SSC CGL General Awareness Questions with Detailed Solutions

Get SSC CGL General Awareness Questions to prepare for your upcoming exam. Solve the most expected questions and detailed solutions that can be asked in the exam.

Important SSC CGL General Awareness Questions

Q1.

In ______ the Muslim League had moved a resolution demanding “Independent States” for Muslims in the north-western and eastern areas of the country.

  • A.

    1942

  • B.

    1943

  • C.

    1940

    ✓ Correct
  • D.

    1938
     

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

​The correct answer is (c) 1940.

Explanation:

  • Muslim League, under the leadership of Muhammad Ali Jinnah, passed the Lahore Resolution on March 23, 1940.
  • This resolution demanded the creation of "Independent States" for Muslims in the northwestern and eastern zones of India, which eventually led to the formation of Pakistan in 1947.
  • The Lahore Resolution is also known as the Pakistan Resolution.

Information Booster:

  • The Lahore Resolution was a pivotal moment in the history of the Indian subcontinent, marking the formal demand for a separate nation for Muslims.
  • The resolution was passed during the annual session of the All-India Muslim League held in Lahore, from March 22 to March 24, 1940.
  • The demand for "Independent States" (later interpreted as a single state, Pakistan) was based on the Two-Nation Theory, which argued that Hindus and Muslims were distinct nations with their customs, religion, and traditions.
  • The resolution laid the foundation for the eventual partition of India in 1947, resulting in the creation of Pakistan.
  • In 1933, Choudhry Rehmat Ali, a student at Cambridge University, proposed the concept of a separate Muslim nation named Pakistan.
  • He derived the name "Pakistan" or "Pak-stan" by combining the initials of various regions, including Punjab, Kashmir, Sindh, Balochistan, and the North-West Frontier Province, along with parts of Afghanistan.

Additional Knowledge:

  •  In 1942, the Quit India Movement was launched by the Indian National Congress, demanding an end to British rule in India. This was a significant event in the Indian independence movement but unrelated to the Muslim League's demand for a separate state.
Q2.

Who was executed as an accomplice to the murder of AMT Jackson?

  • A.

    Matangini Hazra

  • B.

    Khudiram Bose

  • C.

    Hemu Kalani

  • D.

    Krishnaji Gopal Karve

    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

The correct answer is D

Explaination:

  • Krishnaji Gopal Karve was one of the Indian revolutionaries executed by the British for his involvement in the assassination of A. M. T. Jackson, the Collector of Nashik, on December 21, 1909.
  • He, along with Anant Laxman Kanhere (the main assailant) and Vinayak Narayan Deshpande, were tried in the Nasik Conspiracy Case and hanged.

Information Booster:

  • The assassination of A. M. T. Jackson, an Indian Civil Service officer, is also known as the Nasik Conspiracy Case.

  • The primary reason for the assassination was Jackson's instrumental role in the prosecution and sentencing of Ganesh Damodar Savarkar (Babarao Savarkar), the elder brother of Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, for publishing seditious poems.

  • The three revolutionaries—Anant Kanhere, Krishnaji Karve, and Vinayak Deshpande—were members of the revolutionary organization Abhinav Bharat Society.

  • They were executed in Thane Jail on April 19, 1910.

Additional Knowledge:

  • Matangini Hazra (A): Was an Indian revolutionary who participated in the Quit India Movement. She was shot dead by the British Indian police in 1942 while leading a procession to take over a police station in Tamluk, Midnapore.

  • Khudiram Bose (B): Was a young Indian revolutionary who, along with Prafulla Chaki, attempted to assassinate British judge Douglas Kingsford in 1908 by throwing a bomb at his carriage. He was arrested and executed at the age of 18.

  • Hemu Kalani (C): Was an Indian revolutionary from Sindh who participated in the Quit India Movement. He was executed in 1943 by the British for trying to derail a train carrying British troops and weapons.

Q3.

​Identify the FALSE statement(s).

A. In the context of Green Revolution HYV stands for Hybrid Yielding Variety.

B. Fallowing is a practice of leaving land uncultivated for some time for it to regain its fertility.

  • A.

    ​Only B​

  • B.

    ​Only A​

    ✓ Correct
  • C.

    ​Neither A nor B​

  • D.

    Both A and B

Answer & Solution

Correct option is B

The FALSE statement is A. In the context of the Green Revolution, HYV stands for High Yielding Variety, not Hybrid Yielding Variety.

Fallowing is the practice of leaving land uncultivated for one or more seasons to regain its fertility: 

Fallowing is a farming technique that allows the soil to recover and store organic matter. It involves: 

  •  Retaining moisture 
  • Allowing soil microbes to grow 
  • Settling nutrients in the soil
  •   Decomposing dead plants, animals, and other organic matter .
SSC CGL General Awareness Questions
Q4.

In which of the following Articles of India is it mentioned that “it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom”?

  • A.

    51A (B)

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    51A (F)

  • C.

    51A (A)

  • D.

    51A (I)

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
• Article 51A(b) of the Indian Constitution states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• This article belongs to the list of Fundamental Duties under Part IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution.
• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 introduced Fundamental Duties.
• These duties serve as moral obligations to promote national unity and integrity.

Information Booster:
• There are 11 Fundamental Duties in total.
• They were inspired by the Constitution of the USSR.
• The idea was recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee (1976).
• The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added the 11th duty (education for children 6–14 years).
• Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable (cannot be enforced by courts).

Additional Knowledge:
51A(a): To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions.
51A(f): To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
51A(i): To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Q5.

In which year was Goa liberated from the occupation of Portuguese by the Indian forces?

  • A.

    1961

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    1959

  • C.

    1963

  • D.

    1956

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

The correct answer is (a) 1961
Explanation:

Goa was liberated from Portuguese rule on 19 December 1961 by the Indian Armed Forces under Operation Vijay.

• The military action ended 451 years of Portuguese colonial rule in Goa, Daman, and Diu.

• After liberation, Goa became a Union Territory, and later, in 1987, it was granted statehood as the 25th state of India.
Information Booster:

Operation Vijay (1961) was led by Major General K.P. Candeth of the Indian Army.

• The operation lasted 36 hours and involved the Army, Navy, and Air Force.

Goa Liberation Day is celebrated annually on 19 December.

Portuguese rule in Goa began in 1510 under Afonso de Albuquerque.

• Goa officially became a state on 30 May 1987, with Panaji as its capital.

Q6.

The battle which marks the loss of Vijayanagar empire to the confederation of the Deccan Sultanates in 1565 was fought at:

  • A.

    Talikota

    ✓ Correct
  • B.

    Bidar

  • C.

    Golconda

  • D.

    Mysore

Answer & Solution

Correct option is A

The correct answer is (a) Talikota
Explanation:

• The Battle of Talikota (1565) was fought between the Vijayanagar Empire and the combined forces of the Deccan Sultanates — Ahmadnagar, Bijapur, Golconda, and Bidar.

• The battle led to the decisive defeat of Vijayanagar under King Aliya Rama Raya, marking the downfall of the empire.

• It took place near the Krishna River, close to Talikota (present-day Karnataka).
Information Booster: 

• The battle occurred on 23 January 1565.

• The confederation of Sultanates used superior artillery and cavalry tactics.

• The capital city Hampi was later plundered and destroyed.

• Vijayanagar Empire was founded in 1336 by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I.

• After the battle, the empire gradually declined, though it survived in parts till the 17th century.
Additional Knowledge:

Bidar – One of the Deccan Sultanates’ capitals; later annexed by Bijapur.

Golconda – Capital of the Qutb Shahi dynasty, famous for its diamond mines.

Mysore – Kingdom later ruled by Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan, became prominent in the 18th century.

SSC CGL General Awareness Questions
Q7.
Which air base traditionally hosts the main Indian Air Force Day parade?
  • A.Jodhpur Air Force Station
  • B.Bagdogra Air Base
  • C.Hindon Air Force Station✓ Correct
  • D.Ambala Air Force Station

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C


The correct answer is (c) Hindon Air Force Station
Explanation:
· The Hindon Air Force Station, located near Ghaziabad (Delhi NCR), hosts the main parade and air show every year.
· It features flypasts and demonstrations by fighter jets, helicopters, and special forces.
Information Booster:
· Hindon is one of the largest air bases in Asia.
· It houses strategic aircraft like the C-17 Globemaster III and C-130J Super Hercules.
Additional Knowledge: (a) Jodhpur – Strategic air base in Rajasthan (b) Bagdogra – Located in West Bengal (d) Ambala – Base for Rafale fighters
Q8.

What is the primary aim of the ‘Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana’?

  • A.

    Providing free education to girls

  • B.

    Providing LPG connections to women

    ✓ Correct
  • C.

    Providing employment in rural areas

  • D.

    Providing mobile phones to rural households

Answer & Solution

Correct option is B

The correct answer is: (B) Providing LPG connections to women

Explanation:

  • Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched in 2016.
  • Aim: Provide free LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households.
  • Objective: Reduce health hazards from traditional cooking fuels (wood, coal, dung cakes).

Information Booster:

  • Implemented by Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
  • Beneficiaries identified through Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) 2011.
  • Provides financial support of ₹1600 per LPG connection.
  • PMUY 2.0 (launched in 2021) gives an additional 1 crore free LPG connections.
  • Promotes clean cooking fuel in line with SDG-7 (Affordable & Clean Energy).

Additional Knowledge:

  • (A) Free education to girls – Related to Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme.
  • (C) Employment in rural areas – Covered under MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act).
  • (D) Mobile phones to rural households – Linked with Digital India & BharatNet initiatives, not Ujjwala Yojana.​
Q9.

Indian scientists recently discovered a new eel species named Apterichtus kanniyakumari off the Tamil Nadu coast. It belongs to which family?

  • A.

    Anguillidae

  • B.

    Ophichthidae

    ✓ Correct
  • C.

    Clupeidae

  • D.

    Mugilidae

Answer & Solution

Correct option is B

The correct answer is: (b) Ophichthidae

Explanation:

  • Apterichtus kanniyakumari, a new species of finless snake eel, was discovered by the National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR) near Colachel, Kanniyakumari district, Tamil Nadu.

  • It belongs to the Ophichthidae family (snake eels), known for their elongated bodies and absence of pectoral fins.

  • The species was confirmed through mitochondrial CO1 gene analysis, distinguishing it from the closely related Apterichtus nanjilnaduensis.

Information Booster:

  • Family: Ophichthidae (snake eels).

  • Habitat: Sandy seabeds, depths up to 800 m.

  • Features: Golden-yellow body, pale white ventral head, three black blotches (behind eyes, at rictus, behind rictus origin).

  • Discovered: 2025, Tamil Nadu coast.

  • Special ability: Backward burrowing to hide in seabed and ambush prey.

Additional Knowledge:

  • The genus Apterichtus includes finless snake eels, adapted for burrowing and cryptic lifestyles.

  • India has been discovering new marine species, strengthening its coastal biodiversity record.

  • NBFGR (Lucknow) works under ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) for genetic resource conservation of fish.

  • Similar discoveries: Apterichtus nanjilnaduensis (earlier found in Tamil Nadu waters).

  • Tamil Nadu’s Kanniyakumari coast is ecologically rich, being at the confluence of the Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal, and Indian Ocean.

SSC CGL General Awareness Questions
Q10.
Deficiency of which of the following nutrients causes the disease called Beriberi?
  • A.Vitamin BK
  • B.Fat
  • C.Protein
  • D.Vitamin B-1
    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

The correct answer is: D. Vitamin B-1

Explanation:

  • Beriberi is a disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine).

  • Thiamine is essential for carbohydrate metabolism and proper functioning of the nervous system, muscles, and heart.

  • Its deficiency leads to symptoms like muscle weakness, weight loss, fatigue, nerve degeneration, and cardiac problems.

Information Booster:

  • Types of Beriberi:

    • Dry Beriberi → Nervous system damage (nerve inflammation, muscle wasting, paralysis).

    • Wet Beriberi → Cardiovascular problems (heart enlargement, edema, breathlessness).

  • Common in populations consuming polished rice with low thiamine content.

  • Rich sources of Vitamin B1: Whole grains, legumes, nuts, pork, yeast.

  • Discovered by Christiaan Eijkman, Nobel Prize in Medicine (1929).

  • Thiamine is a water-soluble vitamin, so it must be taken regularly in diet.

Additional Knowledge:

  • Vitamin BK → Not a standard vitamin, misleading option.

  • Fat deficiency → Leads to energy deficiency, not beriberi.

  • Protein deficiency → Leads to Kwashiorkor or Marasmus, not beriberi.

Q11.
The ruins of Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by an engineer and archaeologist named__________.
  • A.Francis Grant
  • B.Henry Hardinge
  • C.Joseph Noel Patton
  • D.Colonel Colin Mackenzie
    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

The correct answer is: (D) Colonel Colin Mackenzie

Explanation:
• The ruins of Hampi, capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, were rediscovered in 1800.
• This work was done by Colonel Colin Mackenzie, a Scottish army officer, engineer, and the first Surveyor General of India.
• He conducted extensive surveys and documented monuments, inscriptions, and drawings.

Information Booster:
• Hampi is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (1986).
• Located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in Karnataka.
• Flourished during the rule of Krishnadevaraya (1509–1529).
• Known for temples like Virupaksha and Vittala Temple (stone chariot).
• Vijayanagara Empire fell in 1565 (Battle of Talikota).

Q12.
Animals in which the body cavity is absent are called ________
  • A.Koel
  • B.Acoelomates
    ✓ Correct
  • C.Pseudocoelomates
  • D.Coelomates

Answer & Solution

Correct option is B

The correct answer is: B. Acoelomates

Explanation:

  • Animals without a body cavity (coelom) between the body wall and gut wall are called Acoelomates.
  • Their internal organs are embedded directly in the solid mesodermal tissue.
  • Example: Platyhelminthes (flatworms) such as Planaria, Liver fluke.

Information Booster:

  • Coelom → Fluid-filled body cavity lined by mesoderm.
  • Acoelomates → No coelom (e.g., Platyhelminthes).
  • Pseudocoelomates → Body cavity present but not completely lined by mesoderm (e.g., Ascaris, roundworms).
  • Coelomates (Eucoelomates) → True coelom, fully lined by mesoderm (e.g., Annelids, Arthropods, Molluscs, Chordates).
  • Presence/absence of coelom is an important basis of animal classification.

Additional Knowledge:

  • Koel: A bird, unrelated to body cavity classification.
  • Pseudocoelomates: Have a false coelom, partially lined by mesoderm.
  • Coelomates: Advanced animals with a true coelom, allowing complex organ development.
SSC CGL General Awareness Questions
Q13.
The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the council of ministers in a state CANNOT exceed _______ of the total number of members of the legislative assembly of that State.
  • A.1/20
  • B.3%
  • C.15%
    ✓ Correct
  • D.1/10

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

Correct Answer: (c) 15%

Explanation:
  • According to Article 164(1A) of the Indian Constitution, the total number of ministers in a state, including the Chief Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that state.

  • This limit ensures that the council of ministers does not become too large and is in proportion to the size of the legislative assembly.

Information Booster:
  • 15% Limit:

    • This applies to both the Council of Ministers at the state level and the Union Cabinet.

    • Helps ensure that the executive does not dominate the legislative body in terms of size.

Q14.

Under which Section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, was the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) established?

  • A.

    Section 21

  • B.

    Section 15

  • C.

    Section 12

  • D.

    Section 10

    ✓ Correct

Answer & Solution

Correct option is D

The correct answer is: (d) Section 10
Explanation:
The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) was established under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
The CCPA works under the aegis of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution and consists of a Chief Commissioner and other appointed members.

Regulates: Unfair trade practices, misleading ads, consumer rights violation.

Information Booster:
  • It was officially notified and came into force on 24 July 2020 to provide speedy and effective redressal of consumer grievances in India.​
  • Headquarters: New Delhi
  • Has an Investigation Wing, headed by a Director General, to carry out inquiries.
Additional Knowledge​​
  •  Section 21 – Refers to misleading advertisements and penalties.
  •  Section 15 – Deals with appeals in the consumer disputes redressal system.
  •  Section 12 – Refers to procedure for filing complaints in District Commissions.

Q15.

Which of the following Hydroelectric Power Projects is located on Narmada River?

  • A.

    Nagarjuna Sagar Project

  • B.

    Koyna Project

  • C.

    Sardar Sarovar Project

    ✓ Correct
  • D.

    Ranjit Sagar Project

Answer & Solution

Correct option is C

The correct option is: (c) Sardar Sarovar Project

Explanation:
  • TheSardar Sarovar Projectis one of India's largestmulti-purpose river valley projects, built on theNarmada RiverinGujarat.

  • It serves purposes such ashydroelectric power generation,irrigation, anddrinking water supply.

Information Booster:
  • Location: Gujarat, downstream of Narmada Dam.

  • Installed Capacity: Approx.1,450 MW.

  • Inter-state Benefit: Supplies water and power to Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.

Additional Information:
  • Nagarjuna Sagar: Built onKrishna River.

  • Koyna Project: Located onKoyna River(Maharashtra).

  • Ranjit Sagar: Located on theRavi River(Punjab).

SSC CGL General Awareness Questions