SSC CGL Polity Questions with Detailed Solutions

The correct answer is (C) Article 243-W

Explanation:
• Article 243W of the Constitution of India deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities.
• It grants State Legislatures the power to endow Municipalities with responsibilities, including those enumerated in the Twelfth Schedule.
• The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 added Part IX-A and the Twelfth Schedule to the Indian Constitution.
• The Twelfth Schedule contains a list of 18 functional items entrusted to urban local bodies, such as urban planning, land regulation, and roads.
• Article 243W ensures constitutional status and functional autonomy for urban self-government institutions.

Information Booster:
• Part IX-A covers Articles 243P to 243ZG dedicated to Municipalities.
• The 18 functional matters include urban forestry, fire services, public health, water supply, and slum improvement.
• Article 243I and 243Y mandate the establishment of a State Finance Commission to review the financial position of municipalities.
• Article 243K and 243ZA provide for a State Election Commission to conduct free and fair municipal elections.

Additional Knowledge:
• Article 243-ZC (Option A): Specifies that Part IX-A does not apply to Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas referred to in Article 244.
• Article 243-P (Option B): Contains definitions for terms used throughout Part IX-A (such as Committee, District, Metropolitan area, Municipality).
• Article 243-Q (Option D): Mandates the constitution of three types of Municipalities: Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council, and Municipal Corporation.

The correct answer is (B) Two Kerala Acts on land reforms

Explanation:
• The 29th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1972, added two Kerala Land Reform Amendment Acts (1969 and 1971) to the Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• The Ninth Schedule was created to protect land reform and agrarian restructuring laws from judicial scrutiny under Fundamental Rights.
• By placing these specific state legislations into the Ninth Schedule, the Parliament aimed to immunize Kerala's land redistribution efforts from constitutional challenges.
• The amendment was enacted during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi to ensure uninterrupted land redistribution to landless farmers.
• This amendment formed part of the key backdrop in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala case (1973), which reviewed the validity of the 24th, 25th, and 29th Amendments.

Information Booster:
• The Ninth Schedule was originally inserted into the Indian Constitution by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951.
• Article 31B protects laws listed in the Ninth Schedule from being invalidated on the grounds of violating Fundamental Rights.
• In the I.R. Coelho vs. State of Tamil Nadu case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 (Kesavananda Bharati judgment date) are subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure.
• Originally containing 13 laws in 1951, the Ninth Schedule currently contains 284 protected acts.

Additional Knowledge:
• Reservation in promotions (Option A): Introduced into Article 16(4A) by the 77th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1995.
• Environmental protection laws (Option C): Environmental protection was explicitly incorporated under Article 48A and Article 51A(g) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
• Special provisions for Mizoram (Option D): Introduced under Article 371G via the 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1986.

The correct answer is (D) Schedule X

Explanation:
• The Tenth Schedule (Schedule X) was added to the Constitution of India by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
• Commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law, it sets out provisions for disqualifying members of Parliament and State Legislatures on grounds of defection.
• Disqualification occurs if an elected member voluntarily gives up party membership or votes against party whip directions without prior permission.
• An independent member is disqualified if they join a political party after election, while nominated members are disqualified if they join a party after six months.
• The power to decide on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule rests with the Presiding Officer (Speaker or Chairman) of the respective House.

Information Booster:
• The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 strengthened the law by omitting the provision that exempted defection in case of a one-third party split.
• Under current rules, a valid political merger requires at least two-thirds of the members of a legislature party to agree.
• In the landmark Kihoto Hollohan case (1992), the Supreme Court held that the decision of the Presiding Officer is subject to judicial review.
• The law was enacted to curb political instability caused by unprincipled floor-crossing ("Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram" politics).
• According to NCERT Class 11 Political Science ("Indian Constitution at Work"), the Tenth Schedule reinforces political stability and party discipline.
• Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule does not prevent a member from contesting future elections or by-elections.

Additional Knowledge:
• Schedule XI (Option A): Added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992; contains 29 functional matters under Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• Schedule XII (Option B): Added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992; lists 18 functional responsibilities assigned to Urban Local Bodies.
• Schedule IX (Option C): Added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951; protects land reform laws from judicial review under Article 31B.

The correct answer is (D) Compulsory State supervision

Explanation:
• Article 243ZI was incorporated into the Constitution of India via the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, under Part IXB.
• It states that the legislature of a State may make laws regarding the incorporation, regulation, and winding up of co-operative societies based on democratic principles.
• The core constitutional principles emphasized under Article 243ZI and Part IXB include voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic member control, and professional management.
• 'Compulsory State supervision' directly contradicts the fundamental objective of promoting member-driven democratic autonomy in co-operatives.
• The amendment aimed to eliminate excessive administrative interference and political dominance over local co-operative institutions across Indian states.

Information Booster:
• The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, granted constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies in India.
• It added 'co-operative societies' to the Fundamental Right to form associations under Article 19(1)(c).
• It introduced a new Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) under Article 43B, encouraging the voluntary formation and autonomous functioning of co-operative bodies.
• Part IXB spans Articles 243ZH to 243ZT, detailing board composition, elections, audits, and supersession parameters for co-operatives.
• Article 243ZJ mandates reservation of seats on the board of every co-operative society for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes and women.
• The Ministry of Cooperation was established by the Government of India in July 2021 to strengthen the co-operative movement under the vision of 'Sahakar se Samriddhi'.

Additional Knowledge:
• Democratic member control (Option A): Explicitly guaranteed under Part IXB to ensure that board members are elected through periodic and fair democratic processes.
• Autonomous functioning (Option B): A key constitutional pillar designed to give co-operatives functional freedom without undue bureaucratic interference.
• Voluntary formation (Option C): Core principle ensuring individuals have the freedom to associate and establish co-operative societies voluntarily.

The correct answer is (D) S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India

Explanation:
• The landmark case S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India (1981)—famously known as the First Judges Case—officially established the procedural foundation of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) by fundamentally relaxing the traditional legal rule of locus standi.
• Traditional locus standi mandated that only an aggrieved person whose personal legal rights were directly violated could file a petition in court.
• In S.P. Gupta, the Supreme Court ruled through Justice P.N. Bhagwati that any public-spirited individual or organization acting in good faith can approach the court to seek legal remedies for disadvantaged or marginalized persons unable to access justice themselves.
• The court affirmed that letter petitions, telegrams, or public complaints detailing human rights violations could be converted into formal writ petitions under Article 32 (Supreme Court) or Article 226 (High Court).
• This revolutionary ruling democratized the Indian judicial system, transforming courts from passive arbiters of private disputes into proactive guardians of public justice.

Information Booster:
• Justices V.R. Krishna Iyer and P.N. Bhagwati are widely regarded as the founding judicial architects of Public Interest Litigation in India.
• The earliest precursor to PIL was Hussainara Khatoon vs. Home Secretary, State of Bihar (1979), filed regarding the plight of thousands of undertrial prisoners languishing in Bihar jails.
• In Bandhua Mukti Morcha vs. Union of India (1984), the Supreme Court further expanded PIL to enforce fundamental rights for bonded laborers across stone quarries.
• The concept of Public Interest Litigation in India was adapted from the 'Social Action Litigation' and public interest jurisprudence models of the United States legal system.
• Courts maintain guidelines to prevent the misuse of PILs for personal publicity, private vendettas, or frivolous political motives.

Additional Knowledge:
• (A) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India (1980): Upheld the Basic Structure Doctrine, establishing that Parliament cannot destroy judicial review or balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs.
• (B) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967): Ruled that Parliament could not amend Part III of the Constitution to abridge or take away fundamental rights.
• (C) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978): Expanded the scope of Article 21 (Right to Life), ruling that procedure established by law must be just, fair, and reasonable.

The correct answer is (D) Appointment of state governors by the Centre

Explanation:
• The constitutional provision for the appointment of State Governors by the Central Government is borrowed from the Constitution of Canada (Canadian Model), NOT the United Kingdom.
• India adopted a quasi-federal constitutional structure with a strong centralizing tendency from Canada, which includes a federation with a strong Centre, vesting residuary powers in the Centre, and central appointment of provincial Governors.
• Under Article 155 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor of a State is appointed directly by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal, reflecting this central executive linkage.
• The Constituent Assembly deliberately chose the Canadian system of appointing Governors over direct election to prevent conflict between the Governor and the elected state Chief Minister.
• All other features mentioned in the options—the institution of the Speaker, Single Citizenship, and Bicameralism—were directly adopted from the British parliamentary governance system.

Information Booster:
• The British Constitution (Unwritten) served as a primary source for India's Parliamentary form of government, Rule of Law, Legislative procedure, Cabinet system, Prerogative Writs, and Parliamentary privileges.
• Major sources of the Indian Constitution include:
• Government of India Act 1935: Federal Scheme, Office of Governor, Judiciary, Public Service Commissions, Emergency provisions.
• USA: Fundamental Rights, Judicial Review, Independence of Judiciary, Impeachment of President, Removal of SC/ST judges.
• Ireland: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha, Method of Presidential election.
• Australia: Concurrent List, Freedom of trade and commerce, Joint sitting of two Houses of Parliament.
• USSR (now Russia): Fundamental Duties, Ideals of social, economic, and political justice in the Preamble.

Additional Knowledge:
• (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha: Borrowed from the British House of Commons, where the Speaker acts as the neutral presiding authority of the lower house of legislature.
• (B) Single citizenship: Borrowed from the UK to foster national integration, ensuring that all citizens enjoy uniform national rights regardless of state residency (unlike the US dual citizenship model).
• (C) Bicameral Parliament: Borrowed from the Westminster system in the UK, creating a two-house legislature consisting of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

The correct answer is (A) 99th Amendment

Explanation:
• The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014 was enacted by the Parliament of India to set up the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).
• The NJAC was designed as a constitutional body intended to replace the existing Supreme Court Collegium system for appointing and transferring judges to the higher judiciary (Supreme Court and High Courts).
• Along with the 99th Amendment Act, Parliament passed the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014 to regulate the procedure and functions of the newly proposed commission.
• The NJAC was proposed to comprise six members: the Chief Justice of India (as Chairperson), two senior-most Supreme Court judges, the Union Minister of Law and Justice, and two eminent persons nominated by a committee.
• However, in October 2015, a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court, in the landmark Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India case (Five Judges Case), struck down the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act and the NJAC Act as unconstitutional.
• The Supreme Court ruled by a 4:1 majority that the NJAC violated the 'Basic Structure' of the Indian Constitution by compromising judicial independence.

Information Booster:
• The Judicial Collegium system was originally evolved through judicial interpretations in the 'Three Judges Cases' (1981, 1993, and 1998) rather than an explicit constitutional provision.
• Article 124(2) deals with the appointment of Supreme Court Judges, while Article 217 deals with the appointment of High Court Judges in the Constitution of India.
• The 99th Constitutional Amendment added Articles 124A, 124B, and 124C to the Constitution, which were subsequently invalidated when the amendment was struck down.
• Following the invalidation of the NJAC, the Supreme Court Collegium system was restored as the authoritative mechanism for judicial appointments in India.
• Judicial independence is recognized as a core pillar of the Basic Structure doctrine established in the historic Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) judgment.

Additional Knowledge:
• 102nd Amendment (Option B): Granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) and inserted Article 338B and Article 342A into the Constitution in 2018.
• 76th Amendment (Option C): Placed the Tamil Nadu Reservation Act of 1994 (providing 69% reservation in educational institutions and government jobs) in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution in 1994.
• 82nd Amendment (Option D): Amended Article 335 in 2000 to permit relaxation of qualifying marks and standards of evaluation for SC/ST candidates in public sector promotions.

The correct answer is (D) Both I and II are correct

Explanation:
• Statement I is correct: The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 has empowered Indian citizens by turning information access into a tool to ensure maximum fairness, openness, and administrative transparency in governance.
• Statement II is correct: Citizens and consumer rights groups actively utilize the RTI Act to query administrative progress, monitor case pendency, and improve operational efficiency within Consumer Redressal Commissions and Forums.
• By filing RTI applications, consumers can check the status of pending complaints, reasons for delays in order execution, and vacancy positions of judicial members in Consumer Courts.
• Transparency enforced by RTI acts as a deterrent against bureaucratic apathy and corruption, compelling public authorities to comply with established timelines.
• The synergy between the RTI framework and consumer protection mechanisms ensures accountability in public utility services and grievance redressal systems.

Information Booster:
• The Right to Information Act was enacted by the Indian Parliament in June 2005 and came into full legal force across the country on October 12, 2005.
• Section 4 of the RTI Act mandates proactive self-disclosure (suo motu disclosure) by all public authorities to minimize individual information requests.
• The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 governs consumer rights in India, replacing the earlier 1986 legislation, and provides a three-tier quasi-judicial mechanism at District, State, and National levels.
• Central Information Commission (CIC) and State Information Commissions (SICs) function as independent statutory bodies to adjudicate second appeals under the RTI Act.
• Standard response time mandated under the RTI Act is 30 days, which is reduced to 48 hours if the requested information concerns the life or liberty of a person.
• The Supreme Court has recognized RTI as an intrinsic component of the Fundamental Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19(1)(a).

Additional Knowledge:
• Neither I nor II is correct (Option A): Incorrect because both statements accurately describe the constitutional and practical effectiveness of the RTI law in public administration.
• Only II is correct (Option B): Incorrect because Statement I correctly states the primary constitutional objective of the RTI framework in establishing transparent governance.
• Only I is correct (Option C): Incorrect because Statement II correctly identifies the widespread application of RTI in monitoring consumer dispute redressal bodies.

The correct answer is (B) Part XIV-A

Explanation:
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A titled 'Tribunals' to the Constitution of India.
• Part XIV-A consists of two key articles: Article 323A and Article 323B, introduced to reduce case backlog in civil courts and provide speedy adjudication.
• Article 323A empowers Parliament to establish Administrative Tribunals to resolve service disputes involving public servants of the Union and States.
• Article 323B empowers both Parliament and State Legislatures to set up specialized tribunals for subjects such as taxation, foreign exchange, land reforms, and industrial disputes.
• The insertion of Part XIV-A was based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee on constitutional reforms.

Information Booster:
• Under Article 323A, Parliament enacted the Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985, leading to the establishment of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
• In the landmark L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India case (1997), the Supreme Court held that tribunal decisions are subject to judicial review by High Courts under Articles 226/227.
• Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies that function according to the principles of Natural Justice rather than the strict procedural rules of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), 1908.
• Membership in tribunals typically comprises both Judicial Members (former judges) and Administrative Members (senior retired bureaucrats).
• Prominent statutory tribunals in India include the National Green Tribunal (NGT), Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT), and Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT).
• Article 323A tribunals can be established exclusively by Parliament, whereas Article 323B tribunals can be established by both Parliament and State Legislatures.

Additional Knowledge:
• Part IX-B (Option A): Added by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, Part IX-B contains constitutional provisions regulating Co-operative Societies (Articles 243ZH to 243ZT).
• Part XV (Option C): Part XV governs 'Elections' in India (Articles 324 to 329), establishing the Election Commission of India and rules governing electoral rolls and adult suffrage.
• Part XII (Option D): Part XII covers 'Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits' (Articles 264 to 300A), including the Finance Commission, GST Council, and the legal Right to Property under Article 300A.

The correct answer is (B) To provide opportunities for education to a child or ward between ages six and fourteen

Explanation:
• The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added the 11th Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) of the Indian Constitution.
• It makes it the fundamental duty of every citizen who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between 6 and 14 years of age.
• The same amendment made primary education a Fundamental Right by inserting Article 21A, ensuring free and compulsory education.
• Additionally, the 86th Amendment modified Article 45 in Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) to focus on early childhood care and education below 6 years.
• To enforce Article 21A, Parliament later passed the historic Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act in 2009.

Information Booster:
• Fundamental Duties were incorporated into Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the Constitution via the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 based on Swaran Singh Committee recommendations.
• Originally, 10 Fundamental Duties were added in 1976, and the 86th Amendment in 2002 increased the total count to 11.
• Fundamental Duties were inspired by the constitution of the former USSR (Soviet Union).
• Justice Verma Committee (1999) identified existing legal provisions for enforcing certain Fundamental Duties.
• Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be enforced directly through courts unless backed by specific parliamentary laws.

Additional Knowledge:
To protect and improve the natural environment (Option A):
• Listed under Article 51A(g); part of the original 10 duties added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976.

To develop scientific temper (Option C):
• Listed under Article 51A(h); obligates citizens to develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry; added in 1976.

To value and preserve the rich heritage... (Option D):
• Listed under Article 51A(f); emphasizes safeguarding India's composite cultural heritage; added in 1976.

The correct answer is (A) Article 38

Explanation:
• Article 38 of the Indian Constitution lays down the foundational objective of the State to promote the welfare of the people (Social Welfare).
• Clause (1) of Article 38 states that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting a social order in which justice—social, economic, and political—shall inform all institutions of national life.
• Clause (2), added by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, mandates that the State shall strive to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
• It acts as a primary constitutional directive for building a socialistic pattern of society and a welfare state in India.

Information Booster:
• Part IV of Constitution: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are enumerated under Articles 36 to 51.
• Source: Borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (1937), which had derived them from the Spanish Constitution.
• Legal Nature: DPSPs are non-justiciable (Article 37), meaning they are not enforceable by courts, but are fundamental in the governance of the country.
• Broad Categorization: Socialistic Principles (e.g., Art 38, 39, 41), Gandhian Principles (e.g., Art 40, 43, 47), and Liberal-Intellectual Principles (e.g., Art 44, 45, 48, 50, 51).

Additional Knowledge:
• Article 40 (Option B): Directs the State to organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers to function as units of self-government (Gandhian principle).
• Article 41 (Option C): Directs the State to secure the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement.
• Article 42 (Option D): Directs the State to make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.

The correct answer is (C) Judicial Activism

Explanation:
• Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is the premier tool and manifestation of Judicial Activism in the Indian legal system.
• Judicial Activism refers to a proactive role played by the judiciary in protecting the fundamental rights of citizens and promoting socio-economic justice.
• PIL relaxed the traditional rule of 'Locus Standi' (the requirement that only an aggrieved person can move the court), allowing any public-spirited individual or organization to file a petition on behalf of marginalized groups.
• Justices P.N. Bhagwati and V.R. Krishna Iyer were the pioneering architects who introduced and nurtured PIL in the Supreme Court during the late 1970s and early 1980s.
• Through PIL, courts have expanded the scope of Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) to include the right to clean environment, free legal aid, education, and speedy trial.

Information Booster:
• The concept of Judicial Activism originated and developed in the USA, where the term was first coined by Arthur Schlesinger Jr. in 1947 in a Fortune magazine article.
• The seminal case of SP Gupta v. Union of India (1981), also known as the Judges Transfer Case, firmly established the constitutional groundwork for Public Interest Litigation in India.
• Epistolary Jurisdiction is a unique dimension of PIL where courts treat letters, postcards, or newspaper reports sent by disadvantaged citizens as formal writ petitions.

Additional Knowledge:
• Judicial Absolutism (Option A): Refers to an unchecked exercise of arbitrary power by the judiciary, exceeding constitutional limits without adherence to the doctrine of separation of powers.
• Judicial Restraint (Option B): The judicial philosophy urging judges to limit the exercise of their own power and avoid striking down laws unless clearly unconstitutional, respecting legislative and executive domains.
• Judicial Passivism (Option D): An approach where courts remain purely passive, strictly following procedural formalities and declining to intervene even when structural or systemic injustices occur.

The correct answer is (A) Centre-State Relations


Explanation:
• The Government of India formally constituted the Punchhi Commission in April 2007 under the distinguished chairmanship of the former Chief Justice of India, Madan Mohan Punchhi. The commission officially submitted its exhaustive and detailed multi-volume report to the government in the year 2010.
• The primary and central mandate of this high-level commission was to thoroughly review the complex working of Centre-State relations, specifically analyzing what had changed in the political and economic landscape since the earlier Sarkaria Commission had submitted its findings in the 1980s.
• The Punchhi Commission deeply examined numerous contentious issues affecting federalism, including the often-debated role and arbitrary appointment of State Governors, the frequent misuse of emergency provisions under Article 355 and Article 356, the deployment of central paramilitary forces in states, the handling of prolonged communal violence, and the intricacies of economic and financial devolution.

Information Booster:
• Part XI of the Constitution of India (specifically encompassing Articles 245 to 263) is the primary section that elaborately deals with the complex legislative and administrative relations deeply binding the Union Government and the various State Governments.
• Historically, the very first major national commission dedicated exclusively to comprehensively reviewing Centre-State relations was the highly influential Sarkaria Commission, which was established earlier in 1983 under the leadership of Justice R.S. Sarkaria.
• Additionally, state governments have occasionally formed their own distinct committees to boldly assert their demand for greater state autonomy; a prominent historical example of this is the Rajamannar Committee, which was famously appointed by the Tamil Nadu state government in the year 1969 to critique central overreach.

Additional Knowledge:
• Fundamental Rights (Option B): Found in Part III (Articles 12-35) of the Constitution, these are the basic, justiciable human rights guaranteed to all citizens. They are primarily protected, expanded, and interpreted dynamically by the Supreme Court of India through various landmark judgments rather than standard governmental commissions.
• Electoral Reforms in India (Option C): To ensure free and fair democratic elections, various other renowned committees have historically been formed to suggest deep electoral reforms, most notably including the Tarkunde Committee, the Dinesh Goswami Committee, and the Indrajit Gupta Committee on state funding of elections.
• Directive Principles of State Policy (Option D): Contained in Part IV of the Constitution, these represent the non-justiciable moral and social ideals of the state. They were heavily influenced by the historic Sapru Committee Report of 1945 and the Irish Constitution, not the Punchhi Commission.

The correct answer is (B) Article 235

Explanation:
• Article 235 of the Constitution of India explicitly provides for the 'Control over subordinate courts', placing the administrative and judicial control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto directly under the High Court of the concerned State.
• Under Article 235, the administrative control vested in the High Court includes the posting, promotion, and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service of a State holding any post inferior to the post of District Judge.
• The provision reinforces the constitutional principle of judicial independence at the grassroots level by ensuring that the lower judiciary operates free from executive interference or political influence.
• Disciplinary jurisdiction, institutional supervision, transfer orders, and performance appraisal of judicial officers in subordinate courts are administered by the High Court under this constitutional mandate.

Information Booster:
• Chapter VI of Part VI of the Indian Constitution (Articles 233 to 237) is dedicated to Subordinate Courts.
• Article 233 deals with the appointment, posting, and promotion of District Judges, which are made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court.
• Article 234 governs the recruitment of persons other than District Judges to the State Judicial Service, conducted through the State Public Service Commission and the High Court.
• Article 236 provides key constitutional definitions, clarifying that the term 'District Judge' encompasses civil court judges, sessions judges, additional judges, and chief presidency magistrates.

Additional Knowledge:
• Article 225 (Option A): Deals with the jurisdiction and powers of existing High Courts, preserving their pre-constitutional powers and rulemaking authority.
• Article 255 (Option C): Specifies that requirements regarding prior recommendations or sanctions for legislation are matters of procedure only and cannot invalidate an Act once presidential or gubernatorial assent is granted.
• Article 245 (Option D): Defines the territorial extent of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislatures of States under legislative power distribution.

The correct answer is (A) Either a single-house or two-house systems

Explanation:
• Under Article 168 of the Constitution of India, state legislatures can be structured as either single-house (Unicameral) or two-house (Bicameral) systems.
• A Unicameral State Legislature consists of the Governor and the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
• A Bicameral State Legislature consists of the Governor, the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha), and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
• Article 169 lays down the constitutional mechanism allowing a State Assembly to pass a resolution by a special majority to request Parliament to create or abolish its Legislative Council.

Information Booster:
• Currently, six Indian States possess bicameral legislatures: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and Karnataka.
• The Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is a permanent body not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every two years, giving members a six-year term.
• Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Legislative Council possesses limited constitutional powers and cannot reject or indefinitely delay legislative bills passed by the Legislative Assembly.
• The maximum strength of a Legislative Council is constitutionally capped at one-third of the total strength of the State Legislative Assembly, with a minimum floor strength of 40 members.

Additional Knowledge:
• Option B (Only single-house): Incorrect, as six major Indian states currently operate with bicameral legislative systems.
• Option C (Only two-house): Incorrect, as most Indian states operate unicameral legislatures due to administrative considerations.
• Option D (Only Parliament can decide): Incorrect, because Parliament cannot act unilaterally without a enabling resolution passed by the state's Legislative Assembly under Article 169.