SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions PDF download

SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 With Solutions

The Central Board of Secondary Education has released the sst sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions. The CBSE Class 10 SST Sample Paper 2024 is now available on cbseacademic.nic.in. Along with CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 2023-24, CBSE also releases the Marking Scheme of sst sample paper class 10 2023 with solutions. So that students can get a clear idea of the board exam format, question kinds, answer options, and other features with the help of sst sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions.

SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 –  Exam Pattern

The sst sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions is created on the same question pattern as the actual 10th Science Question paper. The CBSE sst sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions has a total of 80 Marks. Candidates have a maximum time of 3 hours to complete the Question paper.

• The sst sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E, and F. There are 37 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
• Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
• Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
•  Section C contains Q. 25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
•  Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions, carrying 5 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
• Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
• Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for competency-based questions.

Also Check: CBSE Class 10 Social Science Syllabus 2023-24

SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions PDF download

CBSE sst sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions PDF is now available on cbseacademic.nic.in.Candidates can download them from the official website for future use. For the convenience of the students here, we will provide you with the CBSE sst sample paper class 10 2024 with solutions PDF below

CBSE SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions Pdf Download

CBSE SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 Pdf Download

Class 10 SST Sample Paper Class 10 2023 2024 with Solution Pdf

SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 With Solutions: Section A

Section-A

Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each
of the questions 1 – 20. MCQs (1X20=20)

1. Identify the correct option that describes the act given below.
i. The Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council.
ii. It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
iii. It empowered the government to detain political prisoners without trial.

Options: 

a. Rowlatt Act
b. Vernacular Press Act
c. Government of India Act
d. Inland Emigration Act

Ans: a. Rowlatt Act
2. Which place in India has an artificial lake to conserve water that dates to 11th century?
a. Delhi
b. Bhopal
c. Mumbai
d. Kolhapur

Ans: b. Bhopal

3. Read the data given below and answer the question.
Educational Achievement of Rural Population of Uttar Pradesh

As per the data given above who has the least percentage of literacy rate in rural population?
a. Male
b. Children
c. Male& Female
d. Female

Ans: d. Female

4. Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to mitigate the threats posed on the tiger population and biodiversity?
i. Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife
ii. Prohibiting the visit of public into forest area.
iii. Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks
iv. Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests
Options:
a. Statement i and ii are correct.
b. Statement ii, iii & iv are correct
c. Statement ii is correct.
d. Statement (i), (iii) & (iv) are correct

Ans: d. Statements (i),(iii) & (iv) are correct

5. When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, ______ was chosen as its headquarters.
a. Brussels
b. Paris
c. London
d. Zurich

Ans: a. Brussels

6. Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes between Majoritarianism and Power sharing?
a. Majoritarianism emphasizes the dominance of the majority community, while Power sharing emphasizes the sharing of power among different groups.
b. Majoritarianism emphasizes the need for consensus building, while Power sharing emphasizes the exclusion of minority groups.
c. Majoritarianism emphasizes the importance of accommodating minority interests, while Power sharing emphasizes the need for majority rule.
d. Majoritarianism emphasizes the need for peaceful resolution of conflicts, while Power sharing emphasizes the use of force to impose the majority’s will.

Ans: a. Majoritarianism emphasizes the dominance of the majority community, while Power sharing emphasizes the sharing of power among different groups.

7. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): Democracies are based on political equality
Reason(R): All individuals have equal say in electing representatives.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
d. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

Ans: a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

8. Rahul has a sack of cotton but he is in need of wheat and Anush has a sack of wheat and is in need of cotton, under this situation both will be able to exchange their goods. In case of absence of such coincidence of wants, they may not exchange their goods.

Which one of the following would be the best option that describes the mutual exchange of goods and eliminates the exchange of goods?
Options:
a. Double coincidence of want, Exchanging commodity for commodity.
b. Double Coincidence of want, Credit on Commodity
c. Double coincidence of want, Loan on commodity.
d. Double coincidence of want, Money

Ans: d. Double coincidence of want- Money

9. You are a citizen of a country that has a democratic form of government. You want to ensure that the system of power-sharing in your country is effective and that no one branch of government has absolute power.
Which of the following measures would best meet this goal?
a. All power is concentrated in the hands of the legislature only.
b. Power is divided between the central government and the states or provinces, with each level having its own sphere of influence.
c. Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, with each branch having its own responsibilities and powers.
d. Power is shared among different levels of government, such as the national, regional, and local governments, with each level having some degree of autonomy.

Ans: c. Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, with each branch having its own responsibilities and powers.

10. Identify the painting from the options given below

a. Frankfurt Parliament
b. Reichstag
c. Duma
d. The House of Parliament

Ans: a. Frankfurt Parliament
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 10
Q. Which of the following does the symbol “crown of oak leaves “stand for?
a. Freedom
b. Shows readiness to fight.
c. Willingness to make peace.
d. Heroism.

Ans. d. Heroism

11. Evaluate the impacts of opening foreign trade on the global economy by identifying the appropriate statements among the following options:

i.The choice of goods in the markets increase.

ii.Producers from two countries closely compete against each other despite the distance between their locations.
iii.Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
iv.The quality of the product is always good.
Options:
a. Statements i and ii are appropriate.
b. Statements i, ii and iii are appropriate.
c. All the statements are appropriate.
d. Only statement iv is appropriate.

Ans.: b. Statements i, ii and iii are appropriate.

12. Choose the correction option to complete the statement.
If a government provides its citizens a right and means to examine the process of decision, it is ______________.
a. An accountable government.
b. A responsible government.
c. A transparent government.
d. A stable government.

Ans: a. An accountable government

13. Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the events that shaped the Non-cooperation movement.
i. General Dyer opened fire at the large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwala Bagh.
ii. “Forced recruitment” carried out by the British government and the economic hardships faced by the people during the first world war.
iii. The defeat of the Ottoman Emperor of Turkey led to the formation of the Khilafat movement.
iv. Gandhiji launched a nationwide satyagraha against the Rowlatt act.
Options:
a. iv, iii, ii, i
b. ii, i, iv,iii
c. i, iv, iii, ii
d. i, ii, iii, iv

Ans; b. ii, i, iv ,iii

14. If there is a disruption by transporters and lorries refuse to transport vegetables, milk, etc. from rural areas to urban areas, food will become scarce in urban areas, whereas farmers will be unable to sell their products.
Which of the following sectors will be affected due to this situation stated above?
a. Primary and Secondary
b. Secondary and Tertiary
c. Tertiary, Primary and Secondary
d. Tertiary and Primary

Ans: c. Tertiary, Primary and Secondary

15. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer
Statement I: Western printing techniques and mechanical press were imported in the late 19th Century as western powers established their outposts in China.
Statement II: Beijing became the hub of the new print culture, catering to westernstyle schools.
a. Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
b. Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c. Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
d. Both (i) & (ii) are correct

Ans: a. statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect

16. “M” gave his friend clues about a type of soil that suits for growing cotton.
Which of the following clues provided by “M” would be most useful in identifying the ideal type of soil?

Clues:
i. It is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
ii. It turns yellow when it is hydrated.
iii. It is rich in kankur and bhangar nodules.
iv. It is a well-drained loamy soil.
a. Clue i
b. Clue i and iii
c. Clue i and ii
d. Clue iv

Ans: a. Clue i

17. Choose the right option to fill in the blank.
The emergence of _______ is directly connected to the rise of political parties.
a. Monitory democracies
b. Direct democracies
c. Representative democracies
d. Constitutional democracies

Ans: c. Representative democracies

18. The process of integration between different countries is called as ____________.
a. Privatization
b. Globalization
c. Liberalization
d. Competition

Ans: b. Globalization

19. Which of the following statements Is correct keeping the requirement of formation of government in view.
Statement i: It is possible for independent candidates to form a government.
Statement ii: Government formation is exclusively reserved for political parties.
Statement iii: The formation of government is limited to only elected political parties

Statement iv: Government can only be formed by political parties that are elected and hold a majority.
Options:
a. Statement i and ii are right.
b. Statement i, ii and iii are right.
c. Statement iii is right.
d. Only statement iv is right.

Ans; d. Only statement iv is right
20. Miss “S” approached a bank nearby to avail loan for her own business, as well as a Self-help group which is operating in her village, the bank rejected her loan application whereas the Self-help group accepted to support her by providing the loan.
Which one of the following documents is required by the bank, but not required by the self-help group to approve Miss “S’s” loan application for her business?
a. Application for loans.
b. Arrangement Letter.
c. Document on Collateral.
d. Demand promissory note and take delivery letter.

Ans: c. Document on Collateral

SST Sample Paper Class 10 2023 24 With Solutions: Section B

SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (2×4=8)

21. Q: Study the map thoroughly and mention the languages that are dominantly present in Belgium.

For Visually impaired students in lieu of the above question.
Q: Mention the languages that are dominantly present in Belgium;

22. (A): “The most powerful weapon of the Spanish conqueror was not a conventional military weapon at all.” Justify the above statement by giving two reasons.

OR

(B):“Traders and travelers introduced new crops to lands they travelled.“Substantiate this statement with illustrations.
23. Mr. Palani is from Tamil Nādu, wishes to cultivate either Tea or Wheat. Which one of the crops out of the two can he cultivate in his state? Substantiate your answer with any two reasons.

24. Mention any two reasons to state that India is a federal country.

SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section C

SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (3×5-15)

25. Provide evidence to support the claim that print culture had a significant impact on the social lives of women in India?

26. (A); A worker in an urban area, who was working in a small factory, was not paid his wages properly, he was forced to work extra hours under poor working conditions, there was no job security, recently he lost his job and was found selling electrical items in a pushcart. Analyze the role of the government in protecting the workers working in an Unorganized sector.

OR

(B): Mr Pawan, a village head wanted to create more job opportunities to increase the income of the people of his village under MNREGA act, Suggest any three activities, so that Mr Pawan could initiate in his village.
27. “Agriculture gives boost to the industrial sector’. Justify the statement with any three relevant points.

28. The Indian constitution provides three lists to distribute the legislative power. State any two subjects that are included in the union list. In which list the subject “Education” is included and why

29. Compare Tables “A” & “B” and answer the question given below.

Table A

Share of Sectors in GDP in %
Year	Tertiary	Secondary	Primary
1973-74	50	10	40
2013-24	68	21	11

Table B

Share of Sectors in GDP in %
Year	Tertiary	Secondary	Primary
1977-78	18	11	71
2017-28	31	25	44

A remarkable fact about India is that while there has been a change in the share of the three sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not taken place in employment. Why didn’t a similar shift out of primary sector happen in case of employment? Substantiate your answer.

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No29

Q. Tertiary sector activities help in the development of Primary and Secondary sectors. Substantiate your answer.

SST Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section D

SECTION D
LONG ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (5X4=20)

30 (A): Analyze the impact of mining activities on the local environment and the health of the surrounding communities.

OR

(B): “Non-conventional resources are the best option to conserve the natural resources” Substantiate this statement with Examples.

31 (A): How would you evaluate Napoleon as an administrator who created a more rational and efficient system? Elucidate with suitable examples.

OR

(B): Analyze the decisions taken by the conservatives at the Congress of Vienna in the year 1815.

32 (A): Analyse the role of a multiparty system in a democratic country like India.

OR

(B): Evaluate the differences between the national and regional parties and assess the requirements for a regional party to become a national party.

33.
(A): A farmer has borrowed money from a money lender at a high rate of interest, as he could not pay the interest, he was forced to borrow from another landlord to settle the amount for the interest borrowed to the money lender. State the consequences he may face in this situation.

OR

(B): “Self –help groups eliminates poverty and empowers women”. Substantiate with suitable answer.

Social Science Sample Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions: Section D

SECTION E
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS ( 4X3=12)

34 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
It is said of “passive resistance” that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power which is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive resistance; indeed, it calls for intense activity. The movement in South Africa was not passive but active … ‘Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction … In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill will whatever. ‘Satyagraha is pure soul force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of love. … Nonviolence is the supreme dharma …’ It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the war god and they can all of them become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own … In his famous book Hind Swaraj (1909) Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India, with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule will collapse
within a year.

1. Why did Gandhiji say that passive resistance is not the weapon of the weak?  1
2. “Satyagraha is pure soul-force.” Substantiate this statement in 20 words.  1
3. What according to Mahatma Gandhi is the best weapon to use to collapse British rule in India? 2

35 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Maharashtra is a state located in western India, with a population of over 110 million people. The state is home to several large cities, including Mumbai, and has a significant agricultural sector. However, the state is facing a severe water crisis, withits water resources coming under increasing pressure due to climate change, industrialization, and urbanization. The main challenges faced by water resource
management in Maharashtra are:

i. Overexploitation of groundwater: Maharashtra is one of the most groundwaterstressed states in India, with the demand for water exceeding the supply. Overexploitation of groundwater for agriculture and urban use has led to a decline in water levels, which has severe implications for the sustainability of
water resources.

ii. Pollution of surface water: Industrialization and urbanization have led to the pollution of surface water bodies such as rivers and lakes. The pollution has led to water quality degradation, which poses risks to human health and the environment.

iii. Inefficient irrigation practices: The agricultural sector is the largest user of water in Maharashtra, accounting for around 80% of total water use. However, traditional irrigation practices such as flood irrigation are inefficient and lead to the wastage of water.

1. Mention any one reasons for the water crisis faced by the state of Maharashtra.  1
2. Propose any one solution to mitigate the water crisis faced by Maharashtra state.  1
3. Despite being the second highest rainfall-receiving state of the country, Maharashtra still faces water crisis. Substantiate this statement in 40 words. 2

36 Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes. Countries with higher income are more developed than others with less income. This is based on the understanding that more income means more of all things that human beings need. Whatever people like, and should have, they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater income itself is considered to be one important goal. Now, what is the income of a country? Intuitively, the income of the country is the income of all the residents of the country. This gives us the total income of the country. However, for comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Since, countries have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people in one country better off than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries. Countries with per capita income of US$ 49,300 per annum and above in 2019, are called high income or rich countries and those with per capita
income of US$ 2500 or less are called low-income countries. The rich countries, excluding countries of Middle East and certain other small countries are generally called developed countries.

1. Explain the significance of per capita Income.  2
2. What are the classifications of countries based on per capita income, and which entity is responsible for determining these classifications?”   2

Class 10 SST Sample Paper 2023-24: Section F

SECTION F
MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)

37.Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India.
a. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
i. Indian National congress session at this place in 1920.
ii. The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law.

On the same outline map of India locate and label any 3 of the following with
suitable symbols.
i. A Coal mine in Tamil Nādu
ii. A dam built on river Chenab in India.

37. b)  iii. A largest natural major seaport located at Andhra Pradesh
iv. Noida Software Technology Park

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 37 a & b.

37 a. i. Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920.
ii. Name the place where Mahatma Gandhi Broke the salt law. Answer any 3 of the following.
37. b. i. Name the coal mine located at Tamil Nādu
ii. Name the dam built on the river Chenab.
iii. Name the largest natural seaport located at Andhra Pradesh.
iv. Mention the state where Noida Software Technology Park is located

Additional Sample Paper Class 10 2024 SST

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has released CBSE additional sample paper class 10 2024 sst for the upcoming Class 10 Board Exams on its official website, cbseacademic.nic.in. CBSE Class 10 SST Additional Sample Paper 2023-24 is a must-have for board exam prep. It is one of the most crucial subjects that form the backbone of the arts stream in higher classes and academia. Mastering this subject is of utmost importance, especially for competitive examinations. Check the SST Practice Paper Class 10 2023-24 with the answer key below.

SST Model Paper Class 10 2024 with Solutions

Section A – MCQs (1X20=20)

1. How was the Rowlatt Act of 1919 perceived in terms of fundamental rights and civil liberties by Indians?
(a) It was viewed as a regressive legislation in favour of the majority Indians.
(b) It was considered as severely curtailing the right to personal liberty.
(c) It was seen as a necessary measure to prevent communal tensions.
(d) It was regarded as a safeguard for protecting British soldiers.

Answer: (b) It was considered as severely curtailing the right to personal liberty.

2. Ankur, a resident from Rajasthan, decided to install a submersible water pump in his house, capable of extracting groundwater from depths of 250-300 m. This practice of installing similar pumps is becoming increasingly popular across the state.
Which of the following will this growing practice MOST LIKELY lead to in the near future?
(a) decline in the groundwater quality
(b) reduced monsoon water resources
(c) increased number of waterborne diseases
(d) water scarcity resulting from excessive utilization

Answer: (d) water scarcity resulting from excessive utilization 

3. Observe the map given below showing the distribution of thermal and nuclear power plants across India.

Air Quality Index (AQI) is used to measure real-time air pollution levels. A high AQI represents poor air quality.
Accordingly, which of the following regions marked on the map is LIKELY to experience comparatively better AQI?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S

Answer:(c) R
The following question is for Visually Impaired Students ONLY in lieu of Question 3.
Which method of energy production is environmentally friendly and practical for powering homes across regions in India?
(a) coal-fired power plants
(b) nuclear power plants
(c) solar power panels
(d) diesel generators

Answer:Solar Power Panels

4. Rina, a 28-year-old woman from a marginalized community, is uneducated but adept at making traditional handicrafts. Her family toils hard to afford two square meals everyday. Accordingly, which development objective would be the MOST crucial for improving Rina’s and her kin’s well-being?
(a) increasing access to clean energy in Rina’s community
(b) reducing the impact of climate change on Rina’s community
(c) creating more training opportunities for Rina and other artisans
(d) ensuring that Rina has the same rights and opportunities as men in her community

Answer:(c) creating more training opportunities for Rina and other artisans
`
5. ‘India’s green energy goals have a serious problem – the Great Indian Bustard’. A Wildlife Institute of India (WII) survey covering 80 km of power lines across the Thar desert found 4 bustard (critically endangered species) deaths during a single year due to high-transmission wires, including some connected to wind turbines.
Source: The Print
Should the installation of such power lines be reconsidered in areas where such species are found?
(a) Yes, alternative methods of power generation should be explored to minimise this risk.
(b) Yes, the goal of protecting biodiversity is the only goal that should be prioritized.
(c) No, the benefits of power lines outweigh the negative impact on the species.
(d) No, the species is not yet extinct and currently no action needs to be taken.

Answer:(a) Yes, alternative methods of power generation should be explored to minimise this risk.

6. There are two statements given below, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Power sharing can help to prevent conflict in society.
Reasoning (R): Power sharing ensures that different social groups are included in decision-making processes, reducing marginalization and fostering inclusivity.
(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.

Answer:(c) Both A and R are true and R explains A

7. In an Indian state, communities X and Y have been engaged in a long-standing conflict over issues of co-existence and resource sharing. The tensions have intensified, leading to a demand from both communities for self-administration. What is the BEST resolution to this conflict?
(a) collapsing the present government due to its inefficiency in governing the state
(b) delaying the demands of self-administration and maintaining the current power structure
(c) imposing strict regulations to control the movements and interactions of both communities
(d) establishing a power-sharing arrangement where both communities have a role in decision-making

Answer:(d) establishing a power-sharing arrangement where both communities have a role in decision-making

8. Which of the following is a DEFINITE indicator of the successful implementation of democratic governance?
(a) free economy dictated by market forces
(b) provision of basic amenities to the citizens
(c) establishment of central financial institutions
(d) establishment of institutions to protect people’s rights

Answer:(d) establishment of institutions to protect people’s rights

9. There are two statements given below, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Self-help groups are instrumental in promoting economic democracy.
Reasoning (R): They contribute to a more equitable distribution of economic power and opportunities.

(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.

Answer: (c) Both A and R are true and R explains A.

10. The principle of subsidiarity emphasises that decisions should be made by the people who are most affected by them, promoting decentralisation, efficiency, and citizen participation in governance, with higher levels of authority intervening only when lower level authorities are unable to address certain issues effectively.
Source (edited): un.org

Which of the following constitutional principles/legislations is in close alignment with the principle stated above?
(a) separation of power between the executive, legislature and judiciary
(b) division of power between the central, state and local government
(c) right of individuals to form and join political parties of their choice
(d) reservation for women in the highest law making bodies

Answer:(b) division of power between the central, state and local government

11 Globalisation is the increasing interconnectedness of the world through the flow of goods, services, capital, ideas, and people. Which of the following examples represents globalisation?
(a) an online advertising portal for goods sold by local vendors run by the Indian government
(b) an IKEA store in Bengaluru selling products manufactured in China
(c) a traditional Vietnamese market selling handicrafts in Hanoi
(d) a sunday market selling groceries produced locally

Answer:(b) an IKEA store in Bengaluru selling products manufactured in China

12. The Indian masses willingly participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement, despite the challenges faced during the Non-Cooperation Movement. Accordingly, which of the following quotes BEST reflects the outlook of the masses?
(a) ‘The greatest glory in living lies not in never falling, but in rising every time we fall’
(b) ‘An eye for an eye only ends up making the whole world blind’
(c) ‘Injustice anywhere is a threat to justice everywhere’
(d) ‘Obedience is the key to a peaceful society’

Answer:(a) ‘The greatest glory in living lies not in never falling, but in rising every time we fall’
13. Given below is the painting ‘Imperial Federation – Map of the World showing the extent of the British Empire in 1886’. Observe the painting and answer the question that follows.

Which of the following elements depicted in the painting seem conflicting when presented together?
(a) the British soldiers and British colonies spread in both east and west
(b) the variety of animals and costumed figures depicting countries and their people
(c) Britannia, the personification of Britain, seated on top of the world and the words federation written at the top of the image
(d) the words ‘freedom’ and ‘fraternity’ written at the top and Atlas, depicting human labour, holding the world upon his shoulders

Answer:(d) the words ‘freedom’ and ‘fraternity’ written at the top and Atlas, depicting human labour, holding the world upon his shoulders

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 13
Read the information given below about the painting – ‘A map celebrating the British Empire’.
The painting has a map that commemorates the British Empire, symbolising its territorial holdings and influence across various regions of the world.
Given below are a few elements that have been depicted in the painting.
Identify the ones which are conflicting when presented together.
(a) the idea of freedom and imperialism
(b) the colonial nations and the colonies
(c) the occupations of a farmer and a soldier
(d) the British and people from different backgrounds together

Answer:(a) the idea of freedom and imperialism

14 There are two statements given below about the Print Revolution, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): The distribution, application, and preservation of knowledge were fundamentally altered with the invention of printing.
Reason (R): Printing enabled intellectuals to produce, comment on, and evaluate texts which spread as ideas across Europe.
(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) A is false but R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true and R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.

Answer:(c) Both A and R are true and R explains A.

15 Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor which contributed to the emergence of multiple political parties at the same level in India?
(a) a federal political system
(b) varied economic conditions
(c) linguistic and regional diversity
(d) low levels of literacy and political awareness

Answer:(c) linguistic and regional diversity

16 Which of the following policy decisions by the central government could potentially serve as a trade barrier?
(a) strengthening export subsidies
(b) simplifying customs procedures
(c) implementing higher tariffs on imports
(d) promoting fairer trade practices globally

Answer:(c) implementing higher tariffs on imports

17 Given below is a cartoon created by Neelabh Banerjee, the renowned Indian cartoonist, illustrator and comics artist

What is the cartoon trying to depict?
(a) the sexual division of labour in India
(b) natural and unchangeable gender divisions
(c) income-generating activities done by women in rural India
(d) the ability of men to contribute equally to domestic work as women

Answer:(a) the sexual division of labour in India

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 17

In a cartoon created by Neelabh Banerjee, the renowned Indian cartoonist, illustrator, and comics artist, a woman is depicted in a rural setting, carrying water pots on her head and a bundle of sticks in her hands. She is also holding her child’s hand. Meanwhile, a man, presumably her husband, is seen lying on a cot. The husband is heard saying, “Oh, she? She doesn’t work. She’s just a housewife.”

What is the cartoon trying to depict?
(a) the sexual division of labour in India
(b) natural and unchangeable gender divisions
(c) income generating activities done by women in rural India
(d) the ability of men to contribute equally to domestic work as women

Answer:(a) the sexual division of labour in India 

18. The table given below highlights the percentage of workers in the three sectors of the economy in India. The data for the year 2023 has actual figures while the data for 2040 is hypothetical based on the published figures of the year 2023.

Any of the three hypothetical scenarios could be possible in the year 2040.
Study the table carefully and answer the questions that follow.

With all other factors remaining the same, which of the following scenarios would have the biggest impact on India’s global leadership in the future?
(a) only Hypothetical Scenario 1
(b) only Hypothetical Scenario 2
(c) either Hypothetical Scenario 1 or 2
(d) either Hypothetical Scenario 1 or 3

Answer:(d) either Hypothetical Scenario 1 or 3
19. Based on the information given in the table, which of the following statements is LIKELY to be correct?
(a) In scenarios 1 and 2, the secondary sector will need the least workers.
(b) In scenario 2, India will become a major services-based economy.
(c) The primary sector in scenario 2 will be the highest contributor to the GDP of the country.

(d) In scenarios 1 and 3, maximum employment opportunities will be created in the secondary sector.

Answer:(d) In scenarios 1 and 3, maximum employment opportunities will be created in the secondary sector.

20. In a representative democracy, which of the following best describes the role of elected representatives?
(a) They have absolute power and authority to make decisions without consulting the public.
(b) They are accountable to the public and make decisions on behalf of their constituents.
(c) They act as mere figureheads with no real power or influence in the government.
(d) They serve lifetime appointments and cannot be removed from office

Answer:(b) They are accountable to the public and make decisions on behalf of their constituents

SST Practice Paper Class 10: Section B

 Section B – VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (2×4=8)

21 ‘Consumer Affairs raids Malda markets to check malpractices; Complaints were received that soft drinks were being sold at a higher price…’
Source (edited): Millennium Post

(i) Which consumer right was being violated in the above instance of soft drinks being sold at a higher price?
(ii) Which consumer right was LIKELY invoked in response to the complaints?

22. Shruti performed a web search for ‘Teacher’ and found that 80% of the images had women, while a search for ‘Pilot’ mainly showed men. Discuss how these web search results reflect societal perceptions and the
sexual division of labour. Explain with an example.

23. Examine the possible consequences on the basic rights of party members within political organisations that lack internal democracy.
OR
In a hypothetical democratic nation with a population that is religiously homogenous, should there still be multiple political parties? Justify your stance in about 40 words.

24. Assess the reasons for the concentration of the woollen textile industries in the sub-tropical region in India vs their absence in the southern part of India.

SST Practice Paper Class 10: Section C

Section C – SHORT ANSWER-BASED QUESTIONS (3×5-15)

25. ‘A drought-induced water shortage can have far-reaching consequences, affecting agricultural productivity, the availability of food resources, industrial activities, and livelihoods, thereby significantly impacting
human well-being.’
i) What does the above statement represent about the relationship between different resources? (2)
ii) How does such a situation represents lack of resource planning? (1)

26. Discuss the MOST LIKELY impact if India operated without a federal system.
Build the answer around these points:
– regional autonomy
– effectiveness in governance
– decision-making process

27. Read the statements given below regarding Indian Railways. Statement 1 (S1): Indian Railways has largely been a Public Sector Enterprise.
Statement 2 (S2): Private players are making an entry into the Indian Railway market.
Explain what trend do these statements – S1 and S2 – reflect in the railways sector in India

28 Which sector, organised or unorganised, is preferable for employment? Explain.
29 Discuss the role of newspapers in shaping public opinion and the democratisation of information during the modern period.

Additional Practice Paper Class 10 SST with Solutions PDF

Additional practice paper class 10 sst with solutions PDF along with the marking scheme is now available to download on the official website of CBSE. Candidates may download the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Practice Paper 2023-2024 provided here in PDF format. and enhance their preparation for the upcoming CBSE Class 10 Board Exam 2024.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science  Practice Paper 2023-24 PDF

CBSE Social Science Practice Paper Class 10 2023-24 PDF Download

Social Science practice paper class 10 2023-24 with Solutions

CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper 2023-24

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper 2023-24

CBSE Class 10 Hindi Sample Paper 2023-24

CBSE Class 10 Maths Sample Paper 2023-24

 

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