SSC JE NON Tech Questions with Detailed Solutions

Get SSC JE NON Tech Questions to prepare for your upcoming exam. Solve the most expected questions and detailed solutions that can be asked in the exam.

Important SSC JE NON Tech Questions

Q1.

What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
20 − 2 ÷ 4 × 2 + 6 =?​

  • A.

    18

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    20

  • C.

    22

  • D.

    14

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

BODMAS Table:
Operation preference wiseSymbolBrackets[],,()Orders, of(power),√(root),ofDivision÷Multiplication×Addition+Subtraction−\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline\textbf{Operation preference wise} & \textbf{Symbol} \\\hline\text{Brackets} &[], {}, () \\ \hline \text{Orders, of} & (power), √ (root) , of \\ \hline \text{Division}& ÷ \\ \hline \text{Multiplication} & × \\\hline \text{Addition} &+ \\ \hline \text{Subtraction} & - \\\hline\end{array}​
​​Given equation: 20 - 2 ÷ 4 × 2 + 6 = ?
Now, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ and ‘×' and '÷’ are interchanged, then:
=> 20 + 2 × 4 ÷ 2 - 6 = ?
=> 20 + 8 ÷ 2 - 6 = ?
=> 20 + 4 - 6 = ?
=> 24 - 6 = 18
Hence, the correct answer is "Option A".
Q2.

Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
(176 ÷ 4) + (22 × 8) – (2 × 20) = 70
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not individual digits of a given number)

  • A.

    4 and 8

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    2 and 4

  • C.

    22 and 20

  • D.

    2 and 8

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

Given equation: (176 ÷ 4) + (22 × 8) − (2 × 20) = 70

BODMAS Table:

Operation preference wiseSymbolBrackets[],,()Orders, of(power),√(root),ofDivision÷Multiplication×Addition+Subtraction−\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline\textbf{Operation preference wise} & \textbf{Symbol} \\\hline\text{Brackets} &[],{}, () \\ \hline \text{Orders, of} & (power), √ (root) , of \\ \hline \text{Division}& ÷ \\ \hline \text{Multiplication} & × \\ \hline \text{Addition} & + \\ \hline \text{Subtraction} & - \\\hline\end{array}

Let's check each option one by one.

Option A) 4 and 8

Given: (176 ÷ 4) + (22 × 8) − (2 × 20) = 70

After interchanging the signs we get;

=> (176 ÷ 8) + (22 × 4) − (2 × 20) = 70

=> 22 + 88 − 40 = 70

=> 110 - 40 ≠ 70

=> 70 = 70

=> LHS = RHS

Option B) 2 and 4

Given: (176 ÷ 4) + (22 × 8) − (2 × 20) = 70

After interchanging the signs we get;

=> (176 ÷ 2) + (22 × 8) − (4 × 20) = 70

=> 88 + 176 − 80 = 70

=> 264 – 80 = 70

=> 184 ≠ 70

=> LHS ≠ RHS

Option C) 22 and 20

Given: (176 ÷ 4) + (22 × 8) − (2 × 20) = 70

After interchanging the signs we get;

=> (176 ÷ 4) + (20 × 8) − (2 × 22) = 70

=> 44 + 160 − 44 = 70

=> 204 – 44 = 70

=> 160 ≠ 70

=> LHS ≠ RHS

Option D) 2 and 8

Given: (176 ÷ 4) + (22 × 8) − (2 × 20) = 70

After interchanging the signs we get;

=> (176 ÷ 4) + (22 × 2) − (8 × 20) = 70

=> 44 + 44 − 160 = 70

=> 88 – 160 = 70

=> -72 ≠ 70

=> LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option A".

Q3.

According to Census of India 2011, which is the second most populated state?

  • A.

    Bihar

  • B.

    Tamil Nadu

  • C.

    Maharashtra

    ✓ Correct
  • D.

    Rajasthan

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

Correct Answer: (C) Maharashtra

Explanation:

  • As per Census of India 2011, the most populated state in India is Uttar Pradesh, followed by Maharashtra.
  • Maharashtra had a population of approximately 112 million in 2011, making it the second most populous state in the country.

Information Booster:

  • Top 5 Populous States (2011 Census):
    1. Uttar Pradesh – ~199 million
    2. Maharashtra – ~112 million
    3. Bihar – ~104 million
    4. West Bengal – ~91 million
    5. Madhya Pradesh – ~73 million
  • Population Density (persons per sq km) of Maharashtra: ~365
  • Major Cities in Maharashtra: Mumbai (capital), Pune, Nagpur, Nashik.
Q4.

What is the unit of electric current?

  • A.

    Watt

  • B.

    Ohm

  • C.

    Ampere

    ✓ Correct
  • D.

    Volt

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

Correct Answer: (C) Ampere

Explanation:

  • The unit of electric current is the Ampere (A).
  • It measures the flow of electric charge through a conductor per unit time.
  • 1 Ampere = 1 coulomb of charge passing through a point per second.

Information Booster:

  • Other electrical units:
    • Volt (V): Unit of electric potential
    • Ohm (Ω): Unit of electrical resistance
    • Watt (W): Unit of electric power (1 Watt = 1 Volt × 1 Ampere)
  • Named after: André-Marie Ampère, a French physicist and mathematician who contributed to electrodynamics

Other Options:

  • A (Watt) – Power, not current
  • B (Ohm) – Resistance, not current
  • D (Volt) – Potential difference, not current
Q5.

What balances the atmospheric pressure with equal force so that animals do not crumble under the high pressure exerted on them by the atmosphere?​

  • A.

    Moon’s gravitational pull

  • B.

    Pressure because of sunlight

  • C.

    Energy produced by the food consumed

  • D.

    Blood Pressure

    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

The correct answer is (D) Blood Pressure

Explanation:
• The internal pressure of the body, primarily maintained by blood pressure and other fluids, balances the external atmospheric pressure.
• This equilibrium prevents our bodies from being crushed by the weight of the air.

Information Booster:
• Atmospheric pressure at sea level is approximately 101.3 kPa (14.7 psi).
• Divers face similar pressure issues underwater, requiring pressure equalization.

Additional Knowledge:
• The Moon's gravity (Option A) causes tides, not body pressure balance.

Q6.

Six friends Abby, Bunny, Chan, Dolly, Emma and Fanny have different weights. Dolly ’s weight is an odd number. Dolly is heavier than Emma but not the heaviest. Chan is heavier than Fanny but lighter than Dolly. Chan is not heavier than Emma but is heavier than Fanny and Abby. Abby’s weight is not an odd number. The lightest weight is 45 kilograms and the heaviest weight is 80 kilograms.
If Chan weighs 68 kilograms, which of the following can be the possible weight of Dolly (in kilograms)?​

  • A.

    71

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    66

  • C.

    72

  • D.

    65

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

Given:

Six friends Abby, Bunny, Chan, Dolly, Emma and Fanny have different weights.
1. Chan is heavier than Fanny but lighter than Dolly.

2. Dolly is heavier than Emma but not the heaviest.

3. Chan is not heavier than Emma but is heavier than Fanny and Abby.
4. Abby’s weight is not an odd number.
5. The lightest weight is 45 kilograms and the heaviest weight is 80 kilograms.
Here, Abby cannot have the least weight because it is given that the lightest weight is 45 kg and Abby's weight is not an odd number.

Thus, the final arrangement is:

If Chan weighs 68 kilograms, then the possible weight of Dolly will be '71 kg'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option A".

Q7.

This question consists of a pair of words that have a certain relationship to each other.
Select the pair that has the same relationship.

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Pressure : Pascal​

  • A.

    Force : Candela

  • B.

    Frequency : Ohm

  • C.

    Electric Potential : Volt

    ✓ Correct
  • D.

    Sound : Watt

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Units of Measurement

Here,

Pressure : Pascal  → Pascal is the unit of measurement for Pressure.

Similarly,

Electric Potential : Volt  → Volt is the unit of measurement for Electric Potential.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option C".

Q8.

Which of the following is an important step towards offering primary education to all children between the ages of 6 and 14?​

  • A.

    Sarva Siksha Abhiyan

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    Mid-day meal

  • C.

    Adult Education Programme

  • D.

    Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

Correct Answer: (A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

Explanation:

  • Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is a flagship program of the Government of India launched in 2001 to achieve universalisation of elementary education.
  • Its primary goal is to ensure free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of 6 and 14, in line with Article 21A of the Constitution.
  • SSA focuses on infrastructure development, teacher training, quality education, and inclusive education for marginalized groups.

Information Booster:

  • Launch Year: 2001
  • Target Age Group: 6–14 years
  • Key Features:
    • Opening new schools and classrooms
    • Providing trained teachers and learning materials
    • Promoting girls’ education and inclusive learning for children with disabilities
    • Community participation through School Management Committees
  • Impact: SSA has significantly increased enrolment rates, reduced dropout rates, and improved access to education in rural and remote areas of India.

Other Options:

  • B (Mid-day meal) – Supports nutrition and attendance but is not directly aimed at universal primary education.
  • C (Adult Education Programme) – Focuses on literacy among adults, not children.
  • D (Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan) – Targets secondary education, not primary education.
Q9.

What is the meaning of the word ‘Taraf’ under the Bahmani Sultanate?

  • A.

    Tax

  • B.

    Merchant

  • C.

    Province

    ✓ Correct
  • D.

    Horse

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

Correct Answer: (C) Province

Explanation:

  • Under the Bahmani Sultanate (1347–1527), the kingdom was divided into administrative units called “Tarafs”, which were essentially provinces.
  • Each Taraf was governed by an officer responsible for revenue collection, law and order, and administration.
  • This system helped the Bahmani rulers manage their extensive kingdom efficiently.

Information Booster:

  • Bahmani Sultanate: One of the earliest Muslim kingdoms in the Deccan, established in 1347 with Gulbarga as its capital.
  • Administrative Structure:
    • Taraf: Province
    • Amir / Tarafdar: Governor of the Taraf
    • Iqta System: Land revenue assignments to officers
  • Significance: The Taraf system was a forerunner to later provincial divisions in the Deccan Sultanates, promoting organized governance and revenue administration.

Other Options:

  • A (Tax) – Incorrect; taxes were called Kharaj or Zakat.
  • B (Merchant) – Incorrect; merchants were called Sahukar or Banias.
  • D (Horse) – Incorrect; no such terminology for horse under Bahmani administration.
Q10.

Which disease causes bone pain, stunted growth and soft, weak bones that can lead to skeletal deformities due to not having enough vitamin D?​

  • A.

    Rickets

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    Pertussis

  • C.

    Dementia

  • D.

    Polio

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

Correct Answer: (A) Rickets 

Explanation:

  • Rickets is a disease caused by a deficiency of vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate, leading to improper mineralization of bones in children.
  • Symptoms include:
    • Bone pain and tenderness
    • Stunted growth
    • Soft, weak bones
    • Skeletal deformities such as bowed legs or knock knees

Information Booster:

  • Causes:
    • Lack of sunlight exposure (Vitamin D synthesis)
    • Insufficient dietary intake of vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate
  • Prevention:
    • Vitamin D supplementation and fortified foods (milk, cereals)
    • Adequate sunlight exposure
  • Other Facts:
    • In adults, vitamin D deficiency can lead to osteomalacia, a similar bone-softening condition.

Other Options:

  • B (Pertussis) – Also called whooping cough; a respiratory infection.
  • C (Dementia) – Affects memory and cognitive functions, not bones.
  • D (Polio) – Caused by poliovirus; affects muscles and nerves, can cause paralysis, not directly related to vitamin D deficiency.
Q11.

Which freedom is protected by Article 19(d) of the Constitution?

  • A.

    Freedom of speech and expression

  • B.

    Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India

    ✓ Correct
  • C.

    Freedom to assemble peacefully

  • D.

    Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India

Answer & Solution

Correct option is B

Correct Answer: (B) Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India 

Explanation:

  • Article 19(d) of the Indian Constitution guarantees citizens the freedom of movement throughout the territory of India.
  • This allows all Indian citizens to travel freely within India, though the government can impose reasonable restrictions in the interest of public order, security, or health.
  • It is part of the broader set of Fundamental Rights under Article 19, which protect freedom of movement, residence, speech, association, and occupation.

Information Booster:

  • Related Freedoms under Article 19:
    • 19(a): Freedom of speech and expression
    • 19(b): Freedom to assemble peacefully
    • 19(c): Freedom to form associations or unions
    • 19(d): Freedom to move freely throughout India
    • 19(e): Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India
    • 19(f): Freedom to practice any profession or carry on any trade/business
  • Reasonable Restrictions: These freedoms can be restricted for public order, morality, health, or security of the state.

Other Options:

  • A (Freedom of speech and expression) – Article 19(a)
  • C (Freedom to assemble peacefully) – Article 19(b)
  • D (Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India) – Article 19(e)
Q12.

Food digested in the stomach passes through the intestines so that the blood vessels can absorb essential nutrients for the functioning and growth of the body. What is this process known as?​

  • A.

    Transmission

  • B.

    Assimilation

    ✓ Correct
  • C.

    Transfusion

  • D.

    Integration

Answer & Solution

Correct option is B

The correct answer is: B. Assimilation

Explanation:

  • Assimilation is the process by which digested food is absorbed by the blood vessels from the intestines and transported to various parts of the body to provide energy, build tissues, and support growth.
  • After digestion, nutrients like glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, vitamins, and minerals enter the bloodstream and are delivered to cells for metabolism and growth.
  • This is a vital step in the overall process of nutrition, following ingestion, digestion, and absorption.

Information Booster:

  • Transmission: Refers to the movement of signals or diseases, not food nutrients.
  • Transfusion: Refers to the transfer of blood or its components.
  • Integration: General term for combining parts into a whole, not specific to nutrient absorption.
  • Assimilation ensures that energy from food is converted into body tissues, and any deficiency can lead to malnutrition or stunted growth.
  • Essential for cell repair, enzyme production, and overall metabolic functions.
Q13.

Who along with Barry Marshall, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 2005 for discovering that stomach ulcer is an infectious disease caused by bacteria?​

  • A.

    Jean Paul Vuillemin

  • B.

    Robert Koch

  • C.

    Gabriel Pouchet

  • D.

    Robin Warren

    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

The correct answer is: D. Robin Warren 

Explanation:

  • Robin Warren, along with Barry Marshall, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 2005.
  • They discovered that stomach ulcers and gastritis are primarily caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori, overturning the earlier belief that ulcers were caused by stress or spicy food.
  • Their research demonstrated that ulcers are an infectious disease, and treating them with antibiotics could effectively cure the condition.
  • This discovery revolutionized gastroenterology and significantly improved treatment protocols for peptic ulcer disease.

Information Booster:

  • Jean Paul Vuillemin: A French mycologist, unrelated to ulcer research.
  • Robert Koch: Known for identifying the bacteria causing tuberculosis and cholera.
  • Gabriel Pouchet: A French biologist, not related to ulcer research.
  • Impact of discovery:
    • Reduced reliance on long-term acid-suppressing drugs.
    • Led to targeted antibiotic therapy for ulcer patients.
    • Highlighted the role of bacteria in chronic diseases beyond infectious illnesses.
Q14.

Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain?

  • A.

    Decomposers

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    Primary consumers

  • C.

    Producers

  • D.

    Secondary consumers

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

Correct Answer: (A) Decomposers

Explanation:

  • Decomposers include bacteria, fungi, and detritivores, which feed on dead and decaying matter from all levels of the food chain.
  • Their population is very large because they thrive wherever organic matter is available, unlike higher trophic levels whose populations are limited by energy availability.
  • Decomposers play a crucial role in recycling nutrients back into the ecosystem, supporting the growth of producers and maintaining ecosystem balance.

Information Booster:

  • Producers: Generate energy but are outnumbered by tiny decomposers.
  • Primary consumers and secondary consumers: Have smaller populations due to energy loss at each trophic level.
  • Ecological significance: Decomposers maintain soil fertility, nutrient cycling, and overall ecosystem health.
  • Population comparison: Numerically, decomposers are often the most abundant organisms in a food web.

So, in a food chain, the largest population is found among decomposers.

Q15.

What is the main content of the Fourth Schedule in the Constitution of India?

  • A.

    Directive Principles of State Policy

  • B.

    Allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha

  • C.

    Provisions for State Legislature

  • D.

    Allocation of seats in the Council of States

    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

The correct answer is (D) Allocation of seats in the Council of States.

Explanation:

  • The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the various States and Union Territories.
  • It specifies the number of seats each state is allotted based on its population, ensuring representation of all states in the upper house of Parliament.

Information Booster:

  • Rajya Sabha (Council of States):
    • The upper house of Parliament in India.
    • Represents the States and Union Territories.
    • Seats are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies through a single transferable vote system.
  • Purpose of the Fourth Schedule:
    • To ensure proportional representation of states in the Council of States.
    • The President of India can alter the allocation of seats through law, taking into account changes in population.
  • Other Schedules in the Constitution:
    • First Schedule: Names and territories of states and union territories.
    • Second Schedule: Provisions related to salaries and allowances of constitutional authorities.
    • Third Schedule: Forms of Oaths and Affirmations.
    • Fifth Schedule: Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Tribes.

Why other options are incorrect:

  • (A) Directive Principles of State Policy: Covered under Part IV of the Constitution, not in any Schedule.
  • (B) Allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha: This is covered in Article 81, not the Fourth Schedule.
  • (C) Provisions for State Legislature: These are included in Articles 168–212, not in the Fourth Schedule.