Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions, Model Paper PDF

The Central Board of Secondary Education has released the Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions PDF on cbseacademic.nic.in. The class 10 science sample paper 2023 24 will help students to understand the difficulty level and types of questions that will asked in the upcoming final 10th Science Exam. Check out the complete science sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions given on this page.

Check: CBSE Class 10 Science Syllabus 2023-24

Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions

Along with the science sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions, CBSE also releases the Marking Scheme of Class 10 Science Sample Paper 2023 24. So that students can get a clear idea of the board exam format, question kinds, answer options, and other features with the help of science sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions.

Check Out: CBSE Class 10 Science Expected Paper 2024

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper 2023 24: Paper Pattern

The CBSE science sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions is created on the same question pattern as the actual 10th Science Question paper. The CBSE science sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions has a total of 80 Marks. Candidates have a maximum time of 3 hours to complete the Question paper.

• CBSE science sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions has 39 questions divided into 5 sections.
• All questions must be answered. Yet, in some questions, an internal choice is supplied. A student is only expected to attempt one of these questions.
• Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions worth one mark each.
• Section B contains six Very Short questions, each worth two points. The answers to these questions should be between 30 and 50 words long.
• Section C contains seven Short Answer style questions at three points each. The answers to these questions should be between 50 and 80 words long.
• Section D comprises three Long Answer type questions worth 05 marks each.

CBSE BOARD CLASS 10TH STUDY MATERIAL 2023

Science Model Paper 2024 Class 10 (Sample Paper)

Check the science model paper 2024 class 10 With Solutions PDF on Adda247. it gives students a hint of how exact paper will come this year.

Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions PDF download

CBSE science sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions PDF and marking Scheme is now available on cbseacademic.nic.in.Candidates can download them from the official website for future use. For the convenience of the students here, we will provide you with the science sample paper for class 10 2024 with solutions Pdf below

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper 2023-24 Pdf Download

CBSE Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 Pdf with Solutions (Question paper)

Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions PDF

Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section A

Section-A
Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each
of the questions 1 – 20. There is no negative mark for incorrect response.

1.

Identify the product which represents the solid state in the above reaction.
a) Barium chloride
b) Barium sulphate
c) Sodium chloride
d) Sodium sulphate

Answer: b) Barium sulphate

2. The colour of the solution observed after 30 minutes of placing zinc metal to copper sulphate solution is
a) Blue
b) Colourless
c) Dirty green
d) Reddish Brown

Answer: b) Colourless

3 Mild non-corrosive basic salt is
a) Ca (OH)2
b) NaCl
c) NaOH
d) NaHCO3

Answer:NaHCO3

4 On adding dilute sulphuric acid to a test tube containing a metal „X‟, a colourless gas is
produced when a burning match stick is brought near it. Which of the following correctly
represents metal „X‟?
a) Sodium
b) Zinc
c) Copper
d) Silver

Answer:Sodium

5 Which one of the following correctly represents Sodium oxide?

Answer: Option B

6 An element with atomic number_____ will form a basic oxide.
a) 7 (2,5)
b) 17 (2,8,7)
c) 14 (2,8,4)
d) 11 (2,8,1)

Answer: d) 11 (2,8,1)

7 An element „M’ has 50% of the electrons filled in the 3rd shell as in the 2nd shell. The
atomic number of „M‟ is:
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 18

Answer:c) 14

8 Generally food is broken and absorbed within the body of organisms. In which of the
following organisms is it done outside the body?
a) Amoeba
b) Mushroom
c) Paramoecium
d) Lice

Answer: b) Mushroom

9 Receptors are usually located in sense organs. Gustatory receptors are present in
a) tongue
b) nose
c) eye
d) ear

Answer:a) tongue

10 A farmer wants to grow banana plants genetically similar enough to the plants already
available in his field. Which one of the following methods would you suggest for this
purpose?
a) Regeneration
b) Budding
c) Vegetative propagation
d) Sexual reproduction

Answer:c) Vegetative propagation

11 Height of a plant is regulated by:
a) DNA which is directly influenced by growth hormone.
b) Genes which regulate the proteins directly.
c) Growth hormones under the influence of the enzymes coded by a gene.
d) Growth hormones directly under the influence a gene.

Answer:c) Growth hormones under the influence of the enzymes coded by a gene.

12 A sportsman, after a long break of his routine exercise, suffered muscular cramps during a
heavy exercise session. This happened due to:
a) lack of carbon dioxide and formation of pyruvate.
b) presence of oxygen and formation of ethanol.
c) lack of oxygen and formation of lactic acid.
d) lack of oxygen and formation of carbon dioxide.

Answer: c) lack of oxygen and formation of lactic acid.

13 An object is placed in front of a convex mirror. Its image is formed :
a) at a distance equal to the object distance in front of the mirror.
b) at twice the distance of the object in front of the mirror.
c) half the distance of the object in front of the mirror.
d) behind the mirror and its position varies according to the object distance.

Answer:d) behind the mirror and its position varies according to the object distance.

14 When light enters the atmosphere it strikes on extremely fine particles, which deflect the
rays of light in all possible directions, This is due to –
a) reflection of light
b) atmospheric refraction
c) scattering of light

d) dispersion of light

Answer:c) scattering of light

15 In 1987, an agreement was formulated by the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP) to freeze the production of “X” to prevent depletion of “Y”. “X” and “Y”
respectively referred here are:
a) Ozone; CFCs
b) CFCs; rays UV
c) CFCs; Ozone
d) UV rays; Diatomic oxygen

Answer: CFCs, Ozone 

16 Which of the following features relates to biodegradable substances?
a) Broken down by biological processes
b) Remain inert
c) Persist in environment for a long time
d) May harm the ecosystem

Answer: a) Broken down by biological processes

Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

17 Assertion: Rusting of Iron is endothermic in nature.
Reason: As the reaction is slow, the release of heat is barely evident.

Answer: d) Assertion is false but Reason is true

18 Assertion: Probability of survival of an organism produced through sexual reproduction is
more than that of organism produced through asexual mode.
Reason: Variations provide advantages to individuals for survival.

Answer: a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

19 Assertion : A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. The deflection of the
compass needle decreases when the magnitude of the current in the wire is increased.
Reason : The strength of a magnetic field at a point near the conductor increases on increasing the current.

Answer:d) Assertion is false but Reason is true

20 Assertion: Biodegradable substances result in the formation of compost and natural replenishment.
Reason: It is due to breakdown of complex inorganic substances into simple organic substances.

Answer:c) A is true but R is false.

Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section B

Section-B
Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions

[Each question of 2 Marks]

21 Dil. HCl is added to Zn granules.” How will you prove that chemical change has taken place here? Support your response with two arguments.

Answer:

• Bubbles of gas/ Evolution of gas
• Change in colour (Zn – silvery grey to black)
• Change in temperature

22 State the post-fertilisation changes that lead to fruit formation in plants. 

Answer:

• After fertilisation, the zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule.
• The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed.
• The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.
•  The petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma may shrivel and fall off.

23 What is the purpose of making urine in the human body? Name the organs that stores and
releases the urine.

Answer:

To filter out nitrogenous waste products like urea and uric acid from the blood in humans.

Name the organs that stores and release the urine: –

Organ for storage: Urinary Bladder
Organ for release: Urethra

OR
Why do arteries have thick and elastic walls whereas veins have valves?

The blood emerges from the heart under high pressure and flows through arteries. Hence, to bear this pressure the arteries have thick and elastic walls. Veins have valves to ensure that the blood flows in one direction only.

24 The refractive indices of three media are given below:

A ray of light is travelling from A to B and another ray is travelling from B to C.
(a) In which of the two cases the refracted ray bends towards the normal?
(b) In which case does the speed of light increase in the second medium?
Give reasons for your answer.

Answer: 

a) When light travels from an optically rarer medium to an optically denser medium it moves towards the normal. Since nB > nA hence the light ray will bend towards the normal on passing from medium A to B.
b) The speed of the light will increase when the light travels from B to C, Since nc<nB
and v=(c/n), the speed of light rays will increase in the second medium.

25 A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into three equal parts. These parts are then connected
in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this parallel combination is R1, what is the value of the ratio R1 : R?

Answer:  The resistance of each part is 𝑅/3 Ω (as resistance is proportional to the length of the wire.)

OR

Refer to the image below and state how the magnetic field pattern indicates regions where the magnetic field is stronger outside the magnet? What happens to the magnetic field when the current in the circuit is reversed?

Answer: The magnetic field strength is higher in the region where the field lines are crowded. This means the field strength is maximum near the poles and it reduces as we go away from
the poles.
The direction of the magnetic field is also reversed.

26 Study the food chain given below and answer the questions that follow:

a) If the amount of energy available at the third trophic level is 100 joules, then how
much energy will be available at the producer level? Justify your answer.
b) Is it possible to have 2 more trophic levels in this food chain just before the fourth
trophic level? Justify your answer.

Answer: 

a) 10000J because only 10 % of energy is available for the next trophic level.
b) No, since the loss of energy at each step is so great that very little usable energy will remain after 4 trophic levels.

Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section C

Section-C
Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions

[Each question of 3 Marks]

27 The given reaction shows one of the processes to extract the metals like Iron and
Manganese.
MnO₂ (s) + Al(s) → Mn(l) + Al₂ O₃ (s) + Heat
a) Give reason why the above reaction is known as a thermite reaction.
b) Identify the substance oxidised and reduced in the above reaction.
c) Give a reason why Aluminium is preferably used in thermite reactions.

28 An element ‘M’ with electronic configuration 2 8 3 combines separately with Cl^–, SO4^-2 anions. Write the chemical formulae of the compounds formed. Predict with the suitable
reason the nature of the bond formed by element ‘M’ in general. How will the electrical
conductivity of the compounds formed vary with respect to ‘M’?

OR

A reddish-brown metal ‘X’, when heated in air, gives a black compound ‘Y’, which when
heated in presence of H₂ gas gives ‘X’ back. ‘X’ is refined by the process of electrolysis;
this refined form of ‘X’ is used in electrical wiring.
Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Draw a well-labelled diagram to represent the process of refining ‘X’.

29 We are advised to take iodised salt in our diet by doctors. Justify it’s importance in our
body.

30 What is the probability of a girl or a boy being born in a family? Justify your answer.
31 (i) Explain why the refractive index of any material with respect to air is always greater 1.
(ii) In the figure below a light ray travels from air into the semi-circular plastic block. Give a reason why the ray does not deviate at the semi-circular boundary of the plastic block.

(iii)Complete the ray diagram of the above scenario when the light ray comes out of the
plastic block from the top flat end. (1+1+1)

32 (i) State the law that explains the heating effect of current with respect to the measurable
properties in an electrical circuit.
(ii) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends. (2+1)

33 Anannya responded to the question: Why do electrical appliances with metallic bodies are
connected to the mains through a three pin plug, whereas an electric bulb can be connected
with a two pin plug?

She wrote: Three pin connections reduce heating of connecting wires.
(i) Is her answer correct or incorrect? Justify. 2
(ii) What is the function of a fuse in a domestic circuit?

Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section D

Section-D
Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.

34 a) Rehmat classified the reaction between Methane and Chlorine in presence of sunlight as
a substitution reaction. Support Rehmat‟s view with suitable justification and illustrate the reaction with the help of a balanced chemical equation.
b) Chlorine gas was prepared using electrolysis of brine solution. Write the chemical equation to represent the change. Identify the other products formed in the process and give one application of each.

OR

Raina while doing certain reactions observed that heating of substance „X‟ with vinegar like
smell with a substance „Y‟ (which is used as an industrial solvent) in presence of conc. Sulphuric acid on a water bath gives a sweet-smelling liquid „Z‟ having molecular formula C4H8O2. When heated with caustic soda (NaOH), „Z‟ gives back the sodium salt of and the compound „Y‟.
Identify „X‟, „Y‟, and „Z‟. Illustrate the changes with the help of suitable chemical equations. 5

35 Given below are certain situations. Analyze and describe its possible impact on a person:
a) Testes of a male boy are not able to descend into scrotum during his embryonic development.
b) Vas deferens of a man is plugged.
c) Prostate and seminal vesicles are not functional.
d) Egg is not fertilised in a human female.
e) Placenta does not attach to the uterus optimally.

OR

a) A doctor has advised Sameer to reduce sugar intake in his diet and do regular exercise after checking his blood test reports. Which disease do you think Sameer is suffering from? Name the hormone responsible for this disease and the organ producing the hormone.
b) Which hormone is present in the areas of rapid cell division in a plant and which hormone inhibits the growth?

The above image shows a thin lens of focal length 5m.
(i) What is the kind of lens shown in the above figure?
(ii) If a real inverted image is to be formed by this lens at a distance of 7m from the pole,
then show with calculation where should the object be placed?
(iii) Draw a neatly labelled diagram of the image formation mentioned in (ii)

OR

A 10 cm long pencil is placed 5 cm in front of a concave mirror having a radius of curvature
of 40 cm.
(i) Determine the position of the image formed by this mirror.
(ii) What is the size of the image?
(iii)Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image as mentioned in the part (i)

Sample Paper Class 10 Science 2023-24 with Solutions: Section E

SECTION – E
Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts.
Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.

37 The table given below shows the hints given by the quiz master in a quiz.

SLNo	HINT
(i)	Substance ‘C/’ is used as a preservative.
(ii)	‘C’ has two carbon atoms; „C‟ is obtained by the reaction of „A‟ in presence of alkaline Potassium permanganate followed by acidification.
(iii)	Misuse of ‘A’ in industries is prevented by adding Methanol, Benzene, and pyridine to ‘A’.
(iv)	‘F’ is formed on heating „A‟ in presence of conc Sulphuric acid.
(v)	‘F’ reacts with Hydrogen gas in presence of Nickel and Palladium catalyst.

Based on the above hints answer the following questions
a) Give the IUPAC names of A and F
b) Illustrate with the help of chemical equations the changes taking place. (A  C and A F)
OR
Name the chemical reactions which occur in steps 2 and 5. Identify the compounds
formed in these steps if „A‟ is replaced with its next homologue.

38 Figures (a) to (d) given below represent the type of ear lobes present in a family consisting
of 2 children – Rahul, Nisha and their parents.

Excited by his observation of different types of ear lobes present in his family, Rahul
conducted a survey of the type of ear lobes found {Figure (e) and (f)} in his classmates. He
found two types of ear lobes in his classmates as per the frequency given below:

Sex	Free	Attached
Male	36	14
Female	31	19

On the basis of the above data answer the following questions.
a) Which of the two characteristics – „free ear lobe‟ or „attached ear lobe‟ appears to be
dominant in this case? Why?
b) Is the inheritance of the free ear lobe linked with sex of the individual? Give reason for your
answer.
c) What type of ear lobe is present in father, mother, Rahul and his sister Nisha? Write the
genetic constitution of each of these family members which explains the inheritance of
this character in this family?
(Gene for Free ear lobe is represented by F and gene for attached ear lobe is represented
by f for writing the genetic constitution).

OR

Suresh’s parents have attached earlobes. What type of ear lobe can be seen in Suresh and his sister Siya? Explain by giving the genetic composition of all.

39.

Vinita and Ahmed demonstrated a circuit that operates the two headlights and the two sidelights of a car, in their school exhibition. Based on their demonstrated circuit, answer the following questions.
(i) State what happens when switch A is connected to
a) Position 2
b) Position 3
(ii) Find the potential difference across each lamp when lit.
(iii) Calculate the current
a) in each 12 Ω lamp when lit.
b) In each 4 Ω lamp when lit.
OR
(iv) Show, with calculations, which type of lamp, 4.0 Ω or 12 Ω, has the higher power.

CBSE Class 10 Science Additional Practice Paper 2023-24

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has released the CBSE Class 10 Science Practice Paper 2023-2024 for upcoming Class 10 Board Exams. on its official website, cbseacademic.nic.in.  Candidates may download the CBSE Class 10 Science Practice Paper 2023-24 provided here in PDF format. and enhance their preparation for the upcoming CBSE Class 10 Board Exam 2024.

Science Model Paper 2024 Class 10: Section A

Section A

Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1 – 20. There is no negative mark for an incorrect response.

1 A single displacement reaction is represented below.
PQ + R —-> PR + Q
Which of the following is true about the reactants and products?

Option Nature	Nature of R in product	Stability of PR as compared to PQ
A	cation	More stable
B	cation	less stable
C	anion	More stable
D	anion	less stable

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

2 Some types of chemical reactions are listed below.
– decomposition
– combination
– displacement
– double displacement
Which two of the following chemical reactions are of the SAME type?
P) AgNO3 + NaCl —> AgCl + NaNO3
Q) Mg + 2 HCl —> MgCl2 + H2
R) CH4 + 2 O2 —> CO2 + 2 H2O
S) 2 KOH + H2SO4 —> K2SO4 + H2O
(a) P and Q
(b) Q and R
(c) R and S
(d) P and S

3. Neetu has two test tubes containing dilute hydrochloric acid and dilute
sodium hydroxide solution, but they are not labeled.
Adding which of the following solutions to the test tubes will help her to
identify the acidic and basic solution?
– vinegar
– baking soda
– sodium chloride
(a) vinegar
(b) baking soda
(c) sodium chloride
(d) (none of them)

4 Sonia has aqueous solutions of three salts, sodium acetate, sodium chloride and ammonium chloride in three test tubes. The test tubes are not labeled. On checking, she finds the pH of the solutions to be 4.6, 7.0 and 8.9.
Which of the following correctly matches the salts with their respective pH?

	pH 4.6	pH 7.0	pH 8.9
P	sodium acetate	sodium chloride	ammonium chloride
Q	sodium chloride	ammonium chloride	sodium acetate
R	ammonium chloride	sodium acetate	sodium chloride
S	ammonium chloride	sodium chloride	sodium acetate

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

5 Galvanisation is a process of coating iron articles with a layer of zinc to prevent the iron from rusting.
The iron is protected even if the zinc coating is scratched and iron is exposed.
Which of the following is true about how zinc prevents the rusting of iron?
P) A galvanised iron article does not undergo oxidation.
Q) The zinc coating prevents contact of iron with air.
R) Zinc undergoes corrosion more easily than iron.
(a) only P
(b) only Q
(c) only P and Q
(d) only Q and R

6. During purification of a metal by electrolysis, what happens at the negative electrode?
(a) Metal ions lose electrons to become neutral atoms.
(b) Neutral metal atoms gain electrons to become ions.
(c) Neutral metal atoms lose electrons to become ions.
(d) Metal ions gain electrons to become neutral metal atoms

7. Metals are lustrous and shine especially when their freshly cut surfaces are exposed. Salma cut pieces and compared the lustre of the freshly cut surfaces of the following metals. aluminium, sodium, copper, iron. The freshly cut surface of which of these metals is likely to lose its lustre first on exposure to air?
(a) aluminium
(b) sodium
(c) copper
(d) iron

8. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the uptake of water in plants?
(a) It occurs all the time due to diffusion.
(b) Water enters the roots due to osmosis.
(c) At night when transpiration is low, roots do not take up water.
(d) The movement of water from roots to leaves is bidirectional

9.  Oxygen saturation levels refer to the extent haemoglobin is bound to oxygen. As altitude increases, the atmospheric pressure decreases. Which of the following graphs correctly represents the oxygen saturation
levels as altitude increases?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

10 Which of the following method/s are useful to prevent fertilisation even when ovulation occurs?
P) surgical blocking of the fallopian tube
Q) copper-T
R) oral pills
S) condom
(a) only P
(b) only Q and R
(c) only P, Q and S
(d) only Q, R and S

11. In cattle, having horns is a recessive trait (h) to not having horns (H). When cattle with horns are crossed with cattle that do not have horns, the number of offspring having horns was equal to those not having horns.
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be true?
(a) Both parents are homozygous dominant.
(b) One parent is homozygous dominant.
(c) Both parents are heterozygous.
(d) One parent is heterozygous.

12. Patient X was suffering from a pancreatic condition due to which the pancreas was not functioning adequately. Which of the following is a doctor likely to suggest to such an individual?
(a) including a large amount of protein in the diet
(b) eating a diet with low-fat content
(c) eating only carbohydrates
(d) including only liquid foods

13 When an object was kept at position X in front of a concave mirror, an enlarged and virtual image was formed.
Which among the following identifies ‘X’ correctly?
(a) anywhere between the centre of curvature and principal focus
(b) anywhere between the pole and principal focus
(c) exactly at the centre of curvature
(d) exactly at the principal focus

 

14 The face of the moon that is visible to us is called as the near side and the face of the moon which is invisible to us is called as far side. What colour would the sky appear to an astronaut standing on the “far side”
of the Moon and why?
(a) blue, as the Moon’s atmosphere scatters sunlight just like Earth
(b) white, as the Moon’s surface reflect all the light that falls on it
(c) black, as there is no atmosphere on Moon to scatter sunlight
(d) black, as sunlight does not fall on the far side of the Moon

15 Plants receive energy from the Sun which they utilise for several processes. The energy utilized for which of the following plant processes gets transferred to the next trophic level that consumes plants?
(a) only growth
(b) only respiration and transport of substances of offspring having horns was equal to those not having horns.
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be true?
(a) Both parents are homozygous dominant.
(b) One parent is homozygous dominant.
(c) Both parents are heterozygous.
(d) One parent is heterozygous.

12 Patient X was suffering from a pancreatic condition due to which the pancreas was not functioning adequately. Which of the following is a doctor likely to suggest to such an individual?
(a) including a large amount of protein in the diet
(b) eating a diet with low-fat content
(c) eating only carbohydrates
(d) including only liquid foods

13 When an object was kept at position X in front of a concave mirror, an enlarged and virtual image was formed. Which among the following identifies ‘X’ correctly?
(a) anywhere between the centre of curvature and principal focus
(b) anywhere between the pole and principal focus
(c) exactly at the centre of curvature
(d) exactly at the principal focus

14 The face of the moon that is visible to us is called as the near side and the face of the moon which is invisible to us is called as far side. What colour would the sky appear to an astronaut standing on the “far side”
of the Moon and why?
(a) blue, as the Moon’s atmosphere scatters sunlight just like Earth
(b) white, as the Moon’s surface reflect all the light that falls on it
(c) black, as there is no atmosphere on Moon to scatter sunlight
(d) black, as sunlight does not fall on the far side of the Moo

15 Plants receive energy from the Sun which they utilise for several processes. The energy utilized for which of the following plant processes gets transferred to the next trophic level that consumes plants?
(a) only growth
(b) only respiration and transport of substances

Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true

17. Assertion (A): Zinc oxide can be reduced to zinc metal on heating with carbon.
Reason (R): Carbon is less reactive than zinc.
18. Assertion (A): Variations always provide a survival advantage to an organism.
Reasons (R): Variations can be caused due to incorrect DNA copying.

19. Assertion (A): Iron filings scattered around a straight current carrying conductor in a plane perpendicular to the length of the conductor, arrange themselves in concentric circles.
Reason (R): Magnetic field has both magnitude and direction.

20. Assertion (A): Omnivores receive 10% of their energy from the trophic level below them.
Reason (R): An omnivore is always in the trophic level just above herbivores.

Model Paper 2024 Class 10 Science: Section B

Section B
Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions

21 (a) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction that is prevented by storing potassium metal under kerosene.
(b) Identify the type of chemical reaction that is prevented.

22 Ravi cultivated mustard, a plant with bisexual flowers, on his farm. His plants were diseased due to a gene defect and therefore had reduced yield. Ravi  removed the stamens from the diseased plants and also planted fresh diseasefree mustard plants where he removed the pistils. How will Ravi’s strategy help in improving the yield of mustard?

23 A plant X was enclosed in a glass jar with some lizards. A similar plant Y was enclosed in another glass jar but without lizards. Both the jars are kept under the same light conditions for a few hours. Which plant is likely to photosynthesize more and why?

OR

Proteinuria is a condition in which significant amounts of protein can be detected in urine. Which process in the nephron is likely to be affected causing proteinuria? Justify.

24 Search mirrors are mirrors that are used to look for hidden objects underneath the cars as shown. The hidden objects can be easily spotted as the mirror provides a wider field of view.

(a) What type of mirrors are generally used to make search mirrors?
(b) With the help of a ray diagram describe the nature of image formed by the
type of mirror identified in (a).

25 Ramya wants to measure the current flowing through the circuit shown below.

Which among the four ammeters can she use for the same? Show your calculations.

Ammeter	Minimum range	Maximum range
P	0 mA	1 m A
Q	0 mA	10 mA
R	0 A	1 A
S	0 A	10 A

OR

A helical coil whose length is greater than its diameter is connected to a battery as shown below.

 

 

 

 

 

(a) How does the magnetic field at point P compare with the magnetic field at point Q? Justify your answer.
(b) State one way in which the strength of the magnetic field inside a current carrying helical coil can be changed?

26 Shown below are two food pyramids.

The pyramid representing the land ecosystem is traditional with producers being greater in mass than primary consumers and so on. Sometimes, in aquatic ecosystems, an inverted pyramid exists. Here, the total mass of
producers (phytoplankton) is much smaller than the top consumers (big fishes).

(a) Which level is likely to have the most amount of energy in such an aquatic ecosystem? Give a reason to support your answer.
(b) Such aquatic ecosystems are considered to be unstable. Justify this statement.

CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper 2023-24

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper 2023-24

CBSE Class 10 SST Sample Paper 2023-24

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Sample Paper 2023-24

CBSE Class 10 Maths Sample Paper 2023-24

 

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