SSC JE General Awareness Questions with Detailed Solutions

Get SSC JE General Awareness Questions to prepare for your upcoming exam. Solve the most expected questions and detailed solutions that can be asked in the exam.

Important SSC JE General Awareness Questions

Q1.

According to Census of India 2011,India ’s population accounts for _______ of the world’s population.

  • A.

    15.5%

  • B.

    17.5%

    ✓ Correct
  • C.

    19.3%

  • D.

    21.7%

Answer & Solution

Correct option is B

Correct Answer: (B) 17.5%

Explanation:

  • According to the Census of India 2011, India’s population was approximately 1.21 billion, which accounted for 17.5% of the world’s total population at that time.
  • This made India the second most populous country in the world, after China.
  • The Census provides crucial data for policy planning, resource allocation, and social development programs.

Information Booster:

  • World Population (2011): Approximately 6.9 billion.
  • Population Distribution: India contributes a significant portion to Asia’s population and has a large youth demographic, which impacts education, employment, and economic planning.
  • Population Growth Rate: India’s decadal growth rate (2001–2011) was 17.7%, indicating a slight decline compared to the previous decade.

So, as per Census 2011, India’s population was 17.5% of the world’s population.

Q2.

When was the 'Vivad se Vishwas II (Contractual Disputes)' scheme announced by the Union Finance Minister?

  • A.

    Union Budget 2020-21

  • B.

    Union Budget 2021-22

  • C.

    Union Budget 2022-23

  • D.

    Union Budget 2023-24

    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

Correct Answer: (D) Union Budget 2023-24

Explanation:

  • The 'Vivad se Vishwas II (Contractual Disputes)' scheme was announced by the Union Finance Minister during the Union Budget 2023-24.
  • The scheme is aimed at resolving contractual disputes efficiently between the government and taxpayers or contractors, providing a simplified dispute resolution mechanism.
  • It is a continuation or expansion of the original Vivad se Vishwas scheme, which primarily focused on tax disputes.

Information Booster:

  • Objective of Vivad se Vishwas II:
    • To reduce litigation related to contractual disputes.
    • To provide a faster and less cumbersome dispute resolution mechanism.
    • To promote ease of doing business and improve government efficiency in settling disputes.
  • Importance:
    • Helps in recovering dues without prolonged litigation.
    • Reduces the burden on courts and tribunals.
    • Encourages cooperation between government and contractors or businesses.

So, the Vivad se Vishwas II scheme was announced in Union Budget 2023-24.

Q3.

Which sport is Leander Paes associated with?

  • A.

    Table Tennis

  • B.

    Tennis

    ✓ Correct
  • C.

    Badminton

  • D.

    Squash

Answer & Solution

Correct option is B

Correct Answer: (B) Tennis

Explanation:

  • Leander Paes is a renowned Indian tennis player.
  • He is especially famous for his achievements in doubles and mixed doubles, winning multiple Grand Slam titles.
  • Paes has represented India in Davis Cup and has also won an Olympic bronze medal in singles at the 1996 Atlanta Olympics.

Information Booster:

  • Achievements:
    • Over 18 Grand Slam titles in doubles and mixed doubles.
    • Olympic bronze medal in men’s singles (1996).
    • Long-standing career spanning over three decades, making him one of India’s most successful tennis players.
  • Playing Style: Known for his quick reflexes, net play, and strategic game in doubles matches.

So, Leander Paes is associated with tennis.

Q4.

Pandit Kumar Gandharva received the ________________________ in 1977 for his contributions in the field of Hindustani Classical music.​

  • A.

    Tansen Samman

  • B.

    Padma Shri

  • C.

    Karnataka Ratna

  • D.

    Padma Bhushan

    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

Correct Answer: (D) Padma Bhushan

Explanation:

  • Pandit Kumar Gandharva was a legendary vocalist in Hindustani Classical music.
  • In recognition of his outstanding contributions to Indian music, he was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1977.
  • The Padma Bhushan is the third-highest civilian award in India, given for distinguished service of high order in any field, including arts and culture.

Information Booster:

  • Legacy of Kumar Gandharva:
    • Known for innovative approach to Hindustani Classical music.
    • Popularized folk tunes and rare ragas in classical performances.
    • Inspired generations of musicians with his unique style and voice modulation.

Other Option:

  • Tansen Samman: Awarded by Madhya Pradesh government for excellence in classical music.
  • Padma Shri: Fourth-highest civilian award in India, recognizing distinguished service in any field.
  • Karnataka Ratna: Highest civilian award of the state of Karnataka, for exceptional contributions in various fields.
Q5.

The National Lata Mangeshkar Award 2021 was given to:

  • A.

    Kumar Sanu

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    Sonu Nigam

  • C.

    Udit Narayan

  • D.

    Arijit Singh

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

Correct Answer: (A) Kumar Sanu

Explanation:

  • The National Lata Mangeshkar Award 2021 was conferred to Kumar Sanu, the celebrated Bollywood playback singer.
  • The award is given by the Government of Madhya Pradesh to honor individuals for their outstanding contribution to Indian music.
  • Kumar Sanu has been recognized for his melodious voice, versatility, and iconic songs in Bollywood, particularly during the 1990s.

Information Booster:

  • National Lata Mangeshkar Award:
    • Named after the legendary singer Lata Mangeshkar, also known as the “Nightingale of India.”
    • Recognizes lifetime achievements and contributions to Indian music.
  • Other notable singers explained:
    • Sonu Nigam: Recipient in 2019, not 2021.
    • Udit Narayan: Veteran Bollywood singer, not awarded in 2021.
    • Arijit Singh: Popular contemporary singer, not the 2021 recipient.

So, the National Lata Mangeshkar Award 2021 was awarded to Kumar Sanu.

Q6.

If a government wants to boost economic growth in a recession, which measure is it likely to take?

  • A.

    Increase taxes significantly

  • B.

    Implement strict trade barriers

  • C.

    Increase public spending

    ✓ Correct
  • D.

    Reduce public spending

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

The correct answer is (C) Increase public spending.

Explanation:

  • During a recession, economic activity slows down, leading to higher unemployment and reduced consumer demand. To stimulate the economy, a government is likely to increase public spending.
  • This is a fiscal policy measure where the government injects money into the economy by spending on infrastructure, public services, or welfare programs. This helps to boost demand, create jobs, and encourage economic activity.

Information Booster:

  • Increasing public spending is one of the key strategies in Keynesian economics, which suggests that during a downturn, the government should step in to boost demand and get the economy moving again.
  • This type of spending is especially helpful in recessions because it can immediately stimulate the economy, whereas other measures, like cutting taxes or reducing interest rates, may take longer to have an impact.
  • Examples of public spending include building infrastructure (roads, bridges, etc.), funding welfare programs, or providing subsidies to struggling industries.

Why other options are incorrect:

  • (A) Increase taxes significantly: Increasing taxes would take money out of consumers' hands, reducing demand even further and worsening the recession.
  • (B) Implement strict trade barriers: While trade barriers can protect domestic industries, they may reduce the overall efficiency of the economy and lead to retaliation from other countries, potentially worsening the situation.
  • (D) Reduce public spending: Reducing public spending during a recession would further decrease demand in the economy, exacerbating the economic slowdown.
Q7.

Which of the following institutions is called the 'lender of last resort'?

  • A.

    NABARD

  • B.

    SBI

  • C.

    RBI

    ✓ Correct
  • D.

    SEBI

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

The correct answer is (C) RBI.

Explanation:

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is called the ‘Lender of Last Resort’ because it provides emergency financial assistance to commercial banks and financial institutions facing liquidity crises.
  • When banks cannot borrow from other banks or the market to meet short-term obligations, the RBI steps in to provide loans to ensure stability in the financial system.
  • This function is crucial to prevent bank failures and maintain confidence in the banking system.

Information Booster:

  • The concept of Lender of Last Resort was first proposed by Henry Thornton and later formalized by Walter Bagehot in central banking practices.
  • The RBI provides such support through mechanisms like repo operations, liquidity adjustment facilities (LAF), and marginal standing facility (MSF).
  • Other central banks globally, like the Federal Reserve in the USA, perform a similar role to stabilize their financial systems during crises.

Why other options are incorrect:

  • A. NABARD: Focuses on agricultural and rural development financing, not a lender of last resort.
  • B. SBI: A commercial bank, cannot act as a lender of last resort.
  • D. SEBI: Regulates the securities market, does not provide emergency liquidity support.
Q8.

Which of the following organisations was established in 1906?

  • A.

    Akhil Bharat Hindu Mahasabha

  • B.

    All India Muslim League

    ✓ Correct
  • C.

    Servants of India Society

  • D.

    Parsi Religious Reform Association

Answer & Solution

Correct option is B

Correct Answer: (B) All India Muslim League

Explanation:

  • The All India Muslim League was established in 1906 in Dhaka (now in Bangladesh).
  • It was founded to represent the political interests of Muslims in India during the British colonial period.
  • The league played a significant role in advocating for Muslim rights and later became the driving force behind the creation of Pakistan in 1947.

Information Booster:

  • Akhil Bharat Hindu Mahasabha: Established in 1915, aimed at promoting Hindu nationalism.
  • Servants of India Society: Founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905, focused on social reform and education.
  • Parsi Religious Reform Association: Established in 1851, aimed at reforming and modernizing the Parsi community.

So, the organization established in 1906 is the All India Muslim League.

Q9.

Which Article of the Constitution of India grants citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression, freedom of assembly and freedom to practice any profession?​

  • A.

    Article 17

  • B.

    Article 18

  • C.

    Article 19

    ✓ Correct
  • D.

    Article 25

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

Correct Answer: (C) Article 19

Explanation:

  • Article 19 of the Constitution of India guarantees certain fundamental rights to all citizens of India, including:
    1. Freedom of speech and expression
    2. Freedom of assembly (peaceful and without arms)
    3. Freedom to form associations or unions
    4. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India
    5. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India
    6. Freedom to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business
  • These rights are subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of sovereignty, security, public order, morality, and other considerations mentioned in the Constitution.

Information Booster:

  • Article 17: Abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
  • Article 18: Abolishes titles except military and academic distinctions.
  • Article 25: Guarantees freedom of religion, allowing all citizens to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion.
  • Article 19 is a key component of Fundamental Rights ensuring civil liberties and democratic freedoms in India.

So, the right to freedom of speech, assembly, and profession is guaranteed under Article 19.

Q10.

Which of the following statements is true?
A. Igneous rocks are used as fuel by igniting them.
B. Sedimentary rocks can never change into metamorphic rocks or magma.
C. Igneous rocks can change into sedimentary rocks over a long period of time.
D. Magma can form sedimentary rocks on cooling.

  • A.

    D

  • B.

    B

  • C.

    A

  • D.

    C

    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

Correct Answer: (D) C

Explanation:

  • Igneous rocks are formed from the cooling and solidification of magma.
  • Over long periods of time, igneous rocks can undergo weathering and erosion, breaking into smaller particles. These particles can be transported, deposited, and compacted to form sedimentary rocks.
  • This process is part of the rock cycle, which explains how igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks can transform from one type to another over geological time.


Why the other options are incorrect:

  • A: Igneous rocks are not used as fuel; fuels are typically coal, wood, or petroleum.
  • B: Sedimentary rocks can change into metamorphic rocks under heat and pressure.
  • D: Magma forms igneous rocks, not sedimentary rocks, when it cools.

Information Booster:

  • Rock Cycle: Shows the continuous transformation of rocks:
    • Igneous → Sedimentary → Metamorphic → Igneous
  • Sedimentary Rocks: Formed by deposition, compaction, and cementation of sediments.
  • Metamorphic Rocks: Formed when existing rocks are subjected to high temperature and pressure.

So, the correct statement is: Igneous rocks can change into sedimentary rocks over a long period of time.

Q11.

Who can appoint the judges of the High Court?

  • A.

    Attorney General

  • B.

    Prime Minister

  • C.

    Governor

  • D.

    President

    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

Correct Answer: (D) President

Explanation:

  • According to Article 217 of the Constitution of India, the judges of the High Court are appointed by the President of India.
  • The President makes the appointment after consulting:
    • The Chief Justice of India
    • The Governor of the respective state
    • In some cases, the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned

Information Booster:

  • Eligibility for High Court Judge:
    • Must be a citizen of India
    • Must have been a judge of a High Court for at least 5 years or an advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years
  • Tenure: Judges retire at the age of 62 years
  • The consultation process ensures a balance between central and state input in judicial appointments.

So, the President of India is the authority who appoints High Court judges.

Q12.

Which river has its source in the Western Ghats range of Karnataka state?

  • A.

    Sarayu

  • B.

    Banas

  • C.

    Kosi

  • D.

    Kaveri

    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

Correct Answer: (D) Kaveri

Explanation:

  • The Kaveri River originates in the Western Ghats near Talakaveri in the Kodagu district of Karnataka.
  • It is one of the major rivers of southern India and flows through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, eventually emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The river is crucial for irrigation, drinking water, and hydroelectric power generation in the region.

Information Booster:

  • Sarayu River: Originates in Nepal and flows through Uttar Pradesh.
  • Banas River: A tributary of the Chambal, originates in Rajasthan.
  • Kosi River: Originates in the Himalayas (Nepal) and is a tributary of the Ganga.
  • Significance of Kaveri:
    • Supports agriculture in the Kaveri delta of Tamil Nadu.
    • Has several major dams like Krishna Raja Sagara (KRS) and Mettur Dam.
    • Revered in Indian culture and mentioned in many ancient texts.

So, the Kaveri River has its source in the Western Ghats of Karnataka.

Q13.

The Parsi reform movement Rahnumai Mazdayasna Sabha was founded in which year?

  • A.

    1855

  • B.

    1849

  • C.

    1851

    ✓ Correct
  • D.

    1841

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

Correct Answer: (C) 1851

Explanation:

  • The Rahnumai Mazdayasna Sabha was founded in 1851 by a group of reform-minded Parsis in Bombay (now Mumbai).
  • The Sabha aimed at reforming religious practices within the Parsi community, promoting education, social reforms, and rational religious practices.
  • It played a key role in modernizing the Parsi community and addressing issues like child marriage, education for girls, and proper religious observances.

Information Booster:

  • Objectives of Rahnumai Mazdayasna Sabha:
    • Standardizing rituals and religious ceremonies.
    • Encouraging modern education among Parsis.
    • Promoting social reform within the community.
  • The Sabha influenced later Parsi reform movements and helped preserve Zoroastrian culture in India.
  • It is one of the earliest examples of religious reform movements among Indian communities in the 19th century.

So, the Rahnumai Mazdayasna Sabha was founded in 1851.

Q14.

Who was the first Sultan of the Sultanate period who arranged for the translation of Hindu scriptures from Sanskrit to Persian?​

  • A.

    Firoz Shah Tughlaq

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    Alauddin Khilji 

  • C.

    Muhammad bin Tughluq

  • D.

    Sikandar Khan Lodi

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

Correct Answer: (A) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Explanation:

  • Firoz Shah Tughlaq (1351–1388), Sultan of Delhi, was the first Sultan of the Sultanate period to arrange for the translation of Hindu scriptures from Sanskrit into Persian.
  • These translations included texts such as the Mahabharata and the Puranas.
  • The purpose of these translations was to understand Hindu philosophy, laws, and customs to govern the largely non-Muslim population effectively.
  • Firoz Shah Tughlaq is also known for his administrative reforms, public works, and patronage of scholars.

Information Booster:

  • Muhammad bin Tughluq (1325–1351): Known for shifting the capital to Daulatabad, token currency experiment, and ambitious administrative reforms, but not credited with translations of Hindu texts.
  • Significance of Firoz Shah’s initiative:
    • Facilitated cultural integration between Muslims and Hindus.
    • Preserved ancient Hindu texts and made them accessible to Persian scholars.
    • Early example of state-sponsored translation and scholarship in medieval India.

So, the first Sultan to arrange the translation of Hindu scriptures into Persian was Firoz Shah Tughlaq.

Q15.

The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill 2023 aims to make the _______________ only conclusive age proof that can be used as a single document for various purposes.​

  • A.

    Birth Certificate

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    ST/SC/OBC Certificate

  • C.

    Aadhar Card

  • D.

    Voter ID

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

Correct Answer: (A) Birth Certificate

Explanation:

  • The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill 2023 aims to make the birth certificate the only conclusive proof of age in India.
  • This amendment seeks to standardize age verification and simplify procedures for various purposes, including:
    • Admission to schools and colleges
    • Employment eligibility
    • Government schemes and pensions
  • The bill emphasizes universal registration of births to ensure that every child has a birth certificate.

Information Booster:

  • Current practice: Multiple documents (like Aadhaar, school certificates, or SC/ST certificates) are sometimes used to prove age, leading to inconsistencies.
  • Benefits of the amendment:
    • Prevents fraud and age manipulation
    • Facilitates streamlined governance and record-keeping
    • Strengthens legal and administrative identity for every individual
  • Other certificates explained:
    • ST/SC/OBC certificate: Proof of social category, not age
    • Aadhaar Card: Identity and address proof, not legally conclusive for age
    • Voter ID: Age verification only for voting eligibility, not universally conclusive

So, under this amendment, the birth certificate will be the sole conclusive proof of age.