Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of Weekly Current affairs.
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1. What was the amount of SBI’s highest-ever quarterly profit in Q1 2023-24?
a) ₹ 5,628 crore
b) ₹ 11,256 crore
c) ₹ 16,884 crore
d) ₹ 22,512 crore
Answer: c) ₹ 16,884 crore
2. How does SBI’s Q1 2023-24 profit compare to the profit in the year-ago period?
a) SBI’s Q1 profit was slightly higher
b) SBI’s Q1 profit was twice as high
c) SBI’s Q1 profit was nearly three times higher
d) SBI’s Q1 profit was five times higher
Answer: c) SBI’s Q1 profit was nearly three times higher
3. What is the significance of SBI’s Q1 2023-24 profit in comparison to previous quarters?
a) It is the lowest quarterly profit
b) It is the highest-ever quarterly profit
c) It is consistent with previous quarters
d) It is not relevant to compare with previous quarters
Answer: b) It is the highest-ever quarterly profit
4. Which fiscal year does Q1 2023-24 belong to?
a) 2020-21
b) 2021-22
c) 2022-23
d) 2023-24
Answer: d) 2023-24
5. What does “Q1” stand for in “Q1 2023-24”?
a) Quick One
b) Quarter One
c) Quantum 1
d) Query 1
Answer: b) Quarter One
6. How many times higher was the Q1 2023-24 profit compared to the profit in the year-ago period?
a) Two times
b) Three times
c) Four times
d) Five times
Answer: b) Three times
7. Which bank reported the highest-ever quarterly profit in Q1 2023-24?
a) HDFC Bank
b) ICICI Bank
c) SBI
d) Axis Bank
Answer: c) SBI
8. The Spike NLOS ATGMs are integrated with which fleet of helicopters in the Indian Air Force?
a) MiG-29
b) Su-30MKI
c) Mi-17V5
d) HAL Tejas
Answer: c) Mi-17V5
9. Who is the current Chairman of the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights?
a) Priyank Kanoongo
b) Rajesh Kumar
c) Manisha Kapoor
d) Sunita Sharma
Answer: a) Priyank Kanoongo
10. What factor contributed to SBI’s significant profit increase in Q1 2023-24?
a) Decrease in customer base
b) Increase in loan defaults
c) Reduction in operational efficiency
d) Resolution of bad loans
Answer: d) Resolution of bad loans
11. What does “₹ 16,884 crore” represent in the context of SBI’s financials?
a) Total revenue
b) Quarterly profit
c) Yearly expenditure
d) Customer deposits
Answer: b) Quarterly profit
12. How does SBI’s Q1 2023-24 profit compare to market expectations?
a) It exceeded market expectations
b) It met market expectations
c) It fell short of market expectations
d) It is not relevant to market expectations
Answer: a) It exceeded market expectations
13. In which quarter did SBI achieve its highest-ever profit in Q1 2023-24?
a) First quarter
b) Second quarter
c) Third quarter
d) Fourth quarter
Answer: a) First quarter
14. What is the main takeaway from SBI’s Q1 2023-24 financial results?
a) The bank incurred a loss
b) The bank faced a significant drop in profits
c) The bank reported record-breaking profits
d) The bank’s profits remained consistent
Answer: c) The bank reported record-breaking profits
15. Which year’s profit is being compared to Q1 2023-24 to determine the threefold increase?
a) 2020-21
b) 2021-22
c) 2022-23
d) 2023-24
Answer: c) 2022-23
16. What is the reason behind SBI’s significantly higher profit in Q1 2023-24?
a) Increased competition in the banking sector
b) Government subsidies
c) Resolution of non-performing assets (NPAs)
d) Decreased customer base
Answer: c) Resolution of non-performing assets (NPAs)
17. Which term refers to the profits that exceed market expectations?
a) Windfall profit
b) Supernormal profit
c) Excess profit
d) Surplus profit
Answer: b) Supernormal profit
18. How does SBI’s Q1 2023-24 profit contribute to the overall financial year’s performance?
a) It has no impact on the overall year’s performance
b) It sets a benchmark for other quarters
c) It guarantees a profitable year for SBI
d) It indicates a loss in the upcoming quarters
Answer: b) It sets a benchmark for other quarters
19. What does “crore” refer to in “₹ 16,884 crore”?
a) A unit of time
b) A unit of currency
c) A unit of weight
d) A unit of measurement
Answer: b) A unit of currency
20. Which regulatory body oversees the functioning of banks like SBI in India?
a) RBI (Reserve Bank of India)
b) SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
c) IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India)
d) CCI (Competition Commission of India)
Answer: a) RBI (Reserve Bank of India)
21. What does “SBI” stand for?
a) State Bank of Investment
b) Securities Bureau of India
c) State Bank of India
d) Systematic Banking Institution
Answer: c) State Bank of India
22. How did SBI manage to increase its profit threefold in Q1 2023-24?
a) By increasing interest rates
b) By reducing its customer base
c) By resolving bad loans
d) By cutting down on services
Answer: c) By resolving bad loans
23. What term is used to describe the difference between total revenue and total expenses for a specific period?
a) Profit
b) Loss
c) Capital
d) Investment
Answer: a) Profit
24. What is the significance of SBI’s record-breaking profit in Q1 2023-24 for its stakeholders?
a) It has no impact on stakeholders
b) It leads to decreased shareholder value
c) It enhances shareholder value and confidence
d) It causes stakeholders to lose confidence in the bank
Answer: c) It enhances shareholder value and confidence
25. What impact can SBI’s strong Q1 2023-24 performance have on its stock prices?
a) Decrease in stock prices
b) No impact on stock prices
c) Increase in stock prices
d) Fluctuation in stock prices
Answer: c) Increase in stock prices
26. How does a resolution of bad loans contribute to higher profits for a bank like SBI?
a) It doesn’t affect profits
b) It increases the loan interest rates
c) It reduces operational costs
d) It recovers previously unpaid money
Answer: d) It recovers previously unpaid money
27. What does “quarterly” refer to in “highest-ever quarterly profit”?
a) One-fourth of a year
b) Three months
c) Twelve weeks
d) Fifty-two days
Answer: b) Three months
28. What can a bank like SBI do with its higher quarterly profit?
a) Decrease customer services
b) Increase interest rates for loans
c) Invest in new technologies
d) Close down branches
Answer: c) Invest in new technologies
29. How does SBI’s Q1 2023-24 performance impact its reputation?
a) It doesn’t affect the bank’s reputation
b) It boosts the bank’s reputation
c) It tarnishes the bank’s reputation
d) It has no relation to the bank’s reputation
Answer: b) It boosts the bank’s reputation
30. Which financial statement would include information about SBI’s quarterly profit?
a) Balance sheet
b) Income statement
c) Cash flow statement
d) Statement of retained earnings
Answer: b) Income statement
31. What role does the banking sector play in a country’s economy?
a) It has no role in the economy
b) It only manages government funds
c) It facilitates financial transactions and investments
d) It solely focuses on international trade
Answer: c) It facilitates financial transactions and investments
32. Which sector witnessed the highest growth in SBI’s Q1 2023-24 performance?
a) Agriculture
b) Manufacturing
c) Services
d) IT sector
Answer: Not provided in the information.
33. What is the impact of a bank’s higher profits on its customers?
a) Higher interest rates for loans
b) Decreased customer services
c) Lower fees and charges
d) No impact on customers
Answer: c) Lower fees and charges
34. How does a bank’s profit performance impact its ability to lend?
a) It reduces the bank’s lending capacity
b) It has no effect on lending capacity
c) It increases the bank’s lending capacity
d) It only impacts international lending
Answer: c) It increases the bank’s lending capacity
35. What term is used to describe a company’s financial year divided into four periods?
a) Fiscal period
b) Business cycle
c) Accounting cycle
d) Financial quarter
Answer: d) Financial quarter
36. How can SBI ensure sustainable profits beyond a single quarter?
a) By cutting down on services
b) By relying solely on bad loan resolution
c) By diversifying revenue sources
d) By decreasing customer base
Answer: c) By diversifying revenue sources
37. How do higher profits benefit a bank’s employees?
a) Reduction in employee benefits
b) No impact on employees
c) Increase in employee benefits and bonuses
d) Decrease in employee salaries
Answer: c) Increase in employee benefits and bonuses
38. What is the primary source of income for a bank like SBI?
a) Borrowing from the government
b) Charging interest on loans and investments
c) Selling products at a profit
d) Donations from customers
Answer: b) Charging interest on loans and investments
39. How does the government benefit from SBI’s higher profits?
a) No impact on the government
b) Decreased tax revenue
c) Increased tax revenue and dividends
d) Government only benefits from losses
Answer: c) Increased tax revenue and dividends
40. What term describes the comparison between two financial periods or data points?
a) Analysis
b) Evaluation
c) Assessment
d) Comparison
Answer: a) Analysis
41. What does “nearly three times higher” indicate about SBI’s Q1 2023-24 profit?
a) It was slightly higher
b) It was significantly higher
c) It was moderately higher
d) It was not higher at all
Answer: b) It was significantly higher
42. What measure indicates the efficiency of a bank’s operations?
a) Loan default rate
b) Customer satisfaction rate
c) Operational efficiency ratio
d) Customer complaint rate
Answer: c) Operational efficiency ratio
43. What is the significance of SBI’s Q1 2023-24 profit for its shareholders?
a) It doesn’t affect shareholders
b) Decreased shareholder value
c) Increased shareholder value and dividends
d) Shareholders receive no benefits
Answer: c) Increased shareholder value and dividends
44. How can a bank’s higher profits impact its loan interest rates?
a) Decreased interest rates
b) No impact on interest rates
c) Increased interest rates
d) Fluctuating interest rates
Answer: a) Decreased interest rates
45. What is the role of a bank’s board of directors in relation to profit?
a) They have no role in profit management
b) They decide on shareholder dividends
c) They only focus on employee benefits
d) They oversee day-to-day operations
Answer: b) They decide on shareholder dividends
46. Which stakeholders would be most concerned with SBI’s profit performance?
a) Employees
b) Government
c) Customers
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
47. What financial metric measures a bank’s profitability as a percentage of its total assets?
a) Return on Equity (ROE)
b) Return on Investment (ROI)
c) Return on Assets (ROA)
d) Profit Margin
Answer: c) Return on Assets (ROA)
48. How can a bank ensure continued profitability over time?
a) By focusing solely on profits
b) By ignoring market trends
c) By adapting to changing economic conditions
d) By relying solely on government support
Answer: c) By adapting to changing economic conditions
49. What does a higher quarterly profit suggest about a bank’s financial health?
a) Financial health is deteriorating
b) No impact on financial health
c) Improved financial health and stability
d) Financial health is irrelevant to profit
Answer: c) Improved financial health and stability
50. What term refers to a company’s financial gain that exceeds its expenses?
a) Loss
b) Break-even
c) Profit
d) Debt
Answer: c) Profit
51. Why has the revenue department imposed an anti-dumping duty on Dispersion Unshifted Single-Mode Optical Fiber (SMOF) imports from certain countries?
a) To promote international trade
b) To support domestic industries
c) To increase revenue
d) To facilitate technology transfer
Answer: b) To support domestic industries
52. What is the primary reason for imposing anti-dumping duties on specific optical fiber imports?
a) To reduce taxes on imports
b) To encourage imports from specific countries
c) To address adverse impacts on the domestic industry
d) To promote fair competition among importers
Answer: c) To address adverse impacts on the domestic industry
53. Who recommended the imposition of anti-dumping duties on Dispersion Unshifted Single-Mode Optical Fiber (SMOF) imports?
a) Ministry of Finance
b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
c) Revenue Department
d) International Trade Organization
Answer: b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
54. Which countries are affected by the anti-dumping duties on Dispersion Unshifted Single-Mode Optical Fiber (SMOF) imports?
a) India, Japan, and Australia
b) China, South Korea, and Indonesia
c) USA, Canada, and Mexico
d) Germany, France, and Italy
Answer: b) China, South Korea, and Indonesia
55. What consequences did the domestic optical fiber industry face due to the surge of imports from certain nations?
a) Decreased competition
b) Increased profitability
c) Positive technological advancements
d) Detrimental effects
Answer: d) Detrimental effects
56. The Finance Ministry introduced anti-dumping duties to address adverse impacts on which industry?
a) Automobile
b) Textile
c) Pharmaceutical
d) Domestic optical fiber
Answer: d) Domestic optical fiber
57. What is the main objective of anti-dumping duties in this context?
a) To stop imports completely
b) To encourage imports from more countries
c) To regulate international trade
d) To counter the adverse effects of dumped imports
Answer: d) To counter the adverse effects of dumped imports
58. Which department is responsible for the imposition of anti-dumping duties?
a) Ministry of Trade
b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
c) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
d) Domestic Industry Regulatory Authority
Answer: b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
59. What is the specific type of optical fiber mentioned in the information?
a) Multimode Optical Fiber (MMOF)
b) Single-Mode Optical Fiber (SMOF)
c) Dispersion Shifted Optical Fiber (DSOF)
d) Coaxial Optical Fiber (COF)
Answer: b Single-Mode Optical Fiber (SMOF)
60. What is the reason behind the surge of inexpensive and substandard optical fiber imports?
a) Increased quality control
b) High production costs
c) Import restrictions
d) Dumping by certain nations
Answer: d) Dumping by certain nations
61. What is the purpose of imposing anti-dumping duties on imports?
a) To increase imports
b) To generate revenue for the government
c) To promote fair trade practices
d) To encourage exports
Answer: c) To promote fair trade practices
62. Which countries are affected by the imposition of anti-dumping duties?
a) China and India
b) South Korea and Japan
c) Russia and Brazil
d) China, South Korea, and Indonesia
Answer: d) China, South Korea, and Indonesia
63. What government ministry introduced the anti-dumping duties?
a) Ministry of Trade Remedies
b) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
c) Ministry of Finance
d) Ministry of Domestic Industry
Answer: c) Ministry of Finance
64. What is the specific type of optical fiber that is facing the issue of dumped imports?
a) Multimode Optical Fiber
b) Single-Mode Optical Fiber
c) Dispersion Unshifted Optical Fiber
d) Coaxial Optical Fiber
Answer: b) Single-Mode Optical Fiber
65. What is the goal of the anti-dumping duties imposed on optical fiber imports?
a) To encourage more imports from affected countries
b) To reduce overall import volumes
c) To counter the negative impact on the domestic industry
d) To support substandard imports
Answer: c) To counter the negative impact on the domestic industry
66. Why did the Finance Ministry impose anti-dumping duties on optical fiber imports?
a) To encourage cheaper imports
b) To benefit the foreign manufacturers
c) To address the negative effects of unfair trade practices
d) To promote international trade alliances
Answer: c) To address the negative effects of unfair trade practices
67. Who is responsible for evaluating trade remedies in this context?
a) Ministry of Finance
b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
c) International Trade Organization
d) United Nations Trade Council
Answer: b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
68. What is the primary purpose of the anti-dumping duties in this case?
a) To increase government revenue
b) To restrict all imports from specific countries
c) To protect the domestic industry from unfair trade practices
d) To facilitate trade agreements with affected nations
Answer: c) To protect the domestic industry from unfair trade practices
69. What is the consequence of the surge of inexpensive and substandard imports on the domestic optical fiber industry?
a) Increased profitability
b) Positive technological advancements
c) Detrimental effects
d) Reduced competition
Answer: c) Detrimental effects
70. What is the key reason for imposing anti-dumping duties on specific optical fiber imports?
a) To promote cheaper imports
b) To benefit the foreign manufacturers
c) To address the negative impact on the domestic industry
d) To increase government revenue
Answer: c) To address the negative impact on the domestic industry
71. What measure is taken to counteract the adverse effects of dumped imports in the given scenario?
a) Export subsidies
b) Import quotas
c) Anti-dumping duties
d) Bilateral trade agreements
Answer: c) Anti-dumping duties
72. What is the purpose of the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) in this context?
a) To promote exports
b) To facilitate imports
c) To monitor trade restrictions
d) To recommend trade remedies
Answer: d) To recommend trade remedies
73. What industry is adversely affected by the surge of dumped optical fiber imports?
a) Textile
b) Pharmaceutical
c) Automobile
d) Domestic optical fiber
Answer: d) Domestic optical fiber
74. What does “anti-dumping duty” refer to in this context?
a) A tax imposed on imported goods
b) A subsidy for foreign manufacturers
c) A restriction on export quotas
d) A payment made to importing countries
Answer: a) A tax imposed on imported goods
75. What is the primary goal of anti-dumping duties on imports?
a) To encourage unfair trade practices
b) To lower domestic industry production
c) To protect domestic industries from unfair competition
d) To promote monopolistic practices among importers
Answer: c) To protect domestic industries from unfair competition
76. What is the focus of the Ministry of Finance’s response to the challenges faced by the domestic optical fiber industry?
a) Increasing export subsidies
b) Implementing import quotas
c) Introducing anti-dumping duties
d) Encouraging more imports
Answer: c) Introducing anti-dumping duties
77. Who is responsible for the adverse impacts on the domestic optical fiber industry?
a) The Directorate General of Trade Remedies
b) The Ministry of Finance
c) The affected nations
d) The influx of substandard imports
Answer: d) The influx of substandard imports
78. What is the key objective of anti-dumping duties in relation to the domestic industry?
a) To increase foreign imports
b) To eliminate domestic competition
c) To counteract the negative impact of dumped imports
d) To encourage dumping practices
Answer: c) To counteract the negative impact of dumped imports
79. Which department oversees trade remedies and suggests necessary actions?
a) Ministry of Trade
b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
c) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
d) Domestic Industry Regulatory Authority
Answer: b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
80. What specific type of optical fiber is affected by the anti-dumping duties?
a) Multimode Optical Fiber
b) Dispersion Unshifted Single-Mode Optical Fiber
c) Dispersion Shifted Optical Fiber
d) Coaxial Optical Fiber
Answer: b) Dispersion Unshifted Single-Mode Optical Fiber
81. What is the rationale behind the introduction of anti-dumping duties?
a) To increase imports from affected countries
b) To generate more revenue for the government
c) To address negative impacts on the domestic industry
d) To promote international trade alliances
Answer: c) To address negative impacts on the domestic industry
82. Who is responsible for recommending the imposition of anti-dumping duties?
a) Ministry of Finance
b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
c) Revenue Department
d) International Trade Organization
Answer: b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
83. Which countries are the sources of dumped optical fiber imports?
a) India, Japan, and Australia
b) China, South Korea, and Indonesia
c) USA, Canada, and Mexico
d) Germany, France, and Italy
Answer: b) China, South Korea, and Indonesia
84. What challenges did the domestic optical fiber industry face due to the surge of imports from certain nations?
a) Increased competition
b) Reduced profitability
c) Positive technological advancements
d) Beneficial trade agreements
Answer: b) Reduced profitability
85. The Finance Ministry’s introduction of anti-dumping duties is aimed at addressing adverse impacts on which industry?
a) Automobile
b) Textile
c) Pharmaceutical
d) Domestic optical fiber
Answer: d) Domestic optical fiber
86. What is the primary objective of the anti-dumping duties in this context?
a) To stop imports completely
b) To encourage imports from additional countries
c) To regulate international trade
d) To counter adverse impacts from dumped imports
Answer: d) To counter adverse impacts from dumped imports
87. Which department is responsible for imposing anti-dumping duties?
a) Ministry of Trade
b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
c) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
d) Domestic Industry Regulatory Authority
Answer: b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
88. What specific type of optical fiber is mentioned in the information?
a) Multimode Optical Fiber (MMOF)
b) Single-Mode Optical Fiber (SMOF)
c) Dispersion Shifted Optical Fiber (DSOF)
d) Coaxial Optical Fiber (COF)
Answer: b) Single-Mode Optical Fiber (SMOF)
89. What caused the surge of inexpensive and substandard optical fiber imports?
a) Improved quality control measures
b) Low production costs
c) Reduced import restrictions
d) Export subsidies by certain nations
Answer: b) Low production costs
90. What is the role of anti-dumping duties in this scenario?
a) To halt imports entirely
b) To encourage imports from more countries
c) To regulate international trade
d) To counter the negative impact of dumped imports
Answer: d) To counter the negative impact of dumped imports
91. Why did the Finance Ministry introduce anti-dumping duties on specific optical fiber imports?
a) To encourage cheaper imports
b) To benefit foreign manufacturers
c) To address negative impacts on the domestic industry
d) To promote international trade alliances
Answer: c) To address negative impacts on the domestic industry
92. Who is responsible for evaluating and recommending trade remedies in this context?
a) Ministry of Finance
b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
c) International Trade Organization
d) United Nations Trade Council
Answer: b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
93. What is the main purpose of the anti-dumping duties in this case?
a) To increase government revenue
b) To restrict all imports from specific countries
c) To protect the domestic industry from unfair trade practices
d) To facilitate trade agreements with affected nations
Answer: c) To protect the domestic industry from unfair trade practices
94. What are the consequences of the surge of inexpensive and substandard imports on the domestic optical fiber industry?
a) Increased profitability
b) Positive technological advancements
c) Detrimental effects
d) Reduced competition
Answer: c) Detrimental effects
95. What is the primary reason for imposing anti-dumping duties on specific optical fiber imports?
a) To promote cheaper imports
b) To benefit foreign manufacturers
c) To address negative impacts on the domestic industry
d) To increase government revenue
Answer: c) To address negative impacts on the domestic industry
96. What government ministry introduced the anti-dumping duties?
a) Ministry of Trade Remedies
b) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
c) Ministry of Finance
d) Ministry of Domestic Industry
Answer: c) Ministry of Finance
97. What is the focus of the Ministry of Finance’s response to the challenges faced by the domestic optical fiber industry?
a) Increasing export subsidies
b) Implementing import quotas
c) Introducing anti-dumping duties
d) Encouraging more imports
Answer: c) Introducing anti-dumping duties
98. Who is responsible for the adverse impacts on the domestic optical fiber industry?
a) The Directorate General of Trade Remedies
b) The Ministry of Finance
c) The affected nations
d) The influx of substandard imports
Answer: d) The influx of substandard imports
99. What is the key objective of anti-dumping duties in relation to the domestic industry?
a) To increase foreign imports
b) To eliminate domestic competition
c) To counteract the negative impact of dumped imports
d) To encourage dumping practices
Answer: c) To counteract the negative impact of dumped imports
100. Which department oversees trade remedies and suggests necessary actions?
a) Ministry of Trade
b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
c) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
d) Domestic Industry Regulatory Authority
Answer: b) Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR)
101. What is the name of the new COVID-19 variant rapidly spreading in the UK?
a) Omega
b) Delta
c) Eris
d) Alpha
Answer: c) Eris
102. What proportion of COVID-19 cases in the UK is now linked to the Eris variant?
a) One out of every two cases
b) One out of every three cases
c) One out of every five cases
d) One out of every seven cases
Answer: d) One out of every seven cases
103. In which country did the Eris variant originate?
a) United Kingdom
b) United States
c) China
d) South Africa
Answer: a) United Kingdom
104. Which lineage of COVID-19 is the Eris variant believed to have originated from?
a) Delta
b) Beta
c) Omicron
d) Gamma
Answer: c) Omicron
105. Apart from the UK, where else has the Eris variant spread?
a) Africa only
b) Europe, Asia, and North America
c) South America only
d) Australia and New Zealand
Answer: b) Europe, Asia, and North America
106. What is the primary focus of this set of MCQs?
a) Delta variant
b) COVID-19 origins
c) Eris variant
d) Vaccination procedures
Answer: c) Eris variant
107. How is the Eris variant different from its parent Omicron lineage?
a) It is less transmissible
b) It has fewer symptoms
c) It spreads more rapidly
d) It primarily affects the elderly
Answer: c) It spreads more rapidly
108. What continent is NOT mentioned in the spread of the Eris variant?
a) Europe
b) Asia
c) Africa
d) Antarctica
Answer: d) Antarctica
109. Which of the following is true about the Eris variant’s global impact?
a) It is limited to the UK only
b) It affects only specific age groups
c) It has impacted regions beyond the UK
d) It only affects vaccinated individuals
Answer: c) It has impacted regions beyond the UK
110. What is the relationship between the Eris and Omicron variants?
a) Eris evolved from Omicron
b) Omicron evolved from Eris
c) They are unrelated variants
d) Eris is a subvariant of Omicron
Answer: a) Eris evolved from Omicron
111. How is the Eris variant’s spread described in the given information?
a) Localized to the UK
b) Limited to Europe
c) Global impact
d) Limited to specific age groups
Answer: c) Global impact
112. What part of the world is NOT mentioned in the spread of the Eris variant?
a) Europe
b) Asia
c) North America
d) South America
Answer: d) South America
113. What is the prevalence of Eris variant cases among all COVID-19 cases in the UK?
a) 1/2
b) 1/3
c) 1/5
d) 1/7
Answer: d) 1/7
114. Which variant does Eris trace back to?
a) Delta
b) Beta
c) Omicron
d) Gamma
Answer: c) Omicron
115. In which continents has the Eris variant been detected?
a) Africa and Europe
b) Europe and Australia
c) Europe, Asia, and North America
d) Asia and South America
Answer: c) Europe, Asia, and North America
116. Where did the Eris variant first emerge?
a) United Kingdom
b) United States
c) China
d) South Africa
Answer: a) United Kingdom
117. What is the focus of the information provided in these MCQs?
a) Delta variant
b) COVID-19 origins
c) Eris variant and its spread
d) Vaccination procedures
Answer: c) Eris variant and its spread
118. How does the Eris variant differ from the Omicron lineage?
a) Less transmissible
b) Fewer symptoms
c) More rapid spread
d) Affects primarily the elderly
Answer: c) More rapid spread
119. Which continent is NOT mentioned as being impacted by the Eris variant?
a) Europe
b) Asia
c) Africa
d) Antarctica
Answer: d) Antarctica
120. What is true about the global impact of the Eris variant?
a) Limited to the UK
b) Affects specific age groups
c) Has a global impact
d) Only affects vaccinated individuals
Answer: c) Has a global impact
121. What is the relationship between Eris and Omicron?
a) Eris is an evolution of Omicron
b) Omicron is an evolution of Eris
c) They are unrelated
d) Eris is a subvariant of Omicron
Answer: a) Eris is an evolution of Omicron
122. How is the Eris variant’s spread characterized in the given information?
a) Localized to the UK
b) Limited to Europe
c) Global impact
d) Limited to specific age groups
Answer: c) Global impact
123. Which part of the world is NOT mentioned in relation to the spread of the Eris variant?
a) Europe
b) Asia
c) North America
d) South America
Answer: d) South America
124. What proportion of COVID-19 cases in the UK is attributed to the Eris variant?
a) 1/2
b) 1/3
c) 1/5
d) 1/7
Answer: d) 1/7
125. Which variant is the Eris variant believed to have evolved from?
a) Delta
b) Beta
c) Omicron
d) Gamma
Answer: c) Omicron
126. In addition to the UK, where else has the Eris variant spread?
a) Africa only
b) Europe, Asia, and North America
c) South America only
d) Australia and New Zealand
Answer: b) Europe, Asia, and North America
127. Where did the Eris variant first appear?
a) United Kingdom
b) United States
c) China
d) South Africa
Answer: a) United Kingdom
128. What is the primary focus of these MCQs?
a) Delta variant
b) COVID-19 origins
c) Eris variant
d) Vaccination procedures
Answer: c) Eris variant
129. How does the Eris variant compare to its parent Omicron lineage?
a) Less transmissible
b) Fewer symptoms
c) More rapid spread
d) Mainly affects the elderly
Answer: c) More rapid spread
130. What continent is NOT mentioned in the spread of the Eris variant?
a) Europe
b) Asia
c) Africa
d) Antarctica
Answer: d) Antarctica
131. What is true regarding the global impact of the Eris variant?
a) Limited to the UK
b) Affects specific age groups
c) Has a global impact
d) Only affects vaccinated individuals
Answer: c) Has a global impact
132. What is the evolutionary connection between Eris and Omicron?
a) Eris emerged before Omicron
b) Omicron is an ancestor of Eris
c) They are unrelated variants
d) Eris is a subvariant of Omicron
Answer: d) Eris is a subvariant of Omicron
133. How is the Eris variant’s spread described in the given information?
a) Localized to the UK
b) Limited to Europe
c) Global impact
d) Limited to specific age groups
Answer: c) Global impact
134. Which part of the world is NOT mentioned in connection to the spread of the Eris variant?
a) Europe
b) Asia
c) North America
d) South America
Answer: d) South America
135. What proportion of COVID-19 cases in the UK is attributed to the Eris variant?
a) 1/2
b) 1/3
c) 1/5
d) 1/7
Answer: d) 1/7
136. From which COVID-19 lineage did the Eris variant likely originate?
a) Delta
b) Beta
c) Omicron
d) Gamma
Answer: c) Omicron
137. Besides the UK, where else has the Eris variant spread?
a) Africa only
b) Europe, Asia, and North America
c) South America only
d) Australia and New Zealand
Answer: b) Europe, Asia, and North America
138. Where did the Eris variant first come to attention?
a) United Kingdom
b) United States
c) China
d) South Africa
Answer: a) United Kingdom
139. What is the main focus of this set of MCQs?
a) Delta variant
b) COVID-19 origins
c) Eris variant
d) Vaccination procedures
Answer: c) Eris variant
140. How does the Eris variant differ from its parent Omicron lineage?
a) Less transmissible
b) Fewer symptoms
c) More rapid spread
d) Mainly affects the elderly
Answer: c) More rapid spread
141. What continent is NOT mentioned in relation to the spread of the Eris variant?
a) Europe
b) Asia
c) Africa
d) Antarctica
Answer: d) Antarctica
142. What is accurate about the global impact of the Eris variant?
a) Limited to the UK
b) Affects specific age groups
c) Has a global impact
d) Only affects vaccinated individuals
Answer: c) Has a global impact
143. What is the evolutionary relationship between Eris and Omicron?
a) Eris evolved from Omicron
b) Omicron evolved from Eris
c) They are unrelated
d) Eris is a subvariant of Omicron
Answer: a) Eris evolved from Omicron
144. How is the spread of the Eris variant described in the given information?
a) Localized to the UK
b) Limited to Europe
c) Global impact
d) Limited to specific age groups
Answer: c) Global impact
145. Which part of the world is NOT mentioned in relation to the spread of the Eris variant?
a) Europe
b) Asia
c) North America
d) South America
Answer: d) South America
146. What proportion of COVID-19 cases in the UK is attributed to the Eris variant?
a) 1/2
b) 1/3
c) 1/5
d) 1/7
Answer: d) 1/7
147. Which COVID-19 lineage is believed to be the source of the Eris variant?
a) Delta
b) Beta
c) Omicron
d) Gamma
Answer: c) Omicron
148. In addition to the UK, where else has the Eris variant spread?
a) Africa only
b) Europe, Asia, and North America
c) South America only
d) Australia and New Zealand
Answer: b) Europe, Asia, and North America
149. Where did the Eris variant first emerge?
a) United Kingdom
b) United States
c) China
d) South Africa
Answer: a) United Kingdom
150. What is the primary topic of focus in these MCQs?
a) Delta variant
b) COVID-19 origins
c) Eris variant
d) Vaccination procedures
Answer: c) Eris variant
151. Who has been named Tesla’s new Chief Financial Officer?
a) Zachary Kirkhorn
b) Vaibhav Taneja
c) Elon Musk
d) Steve Jobs
Answer: b) Vaibhav Taneja
152. Why did the previous CFO, Zachary Kirkhorn, step down?
a) Retirement
b) To start his own company
c) Decision to step down
d) Pursue higher education
Answer: c) Decision to step down
153. What is Vaibhav Taneja’s current role besides being named Tesla’s CFO?
a) Chief Operating Officer (COO)
b) Chief Accounting Officer (CAO)
c) Chief Technical Officer (CTO)
d) Chief Marketing Officer (CMO)
Answer: b) Chief Accounting Officer (CAO)
154. When did Vaibhav Taneja’s journey with Tesla begin?
a) 2005
b) 2010
c) 2017
d) 2020
Answer: c) 2017
155. Where did Vaibhav Taneja do his Bachelor of Commerce degree?
a) Harvard University
b) Stanford University
c) Delhi University
d) Oxford University
Answer: c) Delhi University
156. Which company did Vaibhav Taneja switch from to join Tesla?
a) SpaceX
b) SolarCity
c) General Motors
d) Ford
Answer: b) SolarCity
157. Which country is Tesla based in?
a) China
b) Germany
c) United Kingdom
d) United States
Answer: d) United States
158. What type of vehicles does Tesla primarily manufacture?
a) Petrol-powered cars
b) Diesel-powered cars
c) Electric cars
d) Hybrid cars
Answer: c) Electric cars
159. Which term is often used for Tesla’s Chief Financial Officer?
a) Master of Coin
b) Chief Accounting Officer
c) Finance Guru
d) Money Maestro
Answer: a) Master of Coin
160. What was Zachary Kirkhorn’s role before he stepped down as CFO?
a) Chief Technical Officer (CTO)
b) Chief Operating Officer (COO)
c) Master of Coin
d) Chief Financial Officer (CFO)
Answer: d) Chief Financial Officer (CFO)
161. When is the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People observed?
a) July 9
b) August 9
c) September 9
d) October 9
Answer: b) August 9
162. What is the alternate name for the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People?
a) Global Diversity Day
b) Native Culture Day
c) World Tribal Day
d) Indigenous Heritage Day
Answer: c) World Tribal Day
163. Why is the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People celebrated?
a) To promote international trade
b) To recognize Indigenous youth achievements
c) To promote and protect Indigenous rights
d) To celebrate religious diversity
Answer: c) To promote and protect Indigenous rights
164. What is the theme for this year’s International Day of the World’s Indigenous People?
a) Protecting Natural Resources
b) Indigenous Youth as Agents of Change for Self-determination
c) Global Environmental Awareness
d) Celebrating Cultural Diversity
Answer: b) Indigenous Youth as Agents of Change for Self-determination
165. When did the United Nations General Assembly establish the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People?
a) December 1990
b) August 9, 1994
c) June 21, 2000
d) December 1994
Answer: d) December 1994
166. What is the main focus of the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People?
a) Promoting economic development
b) Celebrating religious practices
c) Protecting the environment
d) Promoting and protecting Indigenous rights
Answer: d) Promoting and protecting Indigenous rights
167. What is the role of Indigenous youth in this year’s theme?
a) Environmental protection
b) Self-determination and change agents
c) Traditional art preservation
d) Political activism
Answer: b) Self-determination and change agents
168. What kind of contributions do Indigenous people make to global issues?
a) Scientific research
b) Cultural preservation
c) Technological innovations
d) Economic development
Answer: b) Cultural preservation
169. Which organ of the United Nations is responsible for promoting Indigenous rights?
a) United Nations Security Council
b) United Nations Human Rights Council
c) United Nations Economic and Social Council
d) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
Answer: b) United Nations Human Rights Council
170. What is the significance of August 9th in relation to Indigenous people?
a) It marks a historic treaty signing
b) It commemorates a major victory in a war
c) It symbolizes Indigenous unity
d) It is the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People
Answer: d) It is the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People
171. Which aspect of Indigenous rights is highlighted through the theme “Self-determination”?
a) Access to education
b) Economic development
c) Political autonomy
d) Healthcare provisions
Answer: c) Political autonomy
172. What is the primary goal of celebrating the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People?
a) To encourage cultural assimilation
b) To honor famous Indigenous leaders
c) To promote sustainable development
d) To protect and promote Indigenous rights
Answer: d) To protect and promote Indigenous rights
173. What does the term “Indigenous” refer to?
a) People living in urban areas
b) Native wildlife species
c) Original inhabitants of a region
d) Nomadic communities
Answer: c) Original inhabitants of a region
174. What is the role of Indigenous Youth as “Agents of Change”?
a) Traditional storytelling
b) Preserving ancient rituals
c) Bringing positive transformation
d) Advocating for industrialization
Answer: c) Bringing positive transformation
175. How does the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People contribute to environmental protection?
a) By advocating for pollution
b) By promoting sustainable practices
c) By encouraging deforestation
d) By endorsing resource depletion
Answer: b) By promoting sustainable practices
176. Which resolution established the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People?
a) Resolution 49/214
b) Resolution 61/295
c) Resolution 36/102
d) Resolution 70/1
Answer: a) Resolution 49/214
177. What is the focus of Indigenous Youth as “Agents of Change”?
a) Economic expansion
b) Self-determination
c) Technological advancement
d) Environmental exploitation
Answer: b) Self-determination
178. What is the main message of the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People?
a) Assimilation into mainstream society
b) Embrace of a single global culture
c) Preservation of diverse Indigenous cultures
d) Suppression of traditional languages
Answer: c) Preservation of diverse Indigenous cultures
179. What is the connection between Indigenous rights and environmental protection?
a) Indigenous people oppose environmental conservation
b) Indigenous territories often have unique ecosystems
c) Indigenous communities promote urbanization
d) Indigenous culture has no relation to nature
Answer: b) Indigenous territories often have unique ecosystems
180. What does “Self-determination” mean in the context of Indigenous rights?
a) Preservation of traditional clothing
b) Control over their own affairs
c) Isolation from the rest of the world
d) Adoption of foreign languages
Answer: b) Control over their own affairs
181. Which international body played a key role in establishing the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People?
a) World Health Organization (WHO)
b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
c) United Nations General Assembly
d) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
Answer: c) United Nations General Assembly
182. In which year did the United Nations first recognize the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People?
a) 1985
b) 1994
c) 2000
d) 2010
Answer: b) 1994
183. How do Indigenous people contribute to environmental protection?
a) By exploiting natural resources
b) By advocating for industrialization
c) By preserving traditional ecological knowledge
d) By promoting deforestation
Answer: c) By preserving traditional ecological knowledge
184. What is the significance of recognizing Indigenous Youth as “Agents of Change”?
a) They are the future leaders of the United Nations
b) They bring fresh perspectives and drive positive transformations
c) They are exclusively responsible for economic growth
d) They support cultural assimilation efforts
Answer: b) They bring fresh perspectives and drive positive transformations
185. Which international document outlines the rights of Indigenous people?
a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
b) Kyoto Protocol
c) Treaty of Versailles
d) Indigenous Rights Charter
Answer: a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
186. How does the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People contribute to cultural diversity?
a) By promoting a single global culture
b) By encouraging assimilation
c) By celebrating and preserving Indigenous cultures
d) By discouraging the use of native languages
Answer: c) By celebrating and preserving Indigenous cultures
187. What is the significance of Indigenous people’s contributions to environmental protection?
a) It helps in conserving biodiversity
b) It accelerates climate change
c) It encourages excessive resource consumption
d) It promotes urbanization
Answer: a) It helps in conserving biodiversity
188. Which international body monitors and promotes human rights, including Indigenous rights?
a) United Nations Security Council
b) World Trade Organization (WTO)
c) International Criminal Court (ICC)
d) United Nations Human Rights Council
Answer: d) United Nations Human Rights Council
189. What is the role of Indigenous Youth in promoting self-determination?
a) They advocate for global governance
b) They support colonization efforts
c) They demand political autonomy for Indigenous communities
d) They oppose Indigenous cultural practices
Answer: c) They demand political autonomy for Indigenous communities
190. How does the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People contribute to promoting peace?
a) By promoting armed conflict
b) By emphasizing cultural divisions
c) By advocating for dialogue and understanding
d) By encouraging economic competition
Answer: c) By advocating for dialogue and understanding
191. What is the primary aim of celebrating Indigenous Youth as “Agents of Change”?
a) To encourage them to migrate to urban areas
b) To promote assimilation
c) To highlight their potential to bring positive change
d) To discourage them from participating in global issues
Answer: c) To highlight their potential to bring positive change
192. What is the connection between Indigenous rights and environmental protection?
a) Indigenous people advocate for environmental destruction
b) Indigenous communities are not concerned about the environment
c) Indigenous territories often house unique ecosystems
d) Indigenous people are not allowed to interact with nature
Answer: c) Indigenous territories often house unique ecosystems
193. How does the theme “Indigenous Youth as Agents of Change” relate to self-determination?
a) It emphasizes conformity to societal norms
b) It promotes cultural assimilation
c) It highlights the role of youth in shaping their own futures
d) It discourages participation in political matters
Answer: c) It highlights the role of youth in shaping their own futures
194. How can Indigenous Youth be agents of change for self-determination?
a) By following traditional customs without change
b) By adopting foreign cultures
c) By advocating for political autonomy and positive transformations
d) By refraining from participating in global issues
Answer: c) By advocating for political autonomy and positive transformations
195. How does the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People contribute to social justice?
a) By promoting discrimination
b) By advocating for inequality
c) By highlighting the rights and contributions of Indigenous people
d) By supporting cultural assimilation
Answer: c) By highlighting the rights and contributions of Indigenous people
196. What is the purpose of celebrating Indigenous Youth on this day?
a) To criticize their role in society
b) To recognize their potential as future leaders
c) To discourage their involvement in community affairs
d) To limit their interactions with the global community
Answer: b) To recognize their potential as future leaders
197. How does the theme “Agents of Change” relate to Indigenous Youth?
a) It signifies their resistance to change
b) It highlights their role in perpetuating tradition
c) It acknowledges their potential to drive positive transformations
d) It implies they have no influence in society
Answer: c) It acknowledges their potential to drive positive transformations
198. What does “Self-determination” mean for Indigenous communities?
a) Cultural assimilation
b) Political autonomy and decision-making power
c) Economic dependency
d) Environmental degradation
Answer: b) Political autonomy and decision-making power
199. How does the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People contribute to education?
a) By promoting illiteracy
b) By advocating for standardized education systems
c) By supporting the preservation of Indigenous languages and knowledge
d) By discouraging youth from pursuing higher education
Answer: c) By supporting the preservation of Indigenous languages and knowledge
200. Which entity is responsible for implementing and monitoring Indigenous rights at the international level?
a) United Nations Security Council
b) International Court of Justice
c) United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues
d) World Health Organization (WHO)
Answer: c) United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues
201. How does the theme “Indigenous Youth as Agents of Change” align with the concept of self-determination?
a) It opposes self-determination
b) It implies that youth should not be involved in change
c) It suggests that youth can influence the direction of their communities
d) It supports assimilation into mainstream society
Answer: c) It suggests that youth can influence the direction of their communities
202. What is the role of Indigenous Youth as “Agents of Change” in relation to cultural preservation?
a) They discourage traditional practices
b) They adapt foreign cultures
c) They advocate for the preservation of their heritage
d) They discourage the use of native languages
Answer: c) They advocate for the preservation of their heritage
203. How does the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People contribute to promoting equality?
a) By advocating for discrimination
b) By highlighting the uniqueness of Indigenous communities
c) By emphasizing cultural divisions
d) By recognizing the rights and contributions of Indigenous people
Answer: d) By recognizing the rights and contributions of Indigenous people
204. What is the impact of Indigenous Youth as “Agents of Change” on their communities?
a) It has no impact on community dynamics
b) It brings about positive transformations and promotes self-determination
c) It encourages assimilation and conformity
d) It isolates communities from global issues
Answer: b) It brings about positive transformations and promotes self-determination
205. How can Indigenous Youth contribute to environmental protection as “Agents of Change”?
a) By promoting deforestation
b) By advocating for pollution
c) By integrating traditional ecological knowledge into modern conservation efforts
d) By supporting resource depletion
Answer: c) By integrating traditional ecological knowledge into modern conservation efforts
206. How does the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People promote dialogue and understanding?
a) By encouraging conflicts
b) By emphasizing cultural divisions
c) By providing a platform for sharing diverse perspectives
d) By promoting isolation
Answer: c) By providing a platform for sharing diverse perspectives
207. Which factor distinguishes Indigenous Youth as “Agents of Change” from other demographics?
a) Their preference for traditional lifestyles
b) Their isolation from global issues
c) Their potential to drive positive transformations
d) Their opposition to cultural preservation
Answer: c) Their potential to drive positive transformations
208. How does the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People contribute to global cooperation?
a) By encouraging competition
b) By promoting cultural isolation
c) By fostering collaboration and understanding among diverse communities
d) By supporting cultural assimilation
Answer: c) By fostering collaboration and understanding among diverse communities
209. How can Indigenous Youth promote self-determination as “Agents of Change”?
a) By opposing political autonomy
b) By isolating themselves from community affairs
c) By advocating for the preservation of traditional leadership
d) By advocating for political autonomy and social progress
Answer: d) By advocating for political autonomy and social progress
210. What is the significance of recognizing Indigenous achievements on this day?
a) It highlights their failures
b) It emphasizes their dependence on external support
c) It acknowledges their positive contributions to global issues
d) It discourages them from participating in cultural activities
Answer: c) It acknowledges their positive contributions to global issues
211. What is the name of the domestically developed alternative to the Microsoft operating system adopted by India’s Ministry of Defence?
a) Windows Defender
b) Maya
c) CyberGuard
d) SecureOS
Answer: b) Maya
212. How long did it take to develop the Maya operating system?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 6 months
d) 3 months
Answer: c) 6 months
213. Who developed the Maya Operating System?
a) Microsoft Corporation
b) Private Tech Firm
c) Government Organization
d) International Consortium
Answer: c) Government Organization
214. What does the Maya Operating System stand for?
a) Military Access Yielding Alternative
b) Ministry’s Advanced Yielding Alternative
c) Made-in-India Advanced Operating System
d) Maximum Access Yielding Application
Answer: c) Made-in-India Advanced Operating System
215. Why did India’s Ministry of Defence opt for the Maya operating system?
a) To reduce costs
b) To improve gaming performance
c) To elevate cybersecurity measures
d) To promote international collaboration
Answer: c) To elevate cybersecurity measures
216. What is the primary goal of adopting the Maya operating system?
a) Enhance local innovation
b) Boost gaming performance
c) Improve user interface
d) Strengthen cybersecurity
Answer: d) Strengthen cybersecurity
217. What is the strategic advantage of using the Maya operating system?
a) Faster internet browsing
b) Better graphic design capabilities
c) Improved compatibility with third-party software
d) Elevated national cybersecurity
Answer: d) Elevated national cybersecurity
218. What is the significance of the Maya Operating System’s development timeframe?
a) It highlights a rapid development trend in the tech industry.
b) It showcases international collaboration efforts.
c) It demonstrates the government’s budget allocation for technology.
d) It underscores local innovation’s potential within a short span.
Answer: a) It highlights a rapid development trend in the tech industry.
219. What sector benefits most from the adoption of the Maya operating system?
a) Agriculture
b) Healthcare
c) Defense and Security
d) Entertainment
Answer: c) Defense and Security
220. Which potential threats does the Maya operating system aim to address?
a) Escalating cyber threats
b) Environmental challenges
c) Economic inflation
d) Political instability
Answer: a) Escalating cyber threats
221. What does the ‘Maya’ operating system’s development represent?
a) An international software collaboration
b) A breakthrough in artificial intelligence
c) Local innovation and dedication
d) A solution for climate change
Answer: c) Local innovation and dedication
222. How is the Maya operating system expected to impact India’s cybersecurity?
a) It will have no significant impact.
b) It will weaken cybersecurity measures.
c) It will elevate cybersecurity measures.
d) It will focus on offensive cyber operations.
Answer: c) It will elevate cybersecurity measures.
223. What role does the Ministry of Defence play in adopting the Maya operating system?
a) Economic funding
b) Strategic implementation
c) Artistic design
d) Quality assurance
Answer: b) Strategic implementation
224. What is the main reason behind the switch to the Maya operating system?
a) A preference for locally developed software
b) A mandate from international cybersecurity organizations
c) A desire to reduce software licensing costs
d) A need for better graphics performance
Answer: a) A preference for locally developed software
225. How does the Maya operating system contribute to local innovation?
a) By promoting international collaboration
b) By increasing reliance on foreign technology
c) By fostering a supportive environment for domestic tech solutions
d) By prioritizing imported software over local alternatives
Answer: c) By fostering a supportive environment for domestic tech solutions
226. Which aspect of technology does the Maya operating system specifically address?
a) Renewable energy
b) Military hardware
c) Operating systems
d) Space exploration
Answer: c) Operating systems
227. What is the primary concern that the Maya operating system aims to counteract?
a) Economic inflation
b) Declining international relations
c) Escalating cyber threats
d) Environmental pollution
Answer: c) Escalating cyber threats
228. What does the adoption of the Maya operating system signify for India’s technology capabilities?
a) A shift towards foreign technology dependence
b) A decline in local innovation
c) A step toward self-reliance and advancement
d) A rejection of cybersecurity measures
Answer: c) A step toward self-reliance and advancement
229. Which term best describes the timeframe within which the Maya operating system was developed?
a) Extensive
b) Prolonged
c) Short
d) Average
Answer: c) Short
230. What message does the adoption of the Maya operating system send to the international community?
a) The government’s disinterest in technology advancements
b) The commitment to prioritize international technology collaboration
c) The intention to focus solely on military applications
d) The ability to develop and implement indigenous tech solutions
Answer: d) The ability to develop and implement indigenous tech solutions
| Daily Current Affairs 2023 | Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2023 |
| Weekly Current Affairs 2023 | Monthly Current Affairs 2023 |
