CBSE Class 10 Social Science (SST) Sample Paper 2025-26, Download PDF with Solutions

CBSE Class 10 SST Sample Paper 2025-26 with solutions and an easy downloadable PDF is now available on this page. These CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Papers play a critical role in habituating students with the real exam pattern, types of questions, and marking scheme. The CBSE Class 10th SST Sample paper has four sections catering to separate subjects like History, Geography, Political Science, and Economics. Download the Class 10 Social Science (SST) Sample Paper 2025-26 PDF with Solutions to make your SST preparation more effective.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 2025-26 PDF Download

The CBSE Social Science Sample Paper Class 10 2025 with the marking scheme has been uploaded in PDF format at https://cbseacademic.nic.in/. Students who face any difficulty in downloading the sample paper PDF from the portal can obtain it directly using the direct link shared in the table below.

CBSE Class 10 SST Sample Paper 2025-26

Social Science is one of the most important subjects for class 10 students. Secondary school students must take CBSE Social Science as a mandatory subject, which includes History, Geography, Political Science, and Economics. Because the social science syllabus is extensive, students must prepare for the paper strategically using recent CBSE social science sample papers. The marking scheme also helps them to get an idea of how to present their answers for a better score.

SST Sample Paper Class 10 2025-2026

The SST Sample paper exactly replicates the real exam-level question paper. Thus, practicing this helps you to plan your exam approach more strategically. Take a look at the key instruction before solving the sample paper.

1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C- Political Science, and D-Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
7.  There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
10. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
    candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 2025-26 PDF Download

The CBSE Social Science Sample Paper Class 10 2025 with the marking scheme has been uploaded in PDF format at https://cbseacademic.nic.in/. Students who face any difficulty in downloading the sample paper PDF from the portal can obtain it directly using the direct link shared in the table below.

CBSE Class 10 SST Sample Paper 2025- History

SECTION A
HISTORY (20 marks)

1. Match the following and Choose the correct option:

1.A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
2.A-2, B-4, C-4, D-1
3.A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
4.A-4, B-1, C-3, D-4

Answer: 

2. Identify and name the leader shown in the picture given below: –

A. Lala Lajpat Rai
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Gopal Krishan Gokhale
D. Raja Rammohan Roy

Answer: 
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 2
Which one option from the following is the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party?
A. To ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians.
B. To return to Council Politics.
C. To ask Dominion State for India.
D. To oppose Simon Commission.
Answer: 
3. Thousands of people fled Europe for America in the 19th century due to –
A. Widespread poverty and deadly diseases
B. Frequent famines and poor living conditions
C. Continuous wars and political instability
D. Harsh climate and repeated natural disasters
Answer: 
4. Louise-Sebastien Mercier proclaimed “Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world!
Tremble before the virtual writer!” Who are referred to as the tyrants in this context?
A. Educated classes who wanted to change the society
B. Absolutist institutions like monarchy and church
C. Authors of the new books
D. Printing press
Answer: 

5A. “The Silk route was a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.” Explain the statement with any two examples.  (2)

OR

5B. ‘Sometimes the new crops could make the difference between life and death.’. Explain the statement with any two examples.
6 A. ‘A variety of cultural processes played an important role in developing a sense of nationalism in India’. Support the statement with suitable examples.  (3)
OR
6 B. Salt March ‘became an effective tool of resistance against colonialism.’ Analyse the statement with suitable reasons.

Social Science Sample Paper 2025 for Geography

SECTION B
GEOGRAPHY (20 marks)

10. What is essential for resource development to contribute to overall development?
A. The availability of resources alone is enough.
B. The presence of foreign invaders and their governance.
C. Technological development and institutional changes.
D. Only human resources can contribute to development.

11. Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes:

A. Black soil, Red and Yellow soils
B. Laterite soil, Black soil.
C. Red & Yellow soils & Black soil.
D. Black soil & Laterite soil.

12. A total of 628 tigers died in India during the past five years due to natural causes and other reasons, including poaching, according to government data. Meanwhile, 349 people were killed in tiger attacks during this period, with one state alone recording 200 deaths.

Which of the following is the most significant indirect consequence of poaching on the tiger population?
A. Reduction in the prey species, dwindling tiger’s food supply.
B. Increase in human-wildlife conflicts in protected areas
C. Rise in the tiger population.
D. Decrease in tourism revenue in national parks

13. Based on the classification of forests, which of the following statements would most likely apply to places like Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala etc.?
A. These places mostly have forests managed as reserved or protected forests for conservation.
B. They rely on unclassed forests and local community management for forest conservation.
C. They have forest resources and primarily focus on industrial development.
D. There are no classified forests and forest management is entirely left to private ownership.

14. Which one of the following states has made roof top water harvesting compulsory in India?
A. Haryana
B. Punjab
C. Assam
D. Tamil Nadu.

15. Which of the following statements best evaluates the overall goal of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana?
A. Addressing the negative ecological effects of large dams by reducing water usage.
B. To provide better irrigation systems and sustainable water conservation practices for farmers.
C. Shifting farmers from traditional crops to more commercial, water-intensive crops.
D. Preserve the natural river flow and prevent the fragmentation of aquatic ecosystems.

16. Rice is grown as a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but as a subsistence crop in Odisha. Using your understanding of geographical factors and economic practices, explain why rice cultivation differs in these regions.

17A. Person P is willing to establish a mineral based industry. He has been advised to set up a bauxite industry in Odisha as a suitable way to make a profitable venture. Analyse the possible reasons behind the advice given to her.

OR

17B. ‘Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India.’ Justify the statement by evaluating the significant role it plays in the growth of the Indian economy in its different forms.

SST Class 10 Sample Paper 2025 for political Science

SECTION C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)

20. Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the ethnic composition of Belgium?
I. 59 percent of the total population of Belgium lives in the Wallonia region and speaks French.
II. 40 percent live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch.
III. One percent of the Belgians speak German.
IV. In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch speaking.
Choose the correct option:
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I and IV

21. The cartoon below depicts Germany’s government that was formed after the 2005 elections. It included the two major parties of the country, namely the Christian Democratic Union and the Social Democratic Party. The two parties are historically competing with each other. Which of the following options best explains the cartoon?

A. Coalition Government.
B. Two Party System.
C. Democratic government.
D. Bi-party system.

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 21
Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct statement(s) –
I. Imposing the will of the majority community over others.
II. It helps in reducing the possibility of conflict between the social groups.
III. Power Sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
IV. It brings socio- political opposition among parties.
Choose the correct option:
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. II and III

22. Consider the following case and choose the correct optionSuppose the Government of India plans to issue new currency notes of different denominations in order to curb the influence of black money. The Government of one
state is opposed to this policy of the Central Government. Can the state government stop the union government from implementing this policy?
A. Yes, because Currency is the subject of State List
B. No, because Currency is a subject of Union List
C. Yes, because the approval of both the governments is necessary to implement this change.
D. No, because any such change must be approved by the local government also.

23. Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Study the statements carefully and identify the correct alternative:
ASSERTION (A): Exclusive attention to caste can produce negative results in democracy.
REASON (R): It can divert attention from other important issues thus leading to tensions, conflicts and even violence.
Choose the correct option:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true

CBSE SST Sample paper 2025 for economics

SECTION D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. Underemployment is caused when –
A. More workers are employed than actually required
B. Fewer workers are employed than actually required
C. Workers are paid more than their actual output
D. Jobs are given only to highly educated workers

30. What can be inferred about the limitations of using per capita income (average income) to compare well-being across countries? Choose the correct option as the answer.
A. It shows how equally or unequally income is distributed among the people in a country.
B. The only measure needed to understand a country’s development is Per capita income.
C. It gives a basic idea of economic well-being but hides the income inequality.
D. It only reflects the industrial growth of a country and does not consider other important factors.

31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates how the tertiary sector supports both the primary and secondary sectors?
A. Farmers grow vegetables and sell them directly to consumers, with no transportation or storage involved.
B. A factory makes shoes and uses raw materials like leather to create the product, relying on transport and retail stores to distribute the shoes.
C. A bakery bakes bread and uses delivery services to send the bread to local shops for sale, without any direct involvement of raw materials.
D. A company produces furniture from wood, but does not require any transport or retail services to sell the product.

32. Which one of the following issues currency notes in India?
A. Finance Ministry.
B. Reserve Bank of India.
C. State Bank of India.
D. Central Bank of India.

33. Person Z tries to explain how the requirement of a double coincidence of wants in a barter system limits trade and exchange. Which of the following justification do you think will be used by him/her?
A. It makes trade more complicated, as each person must have what the other person wants, limiting the pool of potential trade partners.
B. The barter system allows trade to be conducted more efficiently since both parties already know what they need from the transaction.
C. It increases the number of exchanges because each person can trade for exactly what they want.
D. The system creates value for goods by ensuring that both parties have a direct need for each other’s goods

Related posts: 

• CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper for All Subjects
• CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper with answers

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