arrow
arrow
arrow
A 28-year-old woman with history of repeated D&C presents with hypomenorrhea and secondary infertility. Which condition is most likely?
Question

A 28-year-old woman with history of repeated D&C presents with hypomenorrhea and secondary infertility. Which condition is most likely?

A.

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

B.

Asherman’s syndrome

C.

Premature ovarian failure

D.

Hypothalamic amenorrhea

Correct option is B

Asherman’s syndrome (intrauterine adhesions) occurs after uterine instrumentation. It causes hypomenorrhea due to decreased endometrial surface and leads to infertility.
Explanation of options: (a) ✘ PCOS usually causes oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea with thick endometrium, not hypomenorrhea. (b) ✔ Correct; intrauterine adhesions after D&C cause scanty periods and infertility. (c) ✘ Premature ovarian failure → amenorrhea + high FSH, not hypomenorrhea. (d) ✘ Hypothalamic amenorrhea → no menstruation, not just scanty bleeding.

Free Tests

Free
Must Attempt

RRB Nursing Superintendent Full Mock Test : 01

languageIcon English
  • pdpQsnIcon100 Questions
  • pdpsheetsIcon100 Marks
  • timerIcon90 Mins
languageIcon English
Free
Must Attempt

Respiratory System Disorder

languageIcon English
  • pdpQsnIcon10 Questions
  • pdpsheetsIcon10 Marks
  • timerIcon9 Mins
languageIcon English
Free
Must Attempt

Disease Producing Organisms

languageIcon English
  • pdpQsnIcon10 Questions
  • pdpsheetsIcon10 Marks
  • timerIcon10 Mins
languageIcon English

Similar Questions

test-prime-package

Access ‘NORCET’ Mock Tests with

  • 60000+ Mocks and Previous Year Papers
  • Unlimited Re-Attempts
  • Personalised Report Card
  • 500% Refund on Final Selection
  • Largest Community
students-icon
353k+ students have already unlocked exclusive benefits with Test Prime!
Our Plans
Monthsup-arrow