session 1 
JEE Main Session 1 Exam date  24 January 2024 to 01 February 2024 
when will NTA release Jee mains 2024 answer key?  February 6, 2024 
Credentials required to check  application number and date of birth 
Duration of Raise Objection against the answer key  To be Notified Soon. 
Final JEE Mains Answer key 2024  March 2024 
Official Website  jeemain.nta.ac.in. 
JEE Mains Answer Key 2024 NTA Official Website Link
The National Testing Agency (NTA) released the jee mains answer key 2024 nta official website at jeemain.nta.ac.in. Candidates must input their application number and date of birth to access the Official JEE Mains Answer Key.
JEE Mains Official Answer Key 2024 Download Link 
JEE Mains 2024 Answer Key Link (ACTIVE) 
Download JEE Mains 2024 Question Paper PDF for all shifts
JEE Mains Answer key 2024 PDF
Candidates can get the JEE Mains answer key 2024 for Session 1 from the JEE login page at jeemain.nta.ac.in. To get the JEE Mains answer key, the application number and date of birth are necessary. Candidates can utilize the JEE Main session 1 answer key to confirm their answers and anticipate their probable results.
The final score will be announced alongside the JEE Main results. Students can verify their answers by downloading their JEE Main response sheet. Furthermore, applicants can use the JEE Mains marks vs rank vs percentile to determine the probable rank and percentile depending on the marks achieved in JEE Mains 2024 session 1.
JEE Mains Response Sheet 2024 Download Link
How to download JEE Mains 2024 Answer key?
The JEE Mains 2024 answer key for session 1 is only available on the NTA official website after the concluding of all exam shifts of the JEE Main 2024 January Session. Follow the steps mentioned below to check the JEE Main answer key 2024 PDF.
Step 1: Visit the official JEE Main answer key website at jeemain.nta.ac.in 2024.
Step 2: On the homepage, Click on the link that mentions “JEE Main answer key pdf download 2024”.
Step 3: Enter the login credentials—JEE Main application number and date of birth.
Step 4: After clicking the submit button, the JEE Mains answer key will appear on the screen.
Step 5: Download the NTA JEE Main answer key 2024 PDF for future reference.
JEE Mains Answer Key 2024 Objection Window
After obtaining the NTA JEE Mains provisional answer key 2024, candidates are allowed to file objections to any of the answers in the answer key that they believe are wrong. To raise objections, candidates must take note of the question ID and answer provided in the JEE Mains answer key, as well as the right answer, and apply via the official website of NTA JEE provided, along with a processing fee of Rs 200 for each question.
How to challenge JEE Main Answer Key 2024?
Follow the steps outlined below to challenge the provisional JEE main answer key 2024.
 Visit the NTA’s official website at jeemain.nta.ac.in.
 On the Home page, Click the link captioned ‘challenges regarding JEE Mains 2024 answer key’.
 Candidates are now needed to log in with their application number and password.
 The JEE Main answer key must include the question ID as well as the ID of the correct option for both papers 1 and 2.
 If there appears to be an error, candidates may challenge the question by picking one or more IDs.
 Now, click ‘Save your claim’ and then ‘Next’.
 The challenged Question ID will display on the screen.
 Candidates are now obliged to provide supporting documentation for their objections.
 candidates to pay a processing charge of Rs 200 for each question they objected to. Payment can be made via credit card, debit card, or net banking.
Candidates should be aware that the processing fee is refundable for JEE Mains answer key 2024, and candidates whose claims are found to be relevant and so accepted by the authorities will receive a refund.
JEE Mains Session 1 Answer Key 2024 PDF (Unofficial)
Until the Official NTA JEE Main provisional Answer key 2024 is Released, Candidates can check the answer keys of Each shift of JEE Mains 2024 January Session in the Table Below. These Unofficial Answer keys of JEE Mains 2024 will be shared 24 soon after completing the JEE Main 2024 exam shifts.
JEE main 2024 shift 2 answer key & Shift 1 Answer Keys  
Date  Shift  JEE Mains Answer Key 2024 PDF Download 
27January2024

Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 12:00 PM) 
JEE Mains 27th Jan Answer Key 2024 
Shift 2 (3:00 PM – 6:00 PM) 

29January2024

Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 12:00 PM) 
JEE Mains 29 Jan Shift 1 Answer Key 
Shift 2 (3:00 PM – 6:00 PM) 
Download PDF  
30January2024

Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 12:00 PM) 
Download PDF 
Shift 2 (3:00 PM – 6:00 PM) 
JEE Main 30 January Shift 2 Answer Key  
31January2024

Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 12:00 PM) 
JEE Mains 31 January Shift 1 Answer Key PDF 
Shift 2 (3:00 PM – 6:00 PM) 
Available Soon  
1February2024

Shift 1 (9:00 AM – 12:00 PM) 
Available Soon 
Shift 2 (3:00 PM – 6:00 PM) 
Available Soon 
JEE Mains Answer Key 2024 Session 1 (Unofficial)
Physics
Q. If two rings of equal radius R are arranged perpendicular to each other with a common center at C and the rings carry an equal current I, then find the magnetic field at C.
Ans.
${\mu}_{0}$I/√2R
Q. A particle of mass m is projected from the ground with a speed u at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Find its angular momentum about the point of projection when it reaches its maximum height.
Q. Young’s modulus of a material of length L. and cross sectional area A Is Y. If the length is doubled and crosssectional area is halved then young’s modulus will be
A)Y/4
b) 4Y
C) Y
d) 2Y
Answer: Y
Q. Find the ratio of the kinetic energy and the potential energy in the 5th excited state of a hydrogen atom.
Q. Find the acceleration of a 2 kg block on a fixed inclined surface at 37° with the horizontal. The block is tied with a rope that passes over two pulleys (represented through a diagram) such that pulley 1 rests at the top of the inclined surface and pulley 2 carries a weight of 4 kg. Neglect friction.
A. 4g/15
B. 2g/15
C. g/15
D. 2g/3
Answer: A. 4g/15
Q, Two currentcarrying rings of radius R are mutually perpendicular and their center coincides. Find the magnetic field at center ‘O’.
Answer:
Q. The work function of a metal is 3 eV. Find its threshold wavelength.
Answer:
Q. A particle of mass m is projected from ground with speed u at an angle of 30° with the horizontal. Find its angular momentum about the point of projection when it reaches its maximum height.
A. mv³/16g
B. √mv/16g
C. mv³/3g
D. √3mv³/16g
Answer:B
Q. The ratio of KE : PE IN 5th excited state of hydrogen atom is
A. 2
B. 2
C. ½
D. 1/2
Answer: C. ½
Q.Find the potential difference V0 across the 700 Ω resistance.
A diagram was given in which three resistances 3.5 kΩ, 200 Ω, and 700 Ω are connected in series across a 7 V battery.
A. 2V
B. 0.5V
C. 1.1V
D. Zero
Answer: C.1.1 V
Q. In a convex lens, the distance between the object and the image is 45 cm, and the magnification produced by the lens is two. Find the focal length of the lens.
Q. A particle of mass m is projected at an angle of 30° with initial velocity u. Find its angular momentum about the point of projection at maximum height.
Q. At which temperature the r.m.s velocity of hydrogen molecule is equal to that of oxygen molecule at 47°C
Answer: T= 20°C
Chemistry
Q. Identify the given reaction.
C6H6–C=O–Cl → (in the presence of H2 , Pd/BaSO4) → Product
i. Etard Reaction
ii. Stephen’s Reaction
iii. Wolff Kishner Reduction
iv. Rosenmund Reaction
Answer: iv. Rosenmund Reaction
Q. Find out the maximum number of hybrid orbitals formed when 2s and 2p orbitals are mixed.
Answer: 4
Q. Find out the sum of the coefficients of all the species involved in the balanced equation:
2MnO4 + I → (in the presence of a slightly alkaline medium) → Product
Answer: 9
Q. What is the geometry of Aluminium chloride in an aqueous solution?
i. Square planar
ii. Octahedral
iii. Tetrahedral
iv. Square pyramidal
Answer: ii. Octahedral
Q. Find out the work done in Joules for the cyclic process ABCA such that PA = 30 kPa, VA = 10 dm³, PB = 10 kPa, VB = 30 dm³, PC = 10 kPa, VC = 10 dm³
Answer: 200 J
Q. If a 250 mL solution of CH3COONa of molarity 0.35 M is to be prepared, what is the mass of CH3COONa required in grams? Round off the answer to the nearest integer.
Answer:
Q. Match the following:
Column I  Column II 
i. BrF5  a. SeaSaw 
ii. H2O  b. TShape 
iii. ClF3  c. Bent 
iv. SF4  d. Square Pyramidal 
Answer:
Q. Which of the following sets contain both diamagnetic ions?
i. Ni2+, Cu2+
ii. Eu3+, Gd3+
iii. Cu+, Zn2+
iv. Ce4+, Pm3+
Answer:
Q. Which of the given compounds will not give the Fehling test?
i. Lactose
ii. Maltose
iii. Sucrose
iv. Glucose
Answer:
Q . Statement I: For hydrogen atoms, 3p and 3d are degenerate.
Statement II: Degenerate orbitals have the same energy.
i. Both statements I and II are correct.
ii. Both statements I and II are incorrect.
iii. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
iv. Statement I is incorrect and statement Il is correct.
Answer:
Q. Identify the correct structure for the compound named “3Methylpent2enal” as per IUPAC nomenclature.
Answer:
Q . Find the final product when C6H6–Br reacts with i. Mg, Dry Ether, ii. CO2, H+, iii. NH3, heat, and iv. Br2, KOH
Answer:
Q. The number of atoms in a silver plate having an area of 0.05 cm2 and a thickness of 0.05 cm is m x 1019. If the density of silver is 7.9 g/cm3, find the value of m.
Answer:
Q. What is the group number of unununnium?
Answer:
Q. Identify the correct structure for the compound named “3Methylpent2enal” as per IUPAC nomenclature.
Answer:
Mathematics
Q, If the length of the minor axis of an ellipse is equal to half of the distance between the foci, then the eccentricity of the ellipse is.
Answer: 2/√5
Q. Let A(2,3,5) and C( 3, 4, – 2) be ‘opposite vertices of a Parallelogram ABCD. If the diagonal vec BD = hat i +2 hat j +3 hat k then the area of the Parallelogram is equal to.
Answer. √474/2
Q. Let A(2,3,5) and C( 3, 4, – 2) be ‘opposite vertices of a Parallelogram ABCD. If the diagonal vec BD = hat i +2 hat j +3 hat k then the area of the Parallelogram is equal to.
Answer: 101
Q. Let (α, β, y) be the foot of perpendicular form the point (1,2,3) on the line (x + 3)/5 = (y – 1)/2 = (z + 4)/3 then 19 (α+ β+ y)Q. If z = x + iy, xy ≠ 0 satisfies the equation z² + iz = 0, then z²; equal to
Answer: 1
Q5. Find the value of
Answer: ½[√3𝝅/4 𝝅/4 ]
Q . If the foot of the perpendicular from (1, 2, 3) to the line (x + 1)/2 = (y – 2)/5 = (z – 4)/1 is (α, β, γ), then find α + β+ γ.
Answer: 5.8
Q. In an arithmetic progression, if the sum of 20 terms is 790 and the sum of 10 terms is 145, then S15 – S5 = ?
Answer: 395.
Q. Find the value of the maximum area possible (in sq. units) of △ ABC with vertices A(0, 0), B(x, y) and C(x, y) such that y = – 2×2 + 54x.
Answer: 5832
Q.4: What is the range of r for which circles (x + 1)2 + (y + 2)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y + 4 = 0 coincide at two
distinct points?
Answer: 3 < r <7
JEE Mains 2024 Answer Key for 29 Jan
JEE Main Physics Answer Key 2024:
Q. A rod of length 2m moving with velocity 2mn/sec along the positive zaxis and B = 2T along the negative side xaxis. Find the emf induced in the rod.
Answer: 8mv
Q. A series of steps has 0.5 m tread and 0.5 m riser. If a ball is thrown from a point on the ground beside the first step, then find the minimum speed required by the ball to directly jump to the 5th step.
Answer: 5 (√√2 + 1) 𝑚/𝑠
Q. An electron is moving with the speed of 1 m/s at a distance of 1 m, from a large sheet of charge with density σ C/m2. Find the maximum value of σ such
that the electron hits the sheet after 1 sec. Take the mass of electron = 9 × 10 31 kg and the permittivity of free space = 9 x 10 12 C²/Nm².
Answer: 4.5 × 10−22 𝐶/𝑚²
Q. In a convex mirror having a radius of curvature of 30 cm, the height of the image is half of the height of the object. What will be the distance of the object from the mirror in cm?
Answer: – 15 cm
Q. In a given voltage regulator circuit, the reverse breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 3V. Find the current through the Zener diode. (A circuit diagram was given.)
Answer: 5.5mA
Q. In a given circuit, the galvanometer resistance is 10Ω and the current through the galvanometer is 3 mA. Find the resistance of the shunt. (Circuit diagram was given.)
Answer: 3.75 × 10 −3Ω
Q, A body of mass 100 kg travelled 10 m before coming to rest. If μ = 0.4, then find the work done against friction. Assume that the motion is happening on a horizontal surface and g = 10 m/s².
Answer: 4000 𝐽
Q. A solid sphere of radius 4a units is placed with its centre at the origin. Two charges 2q at ( 5a, 0) and 5q at (3a, 0) are placed. If the flux through the sphere is xq/ε0, then find x.
Answer: x = 5
Q. Consider the two statements (Assume the density of water to be constant):
Statement 1: A capillary tube is first dipped in hot water and then dipped in cold water. The rise is higher in hot water.
Statement 2: The capillary tube is first dipped in cold water and then in hot water. The rise is higher in cold water.
i. Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
ii. Statement 1 is false, and Statement 2 is true.
iii. Both statements are true.
iv. Both statements are false.
Answer: Statement 1 is false, and Statement 2 is true.
Q. A stationary hydrogen atom deexcites from the first excited state to the ground state. Find the recoil speed of the hydrogen atom up to the nearest integer value. (Take mass of hydrogen atom = 1.8 x 10
27 *kg)
Answer: 3
Q. If an electric current passing through a conductor varies with time as / = I0 + βt, where l0 = 20 A and β = 3 A/s, then find the charge flow through the conductor in the first 10 seconds.
Answer. 350 C
Q. A square loop of resistance 16 Ω is connected with a battery of 9 V and an internal resistance of 1 2 Ω in a steady state. Find the energy stored in the capacitor of capacity C = 4 µF as per its position shown in the diagram. (The capacitor is connected diagonally in a separate loop attached to the circuit.)
Answer: 25.92𝜇𝐽
Q.If a biconvex lens of a material of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 20 cm in the air, then what will be its focal length when it is submerged in a medium of refractive index 1.6?
Answer: – 160 cm
Q. In a container, 1 g of hydrogen and 1 g of oxygen are taken. Find the ratio of hydrogen pressure to oxygen pressure inside the container.
Answer: 16
Q. The potential energy function corresponding to conservative force is given as U(x, y, z) = 3x²/2 + 5y + 6z, then the force at x = 6 is pN. The value of p. (Round off to the nearest integer.)
Answer: 20
JEE Main Chemistry Answer Key:
Q. Among the given ions which is the bestreducing agent (Lu3+, Nd3+, Ce4+, Gd2+)
Answer: Gd2+
Q. What will be the oxidation state of Iron in the complex formed in the brown ring test?
Answer: +1/+3
Q. What will be the reason behind the oxygen showing anomalous behaviour?
Answer: Small size, high electronegativity, absence of vacant d orbital
Q. Which of the following pairs will be formed by the decomposition of KMnO4?
i. MnO4 – , MnO2
ii. K2MnO4, MnO2
iii. KMnO4, MnO2
iv. MnO2, H2O
Answer: K2MnO4, MnO2
Q. Calculate the Molarity of a solution having a density of 1.5 g/ml, percentage of (w/w) of solute as 36%, and molecular weight of solute 36 g/mol.
Answer: 15
Q. What is the energy difference between the actual structure and its most stable resonating structure having the least energy is called as?
1) Electromeric Effect 2) Resonance Energy 3) Inductive Effect 4) Hyperconjugation
Answer: Resonance Energy
Q. If alkaline KMnO4 is oxidised iodide to give a particular product (A), then determine the oxidation state of iodine in the compound (A).
Answer:+5
Q:5: What is the effect that occurs between lone pair and pi bond?
Answer: Resonance Effect
Q:6: Statement 1: Electronegativity of group 14 elements decreases from Si to Pb.
Statement 2: Group 14 has metals, metalloids, and nonmetals
Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
Answer: Statement is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
Q.7: Hydrolysis of protein gives which type of amino acids
Answer:: 𝛼 − 𝑎𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑜 𝑎𝑐𝑖d
JEE Main Maths Answer Key Session 1:
Q. What is the rank of the word GTWENTY in the dictionary?
Answer: 553
Q. If a die is rolled until 2 is obtained, then what is the probability that 2 is obtained on an
evennumbered toss?
Answer: 5/ 11
Q.A GP has 64 terms such that (Sn) total = 7(Sn) odd. Find the common ratio r.
Answer: R = 6
JEE Mains 2024 Answer Key ( 27 Jan )
JEE Main Mathematics Questions
Q1. S1 = 3,9, 15, … 25 terms and S2 = 3,8, 13, … 37 terms, then the number of common terms in S1, S2 is equal to
A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 6
Ans. C
Q 2. The vertices of a triangle ABC are A(1,2), B(3,4) and C(5,8) then orthocentre of △ABC is
A.(⅔ , 1) B. (7/3 , 2)
C. (2, 3) D. (3/2, 1)
Ans. D
Q3.. If å= î+2ĵ + k, b = 3(î – ĵ + k), å · c = 3 and å x č = b, then å·((xb)bč)=
A. 24 B. 38
C. 10 D. None of these
Ans. A
Q 4. The value of k for (2k, 3k) , (0, 0), (1,0) and (0,1) to be on the circle is:
A. 2/13 B. 5/13
C. 1/13 D. 2/13
Ans. B
JEE Main Physics Questions
Q 1. A body of mass 1000 kg has a velocity of 6 m/s. If an extra 2000 kg mass is embedded in it, then what will be the velocity of the combined mass?
A. 5 m/s B. 4 m/s
C. 2 m/s D. 3 m/s
Ans. A
Q3. A wire of length L and resistance R is cut into 5 equal parts and those part are connected in parallel the Req across it will be
1) 25R
2) 5/R
3) 5R
4) R/25
Answer: 4) R/25.
Q 4. Two infinite current carrying wires having current I in opposite directions are shown below. Find the magnetic field in S.I units, at point
A. 7μ0 I/π B. 10μ0 I/π
C. 5μ0 I/π D. μ0 I/π
Ans. B
Q 5. A body of mass 1000 kg has a velocity 6m/s if an extra 200kg mass is embedded in it new velocity of the combined mass?
(1) 5 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 2 m/s
Answer:
Q 6. If the diameter of earth becomes half keeping mass to be constant, then the acceleration due to gravity at surface of earth becomes
A. half B. four times
C. twice D. three times
Ans. C. twice
Q 7. A rod of length l having resistance R, is cut into two equal parts. These parts are connected in parallel then new resistance shall be?
A. R B. R/2
C. R/4 D. 2R
Ans. C. R/4
Q 8. Two masses m1 = 4 gm and m2 = 25 gm are having same kinetic energy; find the ration of linear momentum
A. 1:5 B. 2:5
C. 1:1 D. 1:6
Ans. B.2:5
Q 9. Statement 1: Linear momentum and moment of force have the same dimensions.
Statement 2: Planck’s constant and angular momentum have the same Dimension.
 Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is false
 Statement 1 is false while Statement 2 is correct
 Both statements are correct
 Both statements are false
Ans. B. Statement 1 is false while Statement 2 is correct
Q 10.. A charge Q=106C is placed at origin. Find the potential difference between two points A and B whose position vectors are (V3î + V3ĵ) m and v6ĵ respectively î
A. zero B. 1000 Volts
C. 2000 Volts D. 500 Volts
Ans. A
Q 11. Consider the system shown. Find the moment of inertia about the diagonal shown.
A. 1 kg.m² B. 2 kg.m²
C. 4 kg.m² D. 6 kg.m²
Ans. C.4kg.m²
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