An elderly patient with osteoarthritis needs long-term analgesia but has high risk of peptic ulcer disease. Which drug is most appropriate?

Correct option is B

Celecoxib is a COX-2 selective inhibitor that provides pain relief in OA with minimal gastric toxicity compared to non-selective NSAIDs.
Explanation of options: (a) ✘ Diclofenac is non-selective → high GI risk. (b) ✔ Correct; celecoxib spares COX-1, safer for GI mucosa. (c) ✘ Aspirin has high ulcerogenic potential, not preferred. (d) ✘ Indomethacin is potent but causes severe gastric irritation.