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Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | September 4th Week 2023

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

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1. Where did the 14th edition of the World Spice Congress (WSC) take place?

A. Mumbai
B. Vashi, Navi Mumbai
C. Delhi
D. Chennai

Answer: B. Vashi, Navi Mumbai

2. Who is organizing the World Spice Congress in collaboration with trade bodies and export forums?

A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B. Spices Board India
C. Indian Prime Minister
D. Indian President

Answer: B. Spices Board India

3. Which country is often referred to as the ‘Spice Bowl’ of the world?

A. China
B. India
C. Sri Lanka
D. Thailand

Answer: B. India

4. What is the main objective of the World Spice Congress (WSC)?

A. Cultural Exchange
B. Political Discussions
C. International Trade of Indian Spices
D. Scientific Research

Answer: C. International Trade of Indian Spices

5. Which Indian state is known for the production of Black Pepper?

A. Maharashtra
B. Kerala
C. Gujarat
D. Rajasthan

Answer: B. Kerala

6. Where is Cardamom mainly produced in India?

A. Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu
B. Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Odisha
C. Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh
D. Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Haryana

Answer: A. Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu

7. Which spice is cultivated in Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Odisha?

A. Cumin
B. Turmeric
C. Coriander
D. Fenugreek

Answer: B. Turmeric

8. How many times has a U.S. President been invited to be the chief guest at India’s Republic Day parade?

A. Once
B. Twice
C. Three times
D. Four times

Answer: C. Three times

9. Who was the first American President to attend Republic Day as the chief guest in India?

A. Joe Biden
B. Donald Trump
C. Barack Obama
D. George W. Bush

Answer: C. Barack Obama

10. Who confirmed the invitation of U.S. President Joe Biden for India’s Republic Day celebrations?

A. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi
B. U.S. Ambassador Eric Garcetti
C. U.S. President Joe Biden
D. Spices Board India

Answer: B. U.S. Ambassador Eric Garcetti

11. When is U.S. President Joe Biden scheduled to visit India for the Quad Summit?

A. 2022
B. 2023
C. 2024
D. 2025

Answer: C. 2024

12. Which ministry is the Spices Board India a subsidiary of?

A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C. Ministry of Foreign Affairs
D. Ministry of Finance

Answer: B. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

13. Which southern Indian state is known for producing high-quality Black Pepper?

A. Kerala
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Karnataka

Answer: A. Kerala

14. Which U.S. President declined the invitation for India’s Republic Day in January 2019?

A. Joe Biden
B. Barack Obama
C. Donald Trump
D. George W. Bush

Answer: C. Donald Trump

15. What is the regional significance of Indian spices mentioned in the passage?

A. They are used in Indian festivals.
B. Each spice is unique to a specific region in India.
C. They are only used in Indian cuisine.
D. They are primarily used in medicinal products.

Answer: B. Each spice is unique to a specific region in India.

16. Which body is making efforts to align the Quad Summit with President Biden’s visit to India?

A. Indian Parliament
B. Ministry of External Affairs
C. Spices Board India
D. U.S. Government

Answer: B. Ministry of External Affairs

17. What is the main focus of the World Spice Congress (WSC) as mentioned in the passage?

A. Political Dialogue
B. Cultural Exchange
C. International Trade of Indian Spices
D. Scientific Research

Answer: C. International Trade of Indian Spices

18. Which of the following states does not cultivate Turmeric according to the passage?

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Maharashtra
D. Karnataka

Answer: C. Maharashtra

19. In which city did the 14th edition of the World Spice Congress take place?

A. Mumbai
B. Delhi
C. Vashi, Navi Mumbai
D. Chennai

Answer: C. Vashi, Navi Mumbai

20. What is the role of the Spices Board India in organizing the World Spice Congress?

A. Main Organizer
B. Supporting Partner
C. Financial Sponsor
D. Venue Provider

Answer: A. Main Organizer

21. Which event is President Biden scheduled to attend in India in 2024?

A. World Spice Congress
B. Republic Day Celebrations
C. Quad Summit
D. Indian Independence Day

Answer: C. Quad Summit

22. Which trade bodies and export forums are mentioned in the passage as collaborators of the World Spice Congress?

A. Not specified in the passage
B. Multiple trade bodies and export forums
C. Only one trade body
D. None of the above

Answer: B. Multiple trade bodies and export forums

23. Which Indian states are mentioned in the passage for the cultivation of Cardamom?

A. Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu
B. Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Odisha
C. Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh
D. Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Haryana

Answer: A. Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu

24. What is the significance of India being called the ‘Spice Bowl’ of the world?

A. India is the largest exporter of spices.
B. India produces a wide variety of high-quality spices.
C. India hosts the World Spice Congress every year.
D. India is the only country known for spice cultivation.

Answer: B. India produces a wide variety of high-quality spices.

25. Which ministry is responsible for the Spices Board India?

A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C. Ministry of Foreign Affairs
D. Ministry of Finance

Answer: B. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

26. What efforts are being made regarding President Biden’s visit to India in 2024, as per the passage?

A. Efforts to align the Quad Summit with his visit
B. Efforts to organize a joint press conference
C. Efforts to reschedule the visit to a later date
D. Efforts to cancel the visit

Answer: A. Efforts to align the Quad Summit with his visit

27. What is the main focus of the Spices Board India, as mentioned in the passage?

A. Organizing cultural events
B. Promoting international trade of Indian spices
C. Conducting scientific research on spices
D. Distributing spices to local markets

Answer: B. Promoting international trade of Indian spices

28. Which spice is NOT mentioned in the passage as being cultivated in India?

A. Black Pepper
B. Cardamom
C. Saffron
D. Turmeric

Answer: C. Saffron

29. What is the significance of the World Spice Congress for international trade?

A. It creates new opportunities for the international trade of Indian spices.
B. It restricts the international trade of Indian spices.
C. It promotes international trade of spices from various countries.
D. It bans the international trade of Indian spices.

Answer: A. It creates new opportunities for the international trade of Indian spices.

30. Which President declined the invitation for India’s Republic Day parade in January 2019?

A. Joe Biden
B. Barack Obama
C. Donald Trump
D. George W. Bush

Answer: C. Donald Trump

31. Who is making efforts to align the Quad Summit with President Biden’s visit to India?

A. Indian Prime Minister
B. Ministry of External Affairs
C. U.S. Government
D. Spices Board India

Answer: B. Ministry of External Affairs

32. What is the primary reason for President Donald Trump’s decline of the invitation for India’s Republic Day parade in January 2019?

A. Health issues
B. Scheduling conflicts in the U.S. Congress
C. International tensions
D. Security concerns

Answer: B. Scheduling conflicts in the U.S. Congress

33. Which body confirmed the invitation of U.S. President Joe Biden for India’s Republic Day celebrations?

A. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi
B. U.S. Ambassador Eric Garcetti
C. U.S. President Joe Biden
D. Spices Board India

Answer: B. U.S. Ambassador Eric Garcetti

34. What is the regional significance of Black Pepper mentioned in the passage?

A. Grown in northern states
B. Grown in southern states
C. Grown in eastern states
D. Grown in western states

Answer: B. Grown in southern states

35. What is the regional significance of Cardamom mentioned in the passage?

A. Grown in northern states
B. Grown in southern states
C. Grown in eastern states
D. Grown in western states

Answer: B. Grown in southern states

36. What is the regional significance of Turmeric mentioned in the passage?

A. Cultivated in northern states
B. Cultivated in southern states
C. Cultivated in eastern states
D. Cultivated in western states

Answer: B. Cultivated in southern states

37. Which President was the first American President to attend Republic Day as the chief guest in India?

A. Joe Biden
B. Barack Obama
C. Donald Trump
D. George W. Bush

Answer: B. Barack Obama

38. Which U.S. President is under consideration to be the chief guest at India’s Republic Day celebrations according to the passage?

A. Joe Biden
B. Barack Obama
C. Donald Trump
D. George W. Bush

Answer: A. Joe Biden

39. Which U.S. Ambassador confirmed the invitation of U.S. President Joe Biden for India’s Republic Day celebrations?

A. U.S. Ambassador to India
B. U.S. Ambassador to the United Nations
C. U.S. Ambassador to the European Union
D. U.S. Ambassador to Russia

Answer: A. U.S. Ambassador to India

40. Which of the following statements about the World Spice Congress is correct?

A. It aims to promote Indian cinema globally.
B. It is a three-day event organized by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
C. It is primarily focused on scientific research related to spices.
D. It is a weekly event held in different Indian cities.

Answer: B. It is a three-day event organized by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

41. Which Indian state is NOT mentioned in the passage for the cultivation of spices?

A. Kerala
B. Gujarat
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka

Answer: B. Gujarat

42. What is the role of India in the international spice trade according to the passage?

A. India is the largest importer of spices.
B. India is the largest exporter of spices.
C. India is a neutral party in the spice trade.
D. India does not participate in the international spice trade.

Answer: B. India is the largest exporter of spices.

43. Which event is President Biden scheduled to attend in India in 2024, in addition to being the chief guest at the Republic Day celebrations?

A. World Spice Congress
B. Independence Day celebrations
C. Quad Summit
D. Diwali festival

Answer: C. Quad Summit

44. What efforts are being made to align the Quad Summit with President Biden’s visit to India, as per the passage?

A. Efforts to align it with the G20 Summit
B. Efforts to align it with the Republic Day celebrations
C. Efforts to align it with President Biden’s birthday
D. Efforts to align it with the U.S. Independence Day

Answer: B. Efforts to align it with the Republic Day celebrations

45. Which President was the chief guest at India’s Republic Day celebrations in 2015?

A. Joe Biden
B. Barack Obama
C. Donald Trump
D. George W. Bush

Answer: B. Barack Obama

46. What is the role of trade bodies and export forums in the World Spice Congress?

A. They provide financial support.
B. They collaborate with the Spices Board India in organizing the event.
C. They handle security arrangements.
D. They manage the event schedule.

Answer: B. They collaborate with the Spices Board India in organizing the event.

47. Which ministry is responsible for inviting foreign dignitaries to India’s Republic Day celebrations?

A. Ministry of External Affairs
B. Ministry of Defence
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Answer: A. Ministry of External Affairs

48. Which spice mentioned in the passage is known for its medicinal properties?

A. Black Pepper
B. Cardamom
C. Turmeric
D. Cumin

Answer: C. Turmeric

49. What is the significance of President Biden’s visit to India in 2024?

A. It marks his first visit to India.
B. It aligns with the Quad Summit and Republic Day celebrations.
C. It is a leisure visit.
D. It is a surprise visit with no specific agenda.

Answer: B. It aligns with the Quad Summit and Republic Day celebrations.

50. Which U.S. President was invited to be the chief guest at India’s Republic Day parade but declined due to scheduling conflicts?

A. Joe Biden
B. Barack Obama
C. Donald Trump
D. George W. Bush

Answer: C. Donald Trump

51. Which of the following countries was absent at the Climate Ambition Summit (CAS)?
A. China
B. Germany
C. Brazil
D. Sri Lanka
Answer: A. China

52. What percentage of global greenhouse gas emissions are collectively responsible for by China, the United States, and India?
A. 42%
B. 55%
C. 30%
D. 65%
Answer: A. 42%

53. How many states’ representatives were given speaking slots at the CAS?
A. 34
B. 50
C. 20
D. 65
Answer: A. 34

54. Who called for increased climate action leading up to the CAS?
A. Angela Merkel
B. Antonio Guterres
C. Narendra Modi
D. Donald Trump
Answer: B. Antonio Guterres

55. Which of the following countries was not among the speakers at the CAS despite being India’s neighbor?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Nepal
C. Pakistan
D. Bangladesh
Answer: D. Bangladesh

56. Besides India’s neighbors, which emerging economy was represented at the CAS?
A. Russia
B. South Africa
C. Mexico
D. Australia
Answer: B. South Africa

57. Which of the following European countries had a presence at the CAS?
A. Spain
B. Germany
C. Italy
D. Sweden
Answer: B. Germany

58. How many institutions were given speaking slots at the CAS?
A. 10
B. 7
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: B. 7

59. What was the main goal of the CAS with regard to the Paris Agreement?
A. 2°C degree goal
B. 1.5°C degree goal
C. 3°C degree goal
D. 1°C degree goal
Answer: B. 1.5°C degree goal

60. Which of the following countries was not mentioned as having a presence at the CAS?
A. France
B. Canada
C. Australia
D. Germany
Answer: C. Australia

61. Who is the Secretary-General of the United Nations who called for increased climate action?
A. Ban Ki-moon
B. Antonio Guterres
C. Kofi Annan
D. Boutros Boutros-Ghali
Answer: B. Antonio Guterres

62. Which continent did the emerging economy South Africa represent at the CAS?
A. Asia
B. Africa
C. Europe
D. South America
Answer: B. Africa

63. Which of the following countries had representatives at the CAS despite not being mentioned as an emerging economy or India’s neighbor?
A. Canada
B. Japan
C. Mexico
D. China
Answer: A. Canada

64. What was the date of the Climate Ambition Summit at the United Nations General Assembly?
A. September 21
B. October 1
C. August 15
D. November 10
Answer: A. September 21

65. Which of the following countries was surprisingly absent at the CAS despite being an emerging economy?
A. Brazil
B. South Africa
C. India
D. Mexico
Answer: A. Brazil

66. Which of the following countries did not have a presence at the CAS?
A. Germany
B. France
C. China
D. Brazil
Answer: C. China

67. What was the main focus of the Climate Ambition Summit?
A. Economic Growth
B. Climate Justice and 1.5°C degree goal of the Paris Agreement
C. Military Cooperation
D. Space Exploration
Answer: B. Climate Justice and 1.5°C degree goal of the Paris Agreement

68. Which of the following continents did not have representation at the CAS according to the given information?
A. Asia
B. Africa
C. Europe
D. South America
Answer: D. South America

69. Which of the following countries was not mentioned as a speaker at the CAS from India’s neighbors?
A. Nepal
B. Sri Lanka
C. Pakistan
D. Bangladesh
Answer: D. Bangladesh

70. Which organization organized the Climate Ambition Summit?
A. Greenpeace
B. World Bank
C. United Nations General Assembly
D. NASA
Answer: C. United Nations General Assembly

71. Which of the following countries had a presence at the CAS from South America?
A. Argentina
B. Brazil
C. Colombia
D. Venezuela
Answer: B. Brazil

72. Which of the following countries is not among the top three greenhouse gas emitters mentioned in the passage?
A. India
B. Brazil
C. China
D. United States
Answer: B. Brazil

73. What was the total number of institutions given speaking slots at the CAS?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: B. 7

74. Which of the following countries was not mentioned as an attendee at the CAS?
A. Canada
B. Australia
C. Germany
D. France
Answer: B. Australia

75. Which of the following countries had representation at the CAS despite not being mentioned as an emerging economy or India’s neighbor?
A. Russia
B. Canada
C. China
D. Australia
Answer: B. Canada

76. Which of the following countries is not a part of the Paris Agreement?
A. United States
B. Germany
C. China
D. France
Answer: A. United States

77. Who was the host of the Climate Ambition Summit?
A. United States
B. France
C. United Nations General Assembly
D. China
Answer: C. United Nations General Assembly

78. Which of the following countries is responsible for the highest percentage of global greenhouse gas emissions among the three mentioned in the passage?
A. United States
B. China
C. India
D. They are responsible equally.
Answer: B. China

79. Which of the following regions did not have representation at the CAS according to the passage?
A. South America
B. Asia
C. Europe
D. Australia
Answer: D. Australia

80. Which of the following countries is not a neighbor of India?
A. Nepal
B. Bangladesh
C. Sri Lanka
D. Thailand
Answer: D. Thailand

81. What was the main aim of the Climate Ambition Summit?
A. Promote economic growth
B. Showcase leaders with credible actions and policies for the 1.5°C degree goal of the Paris Agreement
C. Address military conflicts
D. Explore outer space
Answer: B. Showcase leaders with credible actions and policies for the 1.5°C degree goal of the Paris Agreement

82. Which of the following institutions was not given a speaking slot at the CAS?
A. European Union
B. World Bank
C. Greenpeace
D. International Monetary Fund
Answer: C. Greenpeace

83. Which of the following countries is not among the top three global greenhouse gas emitters mentioned in the passage?
A. India
B. Germany
C. China
D. United States
Answer: B. Germany

84. Which of the following countries did not attend the CAS despite being responsible for a significant percentage of global greenhouse gas emissions?
A. Brazil
B. United States
C. China
D. Germany
Answer: D. Germany

85. Which of the following organizations is not mentioned as having a presence at the CAS?
A. European Union
B. United Nations General Assembly
C. Greenpeace
D. World Bank
Answer: C. Greenpeace

86. Which of the following countries is mentioned as an attendee at the CAS but not as an emerging economy or India’s neighbor?
A. Mexico
B. China
C. Brazil
D. Germany
Answer: D. Germany

87. Which of the following countries is not a member of the European Union but was present at the CAS?
A. Germany
B. France
C. Spain
D. United Kingdom
Answer: D. United Kingdom

88. Which of the following countries had representation at the CAS despite not being mentioned as an emerging economy or India’s neighbor?
A. China
B. Canada
C. Mexico
D. Brazil
Answer: B. Canada

89. Which of the following countries was not mentioned as a speaker at the CAS from India’s neighbors?
A. Nepal
B. Sri Lanka
C. Pakistan
D. Bhutan
Answer: D. Bhutan

90. Which of the following countries is mentioned as having a presence at the CAS but not as an emerging economy or India’s neighbor?
A. Australia
B. Canada
C. China
D. Brazil
Answer: A. Australia

91. Which of the following continents did South Africa represent at the CAS?
A. Europe
B. Africa
C. Asia
D. South America
Answer: B. Africa

92. Which of the following countries did not attend the CAS despite being responsible for a significant percentage of global greenhouse gas emissions?
A. Germany
B. United Kingdom
C. China
D. Brazil
Answer: B. United Kingdom

93. Which of the following countries is not mentioned as having a presence at the CAS?
A. Canada
B. Germany
C. France
D. Japan
Answer: D. Japan

94. Which of the following institutions was given a speaking slot at the CAS?
A. Greenpeace
B. European Union
C. International Monetary Fund
D. Amnesty International
Answer: B. European Union

95. Which of the following countries did not attend the CAS despite being responsible for a significant percentage of global greenhouse gas emissions?
A. India
B. China
C. United States
D. Brazil
Answer: A. India

96. Which of the following countries is mentioned as having a presence at the CAS but not as an emerging economy or India’s neighbor?
A. Mexico
B. China
C. Brazil
D. Germany
Answer: D. Germany

97. Which of the following countries is not among the top three global greenhouse gas emitters mentioned in the passage?
A. India
B. Germany
C. China
D. United States
Answer: B. Germany

98. Which of the following continents did not have representation at the CAS according to the passage?
A. South America
B. Asia
C. Europe
D. Australia
Answer: D. Australia

99. Which of the following countries is not a neighbor of India?
A. Nepal
B. Bangladesh
C. Sri Lanka
D. Thailand
Answer: D. Thailand

100. What was the main aim of the Climate Ambition Summit?
A. Promote economic growth
B. Showcase leaders with credible actions and policies for the 1.5°C degree goal of the Paris Agreement
C. Address military conflicts
D. Explore outer space
Answer: B. Showcase leaders with credible actions and policies for the 1.5°C degree goal of the Paris Agreement

101. What is the main focus of the report titled “State of Working India 2023”?
a) Economic growth in India
b) Labor market outcomes in India
c) Social security programs in India
d) COVID-19 vaccination rates in India
Answer: b) Labor market outcomes in India

102. According to the report, which group of professionals conducted the research?
a) Politicians
b) Doctors
c) Economists and researchers
d) Teachers
Answer: c) Economists and researchers

103. What time frame does the report cover regarding job creation in India?
a) 2004 to 2007
b) 2017 to 2019
c) 2004 to 2017
d) 2019 to 2023
Answer: c) 2004 to 2017

104. How many regular jobs were created annually in India between 2004 and 2017?
a) 1 million
b) 3 million
c) 5 million
d) 6 million
Answer: b) 3 million

105. What was the change in the annual creation of regular jobs in India between 2017 and 2019, according to the report?
a) Decreased to 2 million
b) Increased to 5 million
c) Increased to 6 million
d) Decreased to 1 million
Answer: c) Increased to 6 million

106. What percentage of regular jobs in India provided some form of social security, as per the report?
a) 15%
b) 6%
c) 50%
d) 30%
Answer: b) 6%

107. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a concern in the report?
a) Caste-based segregation
b) Gender-based earnings disparities
c) Health insurance
d) Impact of COVID-19 on unemployment
Answer: c) Health insurance

108. What does the report’s finding about social security for regular jobs raise questions about?
a) Education quality
b) Workforce stability and well-being
c) Political participation
d) Income inequality
Answer: b) Workforce stability and well-being

109. According to the report, what was the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on unemployment rates in India?
a) Decreased unemployment rates
b) No impact on unemployment rates
c) Increased unemployment rates
d) Unemployment rates remained the same
Answer: c) Increased unemployment rates

110. Who conducted the research mentioned in the report?
a) Students
b) Politicians
c) Economists and researchers
d) Doctors
Answer: c) Economists and researchers

112.In which year did the annual creation of regular jobs in India reach 5 million, according to the report?
a) 2004
b) 2017
c) 2019
d) 2023
Answer: c) 2019

113. What aspect of job creation in India did the report highlight?
a) Decline in job opportunities
b) Increase in job security
c) Dynamics of job creation
d) Wage stagnation
Answer: c) Dynamics of job creation

114. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a focus area in the report?
a) Caste-based segregation
b) Gender-based earnings disparities
c) Education system in India
d) Impact of COVID-19 on unemployment
Answer: c) Education system in India

115. What percentage of regular jobs in India provided some form of social security, according to the report?
a) 15%
b) 6%
c) 50%
d) 30%
Answer: b) 6%

116. What question does the low percentage of regular jobs with social security raise?
a) The quality of education in India
b) Income inequality in India
c) The stability and well-being of the workforce
d) The role of government in job creation
Answer: c) The stability and well-being of the workforce

117. What is the main concern regarding job stability in India, as per the report?
a) Lack of skilled workers
b) Lack of regular jobs
c) Low wages
d) Lack of social security in jobs
Answer: d) Lack of social security in jobs

118. What impact did the COVID-19 pandemic have on unemployment rates in India?
a) Decreased unemployment rates
b) No impact on unemployment rates
c) Increased unemployment rates
d) Unemployment rates remained the same
Answer: c) Increased unemployment rates

119. Which group of professionals authored the report?
a) Teachers and professors
b) Economists and researchers
c) Policymakers
d) Doctors and healthcare workers
Answer: b) Economists and researchers

120. In which years did India witness a surge in the creation of regular jobs, according to the report?
a) 2004 to 2007
b) 2017 to 2019
c) 2004 to 2017
d) 2019 to 2023
Answer: b) 2017 to 2019

121. What aspect of job creation does the report shed light on?
a) Job satisfaction
b) Job security
c) Dynamics of job creation
d) Wage stagnation
Answer: c) Dynamics of job creation

122. What percentage of regular jobs in India provides some form of social security?
a) 15%
b) 6%
c) 50%
d) 30%
Answer: b) 6%

123, What concern does the low percentage of regular jobs with social security raise?
a) The quality of education in India
b) Income inequality in India
c) The stability and well-being of the workforce
d) The role of government in job creation
Answer: c) The stability and well-being of the workforce

124. What is one concerning aspect highlighted in the report regarding regular jobs?
a) High wages
b) Job security
c) Social security
d) Health insurance
Answer: c) Social security

125. What impact did the COVID-19 pandemic have on employment in India?
a) Increased job opportunities
b) Decreased unemployment rates
c) Increased job security
d) Increased unemployment rates
Answer: d) Increased unemployment rates

126. What is the title of the report that this set of questions is based on?
a) “State of Working India 2023: Social Identities and Labour Market Outcomes”
b) “Economic Growth in India: A Comprehensive Study”
c) “COVID-19 and its Impact on Employment in India”
d) “Social Security Programs in India: An Analysis”
Answer: a) “State of Working India 2023: Social Identities and Labour Market Outcomes”

127. According to the report, who conducted the research on the employment landscape in India?
a) Politicians
b) Doctors
c) Economists and researchers from Azim Premji University
d) Teachers
Answer: c) Economists and researchers from Azim Premji University

128. What was the annual creation of regular jobs in India between 2017 and 2019?
a) 2 million
b) 3 million
c) 5 million
d) 6 million
Answer: c) 5 million

129. What does the report reveal about the stability and well-being of the workforce in India?
a) 15% of regular jobs provide social security
b) 50% of regular jobs provide health insurance
c) Only 6% of regular jobs provide any form of social security
d) All regular jobs provide social security
Answer: c) Only 6% of regular jobs provide any form of social security

130. Which of the following is NOT a focus area of the report?
a) Job creation dynamics
b) Caste-based segregation
c) Impact of climate change on employment
d) Gender-based earnings disparities
Answer: c) Impact of climate change on employment

131. What aspect of regular jobs in India does the report highlight as a concern?
a) Job availability
b) Job security
c) Health insurance coverage
d) Workforce stability and well-being
Answer: b) Job security

132. What percentage of regular jobs in India provide social security, according to the report?
a) 15%
b) 6%
c) 50%
d) 30%
Answer: b) 6%

133. What is the main concern raised by the low percentage of regular jobs with social security?
a) Quality of education in India
b) Income inequality in India
c) Workforce stability and well-being
d) Government policies on job creation
Answer: c) Workforce stability and well-being

134. What impact did the COVID-19 pandemic have on unemployment rates in India?
a) Decreased unemployment rates
b) No impact on unemployment rates
c) Increased unemployment rates
d) Unemployment rates remained the same
Answer: c) Increased unemployment rates

135. Who authored the report on the employment landscape in India?
a) Students
b) Politicians
c) Economists and researchers from Azim Premji University
d) Teachers
Answer: c) Economists and researchers from Azim Premji University

136. In which years did India experience a surge in the creation of regular jobs, according to the report?
a) 2004 to 2007
b) 2017 to 2019
c) 2004 to 2017
d) 2019 to 2023
Answer: b) 2017 to 2019

137. What does the report shed light on regarding job creation in India?
a) Job satisfaction
b) Job security
c) Dynamics of job creation
d) Wage stagnation
Answer: c) Dynamics of job creation

138. What percentage of regular jobs in India provides some form of social security, as per the report?
a) 15%
b) 6%
c) 50%
d) 30%
Answer: b) 6%

139. What question does the low percentage of regular jobs with social security raise?
a) The quality of education in India
b) Income inequality in India
c) The stability and well-being of the workforce
d) The role of government in job creation
Answer: c) The stability and well-being of the workforce

140. What is one concerning aspect highlighted in the report regarding regular jobs?
a) High wages
b) Job security
c) Social security
d) Health insurance
Answer: c) Social security

141. What impact did the COVID-19 pandemic have on employment in India?
a) Increased job opportunities
b) Decreased unemployment rates
c) Increased job security
d) Increased unemployment rates
Answer: d) Increased unemployment rates

142. What is the title of the report that this set of questions is based on?
a) “State of Working India 2023: Social Identities and Labour Market Outcomes”
b) “Economic Growth in India: A Comprehensive Study”
c) “COVID-19 and its Impact on Employment in India”
d) “Social Security Programs in India: An Analysis”
Answer: a) “State of Working India 2023: Social Identities and Labour Market Outcomes”

143. According to the report, who conducted the research on the employment landscape in India?
a) Politicians
b) Doctors
c) Economists and researchers from Azim Premji University
d) Teachers
Answer: c) Economists and researchers from Azim Premji University

144. What was the annual creation of regular jobs in India between 2017 and 2019?
a) 2 million
b) 3 million
c) 5 million
d) 6 million
Answer: c) 5 million

145. What does the report reveal about the stability and well-being of the workforce in India?
a) 15% of regular jobs provide social security
b) 50% of regular jobs provide health insurance
c) Only 6% of regular jobs provide any form of social security
d) All regular jobs provide social security
Answer: c) Only 6% of regular jobs provide any form of social security

146. Which of the following is NOT a focus area of the report?
a) Job creation dynamics
b) Caste-based segregation
c) Impact of climate change on employment
d) Gender-based earnings disparities
Answer: c) Impact of climate change on employment

147. What aspect of regular jobs in India does the report highlight as a concern?
a) Job availability
b) Job security
c) Health insurance coverage
d) Workforce stability and well-being
Answer: b) Job security

148. What percentage of regular jobs in India provide social security, according to the report?
a) 15%
b) 6%
c) 50%
d) 30%
Answer: b) 6%

149. What is the main concern raised by the low percentage of regular jobs with social security?
a) Quality of education in India
b) Income inequality in India
c) Workforce stability and well-being
d) Government policies on job creation
Answer: c) Workforce stability and well-being

150. What impact did the COVID-19 pandemic have on unemployment rates in India?
a) Decreased unemployment rates
b) No impact on unemployment rates
c) Increased unemployment rates
d) Unemployment rates remained the same
Answer: c) Increased unemployment rates

151. What are the recent initiatives launched by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman for the agricultural sector in India?

A. Digital Payment Platforms
B. Healthcare Awareness Campaigns
C. Kisan Rin Portal, Ghar Ghar KCC Campaign, and WINDS Manual
D. Educational Scholarships

Answer: C. Kisan Rin Portal, Ghar Ghar KCC Campaign, and WINDS Manual

152. What is the purpose of the Kisan Rin portal?

A. Providing weather forecasts
B. Offering loan disbursement specifics and other financial data to farmers
C. Healthcare services for farmers
D. Educational resources for farmers

Answer: B. Offering loan disbursement specifics and other financial data to farmers

153. What does the Ghar Ghar KCC campaign aim to achieve?

A. Universal healthcare access for farmers
B. Saturation of the KCC scheme, ensuring every eligible farmer has access to it
C. Free education for farmers’ children
D. Digital literacy for farmers

Answer: B. Saturation of the KCC scheme, ensuring every eligible farmer has access to it

154. What is the main function of the Weather Information Network Data Systems (WINDS) manual?

A. Providing cooking recipes based on weather conditions
B. Leveraging weather data analytics to offer insights on weather patterns
C. Offering travel recommendations for farmers
D. Providing real-time traffic updates

Answer: B. Leveraging weather data analytics to offer insights on weather patterns

155. How does the Kisan Rin portal empower farmers?

A. By providing agricultural machinery
B. By offering financial data for informed decision-making
C. By providing free seeds and fertilizers
D. By offering free insurance for crops

Answer: B. By offering financial data for informed decision-making

156. Which campaign ensures that every eligible farmer has access to the KCC scheme?

A. Kisan Rin Portal Campaign
B. Kisan Suvidha Yojana
C. Ghar Ghar KCC Campaign
D. Krishi Vikas Abhiyan

Answer: C. Ghar Ghar KCC Campaign

157. What kind of insights does the WINDS manual provide to stakeholders?

A. Financial market trends
B. Weather patterns based on advanced data analytics
C. Agricultural commodity prices
D. Political developments related to agriculture

Answer: B. Weather patterns based on advanced data analytics

158. Why is the information provided by the WINDS manual valuable for stakeholders?

A. It helps in agricultural decision-making
B. It provides fashion trends for farmers
C. It offers entertainment options for farmers
D. It provides cooking recipes based on weather conditions

Answer: A. It helps in agricultural decision-making

159. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Kisan Rin portal?

A. Loan disbursement specifics
B. Interest subvention claims
C. Cooking recipes
D. Scheme utilization progress

Answer: C. Cooking recipes

160. What impact can the initiatives launched by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman have on the agricultural sector in India?

A. No significant impact
B. Empowering farmers with vital data for informed decisions
C. Increasing fuel prices
D. Improving urban infrastructure

Answer: B. Empowering farmers with vital data for informed decisions

161. What is the main objective of the Women Reservation Bill approved by the Union Cabinet?
A) Increase women’s representation in legislative bodies
B) Provide reservation for minority communities
C) Allocate more seats for the ruling party
D) Reduce the number of seats in the Lok Sabha

Answer: A) Increase women’s representation in legislative bodies

162. How many seats in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies will be reserved for women candidates according to the Women Reservation Bill?
A) Half of the seats
B) One-third of the seats
C) One-fourth of the seats
D) Two-thirds of the seats

Answer: B) One-third of the seats

163. What is the purpose of rotating reserved seats after each general election?
A) To favor specific political parties
B) To prevent the monopolization of reserved seats
C) To exclude women candidates
D) To discourage women’s participation in politics

Answer: B) To prevent the monopolization of reserved seats

164. Which communities are included in the sub-reservation proposed within the 33 percent quota according to the Women Reservation Bill?
A) Only Scheduled Castes (SCs)
B) Only Scheduled Tribes (STs)
C) SCs, STs, and Anglo-Indians
D) Only Anglo-Indians

Answer: C) SCs, STs, and Anglo-Indians

165. What does the sub-reservation within the Women Reservation Bill aim to address?
A) Religious differences
B) Caste-based inequalities
C) Gender disparities
D) Intersectional inequalities

Answer: D) Intersectional inequalities

16166. What is the significance of the Women Reservation Bill in promoting diversity in political representation?
A) It excludes certain communities from participating in elections
B) It ensures representation only for women from privileged backgrounds
C) It addresses intersectional inequalities and promotes diversity
D) It restricts the participation of women in politics

Answer: C) It addresses intersectional inequalities and promotes diversity

167. How does the Women Reservation Bill contribute to gender equality?
A) By reducing the number of seats for men in legislative bodies
B) By increasing the number of seats for women in legislative bodies
C) By eliminating elections for male candidates
D) By limiting women’s participation in politics

Answer: B) By increasing the number of seats for women in legislative bodies

168. What is the purpose of reserving seats for women in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies?
A) To discourage women from participating in politics
B) To increase the workload of female politicians
C) To promote gender equality and women’s representation
D) To limit women’s influence in legislative decisions

Answer: C) To promote gender equality and women’s representation

169. How often will the reserved seats be rotated according to the Women Reservation Bill?
A) After every two general elections
B) After every general election
C) After every five general elections
D) After every ten general elections

Answer: B) After every general election

170. Who benefits from the sub-reservation within the Women Reservation Bill?
A) Only women candidates
B) Only men candidates
C) SCs, STs, and Anglo-Indians within the women candidates
D) Only upper-caste candidates

Answer: C) SCs, STs, and Anglo-Indians within the women candidates

171. What is the purpose of the joint military exercises in the South Natuna Sea?
A. Economic Cooperation
B. Military Skills Enhancement
C. Political Negotiations
D. Cultural Exchange

Answer: B. Military Skills Enhancement

172. Which specific skills are the military exercises focusing on?
A. Economic Development
B. Maritime Security, Patrols, Humanitarian Assistance, and Disaster Relief
C. Diplomatic Relations
D. Technological Advancements

Answer: B. Maritime Security, Patrols, Humanitarian Assistance, and Disaster Relief

173. Where are the joint military exercises taking place?
A. South China Sea
B. South Natuna Sea
C. Pacific Ocean
D. Indian Ocean

Answer: B. South Natuna Sea

174. What is the main goal of these military drills according to the Indonesian military?
A. Assert Dominance in the Region
B. Promote Regional Stability and Cooperation among ASEAN Members
C. Test New Military Technologies
D. Prepare for Potential Conflict with China

Answer: B. Promote Regional Stability and Cooperation among ASEAN Members

175. How long is the duration of these joint military exercises?
A. 3 Days
B. 5 Days
C. 7 Days
D. 10 Days

Answer: B. 5 Days

176. Which country recently became a prospective member of ASEAN?
A. East Timor
B. Australia
C. India
D. New Zealand

Answer: A. East Timor

177. How many member nations are there in ASEAN?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14

Answer: B. 10

178. What is the primary focus of the joint military exercises in terms of humanitarian efforts?
A. Medical Assistance
B. Disaster Relief
C. Food Distribution
D. Educational Support

Answer: B. Disaster Relief

179. What is the significance of these joint military exercises in the context of rising geopolitical tensions?
A. Escalate Conflicts
B. Promote Peace and Cooperation
C. Isolate ASEAN Nations
D. Strengthen Individual Nations’ Military Capabilities

Answer: B. Promote Peace and Cooperation

180. Which major global power’s activities in the South China Sea are causing rising concerns?
A. United States
B. Russia
C. India
D. China

Answer: D. China

181. What area of skills enhancement is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Maritime Security
B. Cybersecurity
C. Patrols
D. Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief

Answer: B. Cybersecurity

182. What does ASEAN stand for?
A. Asian Security and Economic Alliance Network
B. Association of Southeast Asian Nations
C. Alliance of South East Asian Nations
D. Asian Security and Environmental Advocacy Network

Answer: B. Association of Southeast Asian Nations

183. Besides military skills, what else are the joint military exercises focusing on?
A. Economic Partnerships
B. Environmental Conservation
C. Cultural Exchange
D. None of the Above

Answer: C. Cultural Exchange

184. Which country is hosting the joint military exercises?
A. Malaysia
B. Indonesia
C. Thailand
D. Philippines

Answer: B. Indonesia

185. What is the aim of these joint military drills according to the passage?
A. Regional Domination
B. Enhancing Collective Security and Regional Stability
C. Gaining Military Supremacy
D. Expanding Territories

Answer: B. Enhancing Collective Security and Regional Stability

186. What is the new name of the Udhampur railway station?
a) UDH Railway Station
b) Martyr Captain Tushar Mahajan Railway Station
c) Northern Railway Station
d) UHP Railway Station
Answer: b) Martyr Captain Tushar Mahajan Railway Station

187. Why was the Udhampur railway station renamed?
a) To honor a dedicated Indian Army officer
b) To attract more tourists
c) To improve railway services
d) To commemorate a historical event
Answer: a) To honor a dedicated Indian Army officer

188. Captain Tushar Mahajan served in which unit of the Indian Army?
a) 9 Parachute Commando
b) 7th Infantry Division
c) 2nd Armored Brigade
d) 4th Mountain Division
Answer: a) 9 Parachute Commando

189. Where was Captain Tushar Mahajan born?
a) Delhi, India
b) Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir
c) Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir
d) Mumbai, Maharashtra
Answer: c) Udhampur, Jammu and Kashmir

190. In which year was Captain Tushar Mahajan born?
a) 1985
b) 1987
c) 1990
d) 1992
Answer: b) 1987

191. Who has revised the GDP growth projection for India in fiscal year 2024?
a) United Nations
b) World Bank
c) OECD (Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development)
d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: c) OECD (Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development)

192. What is India’s projected GDP growth rate for the fiscal year 2024, according to the OECD?
a) 5.5%
b) 6.0%
c) 6.3%
d) 6.8%
Answer: c) 6.3%

193. What is the main reason for India’s positive growth surprises, according to the OECD?
a) Increased industrial production
b) Favorable weather conditions leading to agricultural growth
c) Rising consumer spending
d) Foreign direct investments
Answer: b) Favorable weather conditions leading to agricultural growth

194. How much is India’s revised inflation projection for the same period, according to the OECD?
a) 3.5%
b) 4.0%
c) 4.8%
d) 5.3%
Answer: d) 5.3%

195. What is the key reason for the increase in India’s inflation projection?
a) Declining food and energy prices
b) Government policies
c) Global economic trends
d) Core inflation
Answer: d) Core inflation

196. Which major economies are suggested for modest policy easing by the OECD?
a) China, Japan, Russia
b) India, Indonesia, Mexico
c) United States, United Kingdom, Germany
d) Brazil, Australia, Canada
Answer: b) India, Indonesia, Mexico

197. What is the recommended approach to monetary policy in these economies until relief from inflationary pressures is clear?
a) Aggressive policy easing
b) Cautious approach
c) No change in policy
d) Tightening of monetary policy
Answer: b) Cautious approach

198. What is the primary cause of the recent military operation in Nagorno-Karabakh?
A) Ethnic tensions
B) Landmine incidents attributed to Armenian saboteurs
C) Political disputes
D) Religious conflicts
Answer: B) Landmine incidents attributed to Armenian saboteurs

199. What is the main objective of Azerbaijan’s military operation in Nagorno-Karabakh?
A) Ethnic cleansing
B) Neutralize Armenian military infrastructure
C) Establish a separate state
D) Gain international support
Answer: B) Neutralize Armenian military infrastructure

200. How many military posts have Azerbaijan reported capturing during the operation?
A) 25
B) 40
C) Over 60
D) 75
Answer: C) Over 60

201. Which organization approved the use of the Truenat test for diagnosing Nipah virus in Kerala?
A) World Health Organization (WHO)
B) Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR)
C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
D) International Red Cross
Answer: B) Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR)

202. What level of biosafety laboratories is required to conduct the Truenat test for Nipah virus?
A) BSL 1
B) BSL 2
C) BSL 3
D) BSL 4
Answer: B) BSL 2

203. Which hospitals are designated facilities for further analysis of NiV-positive samples in Kerala?
A) Kochi General Hospital
B) Kozhikode Medical College Hospital
C) Trivandrum General Hospital
D) Alleppey District Hospital
Answer: B) Kozhikode Medical College Hospital

204. How long is the incubation period for Nipah virus?
A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 21 days
D) 28 days
Answer: C) 21 days

205. How many days of active monitoring does the state of Kerala intend to maintain for Nipah virus?
A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 21 days
D) 42 days
Answer: D) 42 days

206. Which ministry of Armenia condemned Azerbaijan’s actions as “large-scale aggression”?
A) Ministry of Defense
B) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
C) Ministry of Health
D) Ministry of Justice
Answer: B) Ministry of Foreign Affairs

207. What does Azerbaijan aim to achieve through its military operation in Nagorno-Karabakh?
A) Establish a ceasefire
B) Disarm Armenian forces, secure their withdrawal, and neutralize their military infrastructure
C) Annex Nagorno-Karabakh as a separate territory
D) Seek international mediation
Answer: B) Disarm Armenian forces, secure their withdrawal, and neutralize their military infrastructure

208. Which Indian state is mentioned in the context regarding the Nipah virus testing?
A) Punjab
B) Kerala
C) Maharashtra
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: B) Kerala

209. What is the significance of the Truenat test approval in Kerala?
A) It allows for testing of COVID-19
B) Hospitals can now diagnose Nipah virus using the Truenat test
C) It is used for testing malaria
D) It allows for rapid HIV testing
Answer: B) Hospitals can now diagnose Nipah virus using the Truenat test

210. Who is the Health Minister mentioned in the context regarding Nipah virus testing?
A) Veena George
B) Rajesh Tope
C) Arvind Kejriwal
D) Mamata Banerjee
Answer: A) Veena George

211. How are healthcare workers trained in Kerala regarding the Nipah virus protocol?
A) Through online courses
B) Through workshops and training sessions
C) Through written manuals only
D) Through video conferences
Answer: B) Through workshops and training sessions

212. How does the state of Kerala integrate Nipah surveillance into its healthcare system?
A) Through regular health checkups
B) Through the Aarogya Jagratha calendar
C) Through vaccination drives
D) Through awareness campaigns only
Answer: B) Through the Aarogya Jagratha calendar

213. What does Armenia accuse Azerbaijan of in the context of the military operation in Nagorno-Karabakh?
A) Pursuing ethnic cleansing
B) Seeking peaceful resolution
C) Supporting separatist movements
D) Provoking international conflict
Answer: A) Pursuing ethnic cleansing

214. How does Azerbaijan justify its military operation in Nagorno-Karabakh?
A) It claims Nagorno-Karabakh as its rightful territory
B) It cites self-defense and protection of its citizens
C) It seeks revenge for past conflicts
D) It aims to expand its borders
Answer: B) It cites self-defense and protection of its citizens

215. Which international organization has expressed concerns about the renewed conflict in Nagorno-Karabakh?
A) United Nations (UN)
B) World Bank
C) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
D) Amnesty International
Answer: A) United Nations (UN)

216. What is the name of the designated facility in the capital for further analysis of NiV-positive samples?
A) Kozhikode Medical College Hospital
B) Thiruvananthapuram Medical College Hospital
C) Kochi General Hospital
D) Alleppey District Hospital
Answer: B) Thiruvananthapuram Medical College Hospital

217. What is the total duration of active monitoring for Nipah virus in Kerala according to the mentioned protocol?
A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 21 days
D) 42 days
Answer: D) 42 days

218. Who reported 25 casualties, including civilians, in the conflict between Azerbaijan and Armenia?
A) Azerbaijani government
B) Armenian government
C) Separatist Armenian human rights official
D) United Nations
Answer: C) Separatist Armenian human rights official

219. What type of attacks triggered Azerbaijan’s military operation in Nagorno-Karabakh?
A) Cyber attacks
B) Landmine incidents
C) Aerial bombardment
D) Naval attacks
Answer: B) Landmine incidents

220. What is the aim of Azerbaijan’s defense ministry in the military operation?
A) Annex Nagorno-Karabakh as a separate territory
B) Establish peace talks with Armenia
C) Disarm Armenian forces, secure their withdrawal, and neutralize their military infrastructure
D) Gain control over the entire Armenian territory
Answer: C) Disarm Armenian forces, secure their withdrawal, and neutralize their military infrastructure

221. What is the name of the test approved for Nipah virus diagnosis in Kerala?
A) Truevirus test
B) Truetest
C) Truenat test
D) NipahCheck
Answer: C) Truenat test

222. Which ministry of Azerbaijan is mentioned in the context regarding the military operation in Nagorno-Karabakh?
A) Ministry of Defense
B) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
C) Ministry of Interior
D) Ministry of Health
Answer: A) Ministry of Defense

223. How does OIML certification affect the competitiveness of Indian manufacturers in international markets?
a) It makes Indian products more expensive.
b) It reduces the quality of Indian products.
c) It gives Indian manufacturers a competitive advantage.
d) It limits Indian manufacturers to domestic markets.

Answer: c) It gives Indian manufacturers a competitive advantage.

224. What kind of facilities does India now offer to international manufacturers?
a) Tax incentives
b) Testing facilities
c) Manufacturing plants
d) Export assistance

Answer: b) Testing facilities

225. Which international organization sets standards for a wide range of industries, including metrology?
a) UN (United Nations)
b) WHO (World Health Organization)
c) ISO (International Organization for Standardization)
d) OIML (International Organisation of Legal Metrology)

Answer: c) ISO

226. What is the primary role of legal metrology in trade and commerce?
a) Regulating product prices
b) Enforcing taxation laws
c) Ensuring fair and accurate measurements in transactions
d) Promoting domestic manufacturing

Answer: c) Ensuring fair and accurate measurements in transactions

227. Which country hosted the founding conference of OIML?
a) India
b) France
c) Japan
d) United States

Answer: b) France

228. What kind of instruments can now be tested within India due to OIML certification authorization?
a) Only electronic instruments
b) Only measuring instruments
c) Weighing and measuring instruments
d) Only medical instruments

Answer: c) Weighing and measuring instruments

229. How does OIML certification contribute to international trade?
a) It imposes trade barriers.
b) It ensures that all trade is conducted in the local currency.
c) It promotes measurement accuracy, facilitating trade.
d) It restricts trade to a select group of countries.

Answer: c) It promotes measurement accuracy, facilitating trade.

230. What is the main goal of legal metrology standards?
a) To limit the use of measurements in commerce
b) To regulate domestic manufacturing
c) To ensure measurement accuracy in commercial transactions
d) To increase the cost of products

Answer: c) To ensure measurement accuracy in commercial transactions