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    A 28-year-old woman with history of repeated D&C presents with hypomenorrhea and secondary infertility. Which condition is most likely?
    Question

    A 28-year-old woman with history of repeated D&C presents with hypomenorrhea and secondary infertility. Which condition is most likely?

    A.

    Polycystic ovarian syndrome

    B.

    Asherman’s syndrome

    C.

    Premature ovarian failure

    D.

    Hypothalamic amenorrhea

    Correct option is B

    Asherman’s syndrome (intrauterine adhesions) occurs after uterine instrumentation. It causes hypomenorrhea due to decreased endometrial surface and leads to infertility.
    Explanation of options: (a) ✘ PCOS usually causes oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea with thick endometrium, not hypomenorrhea. (b) ✔ Correct; intrauterine adhesions after D&C cause scanty periods and infertility. (c) ✘ Premature ovarian failure → amenorrhea + high FSH, not hypomenorrhea. (d) ✘ Hypothalamic amenorrhea → no menstruation, not just scanty bleeding.

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