Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper 2023
The Central Board Board of Secondary Education has released the CBSE Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 for upcoming Class 12 Board Exams. CBSE Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 is now available on the on cbseacademic.nic.in.The CBSE will begin the Class 12 board exams from February 15 onwards for the academic year 2022-23.
Check out: CBSE Class 12 Date Sheet 2023
With the aid of CBSE Class 12 Geography Practice Question Paper 2023, students may gain a better grasp of the board exam pattern, question types, answer possibilities, and other aspects. Here we have provided the CBSE Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 Pdf below in the article.
Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper
Time: 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
- Question paper is divided into 4 sections A, B, C & D.
- In section A, question number 1 to 17 are MCQ type questions.
- In section B, question number 18-23 are SA type questions (80-100 words).
- Question 18 & 19 are source-based questions.
- In section C, question number 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions (120-150 words).
- In section D question number 29&30 are map-based questions having 5 subparts.
Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper Section A
SECTION A
There are 17 questions in this section. All are mandatory.
(Each Question of 1 Mark)
Q.1 Which of the following sea routes should be used to ship commodities between eastern coastal American cities and western Europe?
A. the North Pacific Sea Route
B. the North Atlantic Sea Route
C. the Cape of Good Hope Sea Route
D. the Mediterranean-Indian Ocean Sea Route
Q.2 ‘Emerging economies (economies of developing countries) have seen their share of total global trade rocket in recent years.’- wefourm.org. Which of the following MOST CERTAINLY would have formed the basis of
the above-mentioned change in the global trade pattern?
A. availability of mineral resources
B. economic development
C. high population density
D. climatic factors
Q.3 The following table presents population growth rate in India.
| Year | Growth Rate (in comparison to last year) |
| 2022 | 0.68% |
| 2021 | 0.80% |
| 2020 | 0.96% |
Which of the following can be MOST LIKELY inferred from the given data?
A. the death rate in India has been increasing
B. India has been witnessing huge outward migration
C. the birth rate in India has been more than the death rate
D. India has been witnessing huge temporary inward migration
Q.4 Which of the following shows the CORRECT transition of a society undergoing demographic change?
A. rural, agrarian -> urban, industrial
B. rural, industrial -> urban, agrarian
C. urban, illiterate -> rural, literate
D. rural, literate -> urban, illiterate
Q.5 It is noticed that the linguistic regions in the country do not have a sharp and distinct boundary, rather they gradually merge and overlap in their respective frontier zones. (Source: NCERT)
Which of the following is the DIRECT cause of the blurring linguistic boundaries in India?
A. population explosion
B. high population migration
C. change in population pattern
D. genetic variety in the population
Q.6 ‘India’s fossil fuel import bill could triple by 2040: IEA study’ – Source: The Economic Times
Which of the following steps could DEFINITELY help avoid the above scenario?
A. promotion of utilization of alternative energy resources
B. increasing the taxes on the usage of fossil-based fuels
C. decreasing the manufacturing of automobiles and vehicles
D. signing of trade deals for import of oil with oil exporting nations
Q.7 Given below are four statements about Watershed Management as practised in India Identify the INCORRECT statement.
A. It includes various methods like percolation tanks, and recharge wells among others.
B. It involves the prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater.
C. It also includes the judicious use of all natural and human resources.
D. It is enforced by the various agencies of the World Bank.
Q.8 Bio-energy refers to energy derived from biological products or plant and animal waste. Which of the following statements DEFINITELY proves that bio-energy materials are one of the cheapest alternatives to fossil fuels?
A. They can be sourced locally.
B. They require lighter capital input for harvesting.
C. Their application lasts for a longer period than any other fuel.
D. Their availability is abundant and well-balanced in any country.
Q.9 Which of the following is the reason why the government of India provides incentives to industries for locating in backward areas?
A. balanced regional development
B. equitable utilisation of resources
C. optimum employment generation
D. support various cottage industries
Q.10 Given below are a few facts about Surat, Gujarat.
1. It has several cotton spinning mills.
2. It is a cotton-producing region.
3. It is an important port city.
Based on the information given above, which of the following sets of functional classifications DEFINITELY apply to Surat?
A. mining-garrison-transport
B. transport-commercial-industrial
C. mining-industrial-administrative
D. garrison-transport-administrative
Q.11 There is an inverse relationship between the quality and quantity of minerals i.e. good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low-quality minerals. They also take a long time to develop geologically.
Source (edited): NCERT
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the mineral belt of India
based on the information given above?
A. The belt contains high-quality minerals.
B. The belt belongs to the oldest rock system in India.
C. The belt is the only place where minerals exist in India.
D. The belt cannot support agricultural activity due to its mineral presence.
Q.12 There are two statements given below, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The WTO’s rules and regulations have not benefited both developed and developing nations equally.
Reason (R): Most of the rules are tweaked by the developed nations according to their own commercial interests.
A. A is true but R is false.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
D. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
Q.13 The increasing pace of urbanisation has resulted in numerous problems arising in urban settlements.
Accordingly, which of the following is NOT an issue related to urban settlements?
A. joblessness
B. growth of slums
C. high levels of pollution
D. socio-cultural diversity
Q.14 Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): In cities like Mumbai, urban flooding impacts slum areas the most.
Reason (R): Slums are areas of high human congestion and small living spaces.
A. A is true but R is false.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
D. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
Read the following case study and answer questions no 15 to 17.
Indira Gandhi Canal is one of the largest canal systems in India. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948, the canal project was launched on 31 March 1958. The canal originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to the Pakistan border. The total planned length of the system is 9,060 km catering to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19.63 lakh hectares. Out of the total command area, about 70 per cent was envisaged to be irrigated by a flow system and the rest by a lift system. In the lift canal, the water is lifted up to make it flow against the slope of the land. All the lift canals of the Indira Gandhi Canal system originate at the left bank of the main canal while all the canals on the right bank of the main canal are flow channels. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced the environmental conditions of the region both positively as well as negatively. The availability
of soil moisture for a longer period of time and various afforestation and pasture development programmes have resulted in greening the land. This has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems. But
the intensive irrigation and excessive use of water have led to the emergence of twin environmental problems of waterlogging and soil salinity. The introduction of canal irrigation has brought about a perceptible
transformation in the agricultural economy of the region. Soil moisture has been a limiting factor in the successful growing of crops in this area. The spread of canal irrigation has led to an increase in cultivated area and the intensity of cropping. The traditional crops sown in the area, gram, bajra and jowar have been replaced by wheat, cotton, groundnut and rice. This is the result of intensive irrigation.
Source: NCERT
Q.15 Based on your understanding of the passage, the tributaries of which of the following rivers feed into the Indira Canal?
A. Luni
B. Indus
C. Ganga
D. Brahmaputra
Q.16 Based on the passage, which of the following has been DEFINITELY made possible by the canal?
A. the practice of intensive agriculture
B. raising the level of underground water
C. a higher number of farmers get water for irrigation
D. higher yield per hectare of an average farm holding
Q.17 In which of the following ways can high moisture content impact soil negatively?
A. increased moisture retention leads to reduced soil fertility
B. high moisture content traps nitrogen which is harmful to roots
C. increased moisture content in the soil can render fertilisers useless
D. high moisture content stops farmers from draining the soil completely
CBSE Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper Section B
SECTION B
Question numbers 18-23 are short answer type questions.
Question 18 & 19 are source-based questions.
(Each Question of 3 Mark)
Q.18 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Case Study: A Role Model to Restore the Ecology and Safeguard Human Health in Daurala Based on the universal law “Polluter pays”, an effort to restore the ecology and safeguard human health with people’s participation has taken place in Daurala near Meerut. These efforts are now bearing fruits after a span of
three years when a Meerut-based NGO developed a model for ecological restoration. The meeting of the Daurala Industries officials, NGOs, Government officials and other stakeholders at Meerut has brought out
results. It was in the year 2003 that the pitiable condition of Dauralaites drew the attention of civil society. The groundwater of this village was contaminated with heavy metals. The reason was that the untreated wastewater of Daurala industries was leaching into the groundwater table. The NGO conducted a door-to-door survey of the health status of the residents and came out with a report. The organisation, the village community and people’s representatives sat together to find out sustainable solutions to the health problem. The industrialists showed a keen interest towards checking the deteriorating ecology. The overhead water tank’s capacity in the village was enhanced and a 900m extra pipeline was laid to supply potable water to the community. The silted pond of the village was cleaned and recharged by desilting it. A large quantity of silt was removed paving the way for a large quantity of water that recharged the aquifers.
Rainwater harvesting structures have been constructed at different places which have helped in diluting the contaminants of the groundwater after the monsoons. A thousand trees have also been planted which has improved the environment.
a) Based on your understanding of the passage, what does the ‘Polluter Pays’ principle mean?
b) Though a few steps have been taken to help solve the water contamination problem, it has not been fully resolved. What can the industry do to ensure water contamination is kept to a minimum?
c) State two checks the government could have done to prevent the groundwater of the village from getting contaminated with heavy metals.
Q.19 Observe the given map and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which type of farming is prevalent in the shaded area of the map?
2. Mention the environmental concerns related to the agricultural activity practiced in the region.
3. Which category of nations would these regions largely fall in- developed or developing? Give reason.
For Visually Impaired Students In lieu of Q. no 19.
1. What is meant by subsistence agriculture.
2. Mention the environmental concerns related to primitive subsistence agriculture.
3. Which category of nations largely practice primitive subsistence agriculture, developed or developing? Give reason.
Q.20. Observe the table given below and answer the question that follows.
| PERIOD | POPULATION | TIME IN WHICH THE POPULATION DOUBLES |
| 10,000 BC | 5 million | |
| 1650 AD | 500 million | 1500 years |
| 1804 AD | 1000 million | 154 years |
| 1927 AD | 2000 million | 123 years |
| 1974 AD | 4000 million | 47 years |
| 2025 AD | 8000 million projected | 51 years |
During which period did the world population double in the shortest time?
Explain the reasons for this exponential rise in population.
OR
Read the scenarios given below and answer the questions that follow.
(a) The people from the minority community in country X flee to the closest border countries due to the enforcement of majoritarian policies.
(b) The Aryans moved eastward to greener pastures in a cyclic exodus. Of the two scenarios, which one can be categorised as a push factor? Give two reasons for your choice.
Q.21 Describe the three types of industries based on ownership with one example each.
Q.22 ‘Neodeterminism means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it. They can proceed in their pursuits of development when nature permits the modifications. It means that possibilities can be created within limits which do not damage the environment.’ (Source: NCERT)
Based on this description of neo-determinism, justify climate change as one of the consequences of neo-determinist activities.
OR
Human geography which includes cultural, economic and political geography is highly interdisciplinary in nature. It develops a close interface with other sister disciplines in social sciences in order to understand and explain human elements on the surface of the earth.
Throw light on this statement by analysing the connection between political geography and political science.
Q.23 Read the following information about PM Gati Shakti and answer the question that follows.
PM Gati Shakti is a National Master Plan for multi modal connectivity. It will incorporate the infrastructure schemes of various ministries and state governments like Bharatmala (road and highways project),
Sagarmala (ports and waterways project), inland waterways, UDAN (regional airport development) etc.
Source- india.gov.in
Discuss in brief the advantages of this master plan.
CBSE Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper Section C
SECTION C
Question numbers 24 to 28 are long answer-based questions.
(Each Question of 5Mark)
Q.24 The significance of rivers as inland waterways for domestic and international transport and trade has been recognised throughout the developed world. Despite inherent limitations, many rivers have been modified to enhance their navigability. (Source: NCERT)
Explain the modifications made to rivers to improve navigability and analyse how these modifications can be categorised as possibilism.
Q.25 Observe the image of the Dharavi slums of Mumbai, India.
Based on your observations, describe the challenges the slum dwellers must
have faced during the COVID-19 pandemic in about 120-150 words.
For Visually Impaired Students In lieu of Question no 25.
Describe in detail the issues that the slum dwellers must have faced during the COVID-19 pandemic.
Q.26 Explain how the Gross Domestic Product does not fully reflect the quality of life of a country
OR
‘Access to knowledge about the society and environment is fundamental to freedom.’ Analyse the statement in light of the indicators of socialempowerment.
Q.27 Analyse the impact of tourism on ecosystems, natural resources and other economic activities. Give one example for each.
Q.28 Read the information given below.
Farmer’s Portal of India
The Farmer’s Portal is a platform for farmers to seek detailed information on farmers’ insurance, agriculture storage, market prices, training and welfare schemes, among others. Users can also download farm friendly
handbook, scheme guidelines, etc.
In about 120-150 words, elaborate on the need for each feature for farmers underlined in the passage.
OR
Study the chart given below.
Based on your observation, identify four categories of land use where changes occurred due to an increase in the pressure on land. State three causes for this rise in land use.
For Visually Impaired Students In lieu of Question no 28.
Describe in detail how human activities increase the pressure on land.
CBSE Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper Section C
SECTION D
Question numbers 29 & 30 are map based questions having 5 sub-parts each.
(Each Question of 5Mark)
Q.29 On the given political map of the world, the following seven features/regions are shown. Identify any five of these
| A | Area where commercial livestock rearing is practiced |
| B | Largest nation in South America in terms of area |
| C | Area where mixed farming is practiced |
| D | An important sea port |
| E | An important shipping canal |
| F | Inland waterways |
| G | A major airport |
For Visually Impaired Students In lieu of Question no 29.
(Attempt Any 5)
| A | Mention a region where the population density is very low. |
| B | Name a country where the population is ageing. |
| C | Mention an area where dairy farming is practised. |
| D | Name the canal which connects Atlantic Ocean in the east to Pacific Ocean in the west. |
| E | Name a country with very high level of human development. |
| F | Name the famous inland waterway of the United States of America. |
| G | Name an important airport in South Asia. |
Q.30 On an outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following with suitable symbols.
| A | State with highest population density |
| B | State which is a leading producer of sugarcane |
| C | Land locked harbour on the eastern Coast |
| D | An international airport in north east India |
| E | Mega city in northern India |
| F | A coal mine located in Tamil Nadu |
| G | Northernmost oil refinery on the western coast |
For Visually Impaired Students In lieu of Question no 30.
(Attempt Any 5)
| A | Name the state with the highest population density. |
| B | Name the state which is the leading producer of Sugarcane. |
| C | Identify a landlocked harbour situated on the eastern coast of India. |
| D | Name an international airport in north east India. |
| E | Name a mega city present in Northern India. |
| F | Name a coal mine located in Tamil Nadu. |
| G | Name the northern most oil refinery located on the western coast of India |
CBSE Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 pdf
Candidates of class 12 may download the CBSE Class 12 Geography Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 and enhance their preparation for the upcoming CBSE Class 12 Board Exam 2023 by using the sample question paper provided here in pdf format.
