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Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | April 4th Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

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  1. What organization released the latest global financial stability report?
    A) World Bank
    B) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
    C) World Trade Organization
    D) Federal Reserve
    Answer: B) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  2. What are the risks highlighted in the IMF’s global financial stability report?
    A) Persistent high inflation
    B) Rising lending in the unregulated credit market
    C) Increasing cyber-attacks on financial institutions
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  3. What geopolitical risks are mentioned in the report?
    A) Conflict in West Asia and Ukraine
    B) Trade tensions between China and the US
    C) Brexit negotiations
    D) All of the above
    Answer: A) Conflict in West Asia and Ukraine
  4. In 2023, which country was the second-largest recipient of foreign capital according to the report?
    A) China
    B) India
    C) Japan
    D) Brazil
    Answer: B) India
  5. What could change India’s status as a significant recipient of foreign capital?
    A) Increase in domestic interest rates
    B) Decrease in domestic interest rates
    C) Change in western central banks’ interest rate policies
    D) Strengthening of the Indian rupee
    Answer: C) Change in western central banks’ interest rate policies
  6. What is the focus of the unregulated private credit market mentioned in the report?
    A) Corporate borrowing
    B) Government lending
    C) Retail banking
    D) Cryptocurrency investments
    Answer: A) Corporate borrowing
  7. How often does the IMF publish the World Economic Outlook (WEO)?
    A) Once a year
    B) Twice a year
    C) Quarterly
    D) Every five years
    Answer: B) Twice a year
  8. What is the aim of the Longevity India Initiative?
    A) To extend human lifespan
    B) To extend the human health span
    C) To promote healthy eating habits
    D) To reduce healthcare costs
    Answer: B) To extend the human health span
  9. What type of collaboration is the Longevity India Initiative?
    A) National collaboration
    B) International collaboration
    C) Multidisciplinary collaboration
    D) Government collaboration
    Answer: C) Multidisciplinary collaboration
  10. What are the research areas of the Longevity India Initiative?
    A) Climate change adaptation
    B) Identifying biomarkers of ageing
    C) Space exploration
    D) Agricultural development
    Answer: B) Identifying biomarkers of ageing
  11. What did the study published by Nature Communications on April 18 extensively sequence?
    A) Human genome
    B) Covid-19 virus genome
    C) Mpox virus genome
    D) Zika virus genome
    Answer: C) Mpox virus genome
  12. What type of virus is the mpox virus?
    A) RNA virus
    B) DNA virus
    C) Retrovirus
    D) Prion
    Answer: B) DNA virus
  13. How is Mpox primarily transmitted?
    A) Through mosquitoes
    B) Through contaminated water
    C) Through respiratory secretions and skin lesions
    D) Through sexual contact
    Answer: C) Through respiratory secretions and skin lesions
  14. Which vaccine is effective against Mpox?
    A) Influenza vaccine
    B) JYNNEOS (Imvamune or Imvanex) vaccine
    C) Polio vaccine
    D) MMR vaccine
    Answer: B) JYNNEOS (Imvamune or Imvanex) vaccine
  15. Which technology was used to sequence the genome of the mpox virus?
    A) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
    B) Next-generation sequencing (NGS)
    C) Western blotting
    D) Gel electrophoresis
    Answer: B) Next-generation sequencing (NGS)
  16. What is the period during which a person remains healthy called?
    A) Lifespan
    B) Healthspan
    C) Wellness period
    D) Active years
    Answer: B) Healthspan
  17. Which of the following is NOT a concern highlighted in the IMF’s global financial stability report?
    A) Rising inflation
    B) Increasing cyber-attacks
    C) Decreasing geopolitical tensions
    D) Growing unregulated private credit market
    Answer: C) Decreasing geopolitical tensions
  18. What could potentially affect India’s status as a significant recipient of foreign capital?
    A) Stability in western central banks’ interest rates
    B) Increase in domestic interest rates
    C) Decrease in domestic interest rates
    D) Stable exchange rates
    Answer: A) Stability in western central banks’ interest rates
  19. What is the primary focus of the Longevity India Initiative?
    A) Increasing life expectancy
    B) Reducing healthcare costs
    C) Extending the human health span
    D) Preventing age-related diseases
    Answer: C) Extending the human health span
  20. Which vaccine is mentioned as effective against Mpox?
    A) Smallpox vaccine
    B) Measles vaccine
    C) Chickenpox vaccine
    D) JYNNEOS (Imvamune or Imvanex) vaccine
    Answer: D) JYNNEOS (Imvamune or Imvanex) vaccine
  21. When was the India Meteorological Department (IMD) established?
    a) 1857
    b) 1875
    c) 1901
    d) 1922
    Answer: b) 1875
  22. Which ministry does the India Meteorological Department (IMD) belong to?
    a) Ministry of Science and Technology
    b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    c) Ministry of Earth Sciences
    d) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
    Answer: c) Ministry of Earth Sciences
  23. What is the primary function of the India Meteorological Department (IMD)?
    a) Agricultural forecasting
    b) Providing seismology reports
    c) Providing meteorological observations and weather forecasts
    d) Wildlife conservation
    Answer: c) Providing meteorological observations and weather forecasts
  24. What are the stages of cyclone warnings issued by the IMD?
    a) Pre Cyclone Watch, Cyclone Alert, Cyclone Warning, Post Cyclone Watch
    b) Preliminary Warning, Cyclone Alert, Cyclone Warning, Post Landfall Outlook
    c) Cyclone Alert, Cyclone Warning, Post Landfall Outlook, Preliminary Warning
    d) Pre Cyclone Watch, Cyclone Alert, Typhoon Warning, Post Cyclone Outlook
    Answer: b) Preliminary Warning, Cyclone Alert, Cyclone Warning, Post Landfall Outlook
  25. Which organization is responsible for combating wildfires in Odisha?
    a) Odisha Forest Department
    b) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
    c) Orissa Special Armed Police (OSAP)
    d) Odisha Disaster Rapid Action Force (ODRAF)
    Answer: a) Odisha Forest Department
  26. How many forest fires were reported in Odisha this season, as mentioned in the text?
    a) 7,501
    b) 11,204
    c) 14,104
    d) 19,302
    Answer: c) 14,104
  27. What is the primary objective of the Odisha Disaster Rapid Action Force (ODRAF)?
    a) Wildlife conservation
    b) Combatting wildfires
    c) Providing seismology reports
    d) Rapid response to disasters
    Answer: d) Rapid response to disasters
  28. Which reserve in Odisha is addressing the issue of inbreeding by introducing a male tiger from Central India?
    a) Bhitarkanika National Park
    b) Similipal Tiger Reserve
    c) Nandankanan Zoological Park
    d) Satkosia Tiger Reserve
    Answer: b) Similipal Tiger Reserve
  29. When was Similipal Tiger Reserve declared a Biosphere Reserve by UNESCO?
    a) 1995
    b) 2001
    c) 2009
    d) 2015
    Answer: c) 2009
  30. What is the predominant terrain of Similipal Tiger Reserve?
    a) Desert
    b) Plain
    c) Undulating and hilly
    d) Marshland
    Answer: c) Undulating and hilly
  31. Which species of tree dominates the vegetation in Similipal Tiger Reserve?
    a) Pine
    b) Bamboo
    c) Sal
    d) Teak
    Answer: c) Sal
  32. What makes Similipal Tiger Reserve unique in terms of tiger population?
    a) It has the highest tiger population density in India
    b) It is the only reserve where tigers are not found
    c) It has a population of only white tigers
    d) It houses melanistic tigers
    Answer: d) It houses melanistic tigers
  33. Which tribes inhabit the Similipal Tiger Reserve area?
    a) Maasai, Inuit, Bedouin
    b) Kolha, Santhala, Bhumija
    c) Navajo, Yanomami, Sami
    d) Zulu, Aborigines, Mongolians
    Answer: b) Kolha, Santhala, Bhumija
  34. How many species of plants are found in Similipal Tiger Reserve?
    a) 500
    b) 786
    c) 1,078
    d) 1,345
    Answer: c) 1,078
  35. Which animal is not found in Similipal Tiger Reserve according to the text?
    a) Leopard
    b) Gaur
    c) Rhinoceros
    d) Sloth bear
    Answer: c) Rhinoceros
  36. What is the name of the highest peak in Similipal Tiger Reserve?
    a) Mount Everest
    b) Khairiburu
    c) K2
    d) Mount Kilimanjaro
    Answer: b) Khairiburu
  37. How many ODRAF units are there, as mentioned in the text?
    a) 10
    b) 15
    c) 20
    d) 25
    Answer: c) 20
  38. How far did the male tiger travel to reach Similipal Tiger Reserve?
    a) 500 km
    b) 750 km
    c) 1,000 km
    d) 1,250 km
    Answer: c) 1,000 km
  39. Which district houses the headquarters of the India Meteorological Department?
    a) Kolkata
    b) Mumbai
    c) New Delhi
    d) Chennai
    Answer: c) New Delhi
  40. How many districts in Odisha are likely to experience hailstorms, according to the forecast?
    a) Four
    b) Six
    c) Eight
    d) Ten
    Answer: b) Six
  41. Who confers the Padma awards?
    a) Prime Minister of India
    b) President of India
    c) Chief Justice of India
    d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
    Answer: b) President of India
  42. Which of the following individuals received the Padma Vibhushan award in 2024?
    a) M Fathima Beevi
    b) Sitaram Jindal
    c) Vyjayantimala Bali
    d) Parbati Baruah
    Answer: c) Vyjayantimala Bali
  43. Who among the following was awarded the Padma Bhushan posthumously in 2024?
    a) Konidela Chiranjeevi
    b) Mithun Chakraborty
    c) Satyabrata Mookherjee
    d) Usha Uthup
    Answer: c) Satyabrata Mookherjee
  44. Which state does Bindeshwar Pathak belong to, who received the Padma award for Social Work posthumously?
    a) West Bengal
    b) Tamil Nadu
    c) Kerala
    d) Bihar
    Answer: d) Bihar
  45. Who will be leading the Sagar Parikrama-IV expedition scheduled to commence in September?
    a) Lieutenant Commander Dilna K.
    b) Lieutenant Commander Roopa A.
    c) Both a) and b)
    d) None of the above
    Answer: c) Both a) and b)
  46. Which sea did the Indian Naval Sailing Vessel INSV Tarini return to after a historic transoceanic expedition?
    a) Arabian Sea
    b) Bay of Bengal
    c) Black Sea
    d) Indian Ocean
    Answer: d) Indian Ocean
  47. Who are the first women officers from India to accomplish a transoceanic expedition?
    a) Lieutenant Commander Dilna K. and Lieutenant Commander Roopa A.
    b) Lieutenant Commander Rajeshwari and Lieutenant Commander Anjali
    c) Captain Priya and Captain Meera
    d) None of the above
    Answer: a) Lieutenant Commander Dilna K. and Lieutenant Commander Roopa A.
  48. In which city was the Russian ship ‘Kommunua’ hit and damaged by the Ukrainian army?
    a) Moscow
    b) Sevastopol
    c) Kiev
    d) Odessa
    Answer: b) Sevastopol
  49. Which maritime exercise was conducted by the Indian Navy along the East Coast of India?
    a) Varuna
    b) Malabar
    c) Poorvi Lehar
    d) TROPEX
    Answer: c) Poorvi Lehar
  50. Poorvi Lehar exercise aimed at validating procedures to assess the Indian Navy’s preparedness to meet which challenges?
    a) Land Warfare
    b) Air Warfare
    c) Maritime Security
    d) Cyber Security
    Answer: c) Maritime Security
  51. Which country does not border the Black Sea?
    a) Ukraine
    b) Turkey
    c) Italy
    d) Romania
    Answer: c) Italy
  52. Who is preparing for the next monumental voyage, the Sagar Parikrama-IV expedition?
    a) Indian Army
    b) Indian Air Force
    c) Indian Navy
    d) Indian Coast Guard
    Answer: c) Indian Navy
  53. Which Padma awardee was recognized for their contribution to animal welfare in Assam?
    a) Konidela Chiranjeevi
    b) Hormusji N Cama
    c) Parbati Baruah
    d) Sitaram Jindal
    Answer: c) Parbati Baruah
  54. Which Padma awardee is associated with Literature & Education – Journalism from Maharashtra?
    a) M Fathima Beevi
    b) Hormusji N Cama
    c) Vyjayantimala Bali
    d) Chandreshwar Prasad Thakur
    Answer: b) Hormusji N Cama
  55. The Ukrainian army hit and damaged the Russian ship ‘Kommunua’ in which city?
    a) Moscow
    b) St. Petersburg
    c) Sevastopol
    d) Vladivostok
    Answer: c) Sevastopol
  56. Which of the following countries does not border the Black Sea?
    a) Russia
    b) Georgia
    c) Italy
    d) Turkey
    Answer: c) Italy
  57. Which Padma awardee is recognized for Medicine from Gujarat?
    a) Olanchery Rajagopal
    b) Tejas Madhusudan Patel
    c) Ram Naik
    d) Ashwin Balachand Mehta
    Answer: b) Tejas Madhusudan Patel
  58. The Indian Naval Sailing Vessel INSV Tarini returned to her base port at which city?
    a) Mumbai
    b) Kochi
    c) Goa
    d) Chennai
    Answer: c) Goa
  59. Which maritime exercise aimed at assessing the Indian Navy’s preparedness to meet Maritime Security challenges?
    a) Varuna
    b) Malabar
    c) Poorvi Lehar
    d) TROPEX
    Answer: c) Poorvi Lehar
  60. Who are the first women from India to accomplish a transoceanic expedition?
    a) Lieutenant Commander Dilna K. and Lieutenant Commander Roopa A.
    b) Captain Priya and Captain Meera
    c) Lieutenant Commander Rajeshwari and Lieutenant Commander Anjali
    d) None of the above
    Answer: a) Lieutenant Commander Dilna K. and Lieutenant Commander Roopa A.
  61. Who initiated the KISS Humanitarian Award?
    A) Ratan Tata
    B) Achyuta Samanta
    C) KIIT and KISS
    D) Tata Group
    Answer: B) Achyuta Samanta
  62. What does the gold-plated trophy of the KISS Humanitarian Award symbolize?
    A) Wealth and prosperity
    B) Selfless service to humanity
    C) Corporate excellence
    D) Academic achievement
    Answer: B) Selfless service to humanity
  63. Which city in India recorded the highest temperature in 2021?
    A) Delhi
    B) Mumbai
    C) Bhubaneswar
    D) Kolkata
    Answer: C) Bhubaneswar
  64. How many districts were affected by heat-related illnesses, according to the Odisha government?
    A) 10
    B) 16
    C) 17
    D) 89
    Answer: B) 16
  65. Which organization is set to monetize the Panikoili-Rimuli section of NH-20?
    A) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
    B) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
    C) National Highways Infra Trust (NHIT)
    D) Odisha government
    Answer: B) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
  66. What is NHAI’s target for monetizing highway stretches in the current fiscal year?
    A) 1,000 km
    B) 2,000 km
    C) 2,740 km
    D) 3,000 km
    Answer: C) 2,740 km
  67. Which mode will NHIT use for monetizing the Panikoili-Rimuli section?
    A) BOT
    B) TOT or InvIT
    C) InvIT
    D) Project-based financing
    Answer: B) TOT or InvIT
  68. What does NTEP stand for?
    A) National Tuberculosis Emergency Programme
    B) National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme
    C) National Tuberculosis Eradication Programme
    D) National Tuberculosis Extermination Programme
    Answer: B) National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme
  69. When has India pledged to eradicate tuberculosis?
    A) 2025
    B) 2030
    C) 2020
    D) 2040
    Answer: A) 2025
  70. Which initiative provides nutritional support to TB patients throughout their treatment?
    A) TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan
    B) Nikshay Poshan Yojana
    C) Airborne Infection Control
    D) TB Preventive Treatment Expansion
    Answer: B) Nikshay Poshan Yojana
  71. What is the grassroots movement launched to eliminate TB in India?
    A) TB Elimination Drive
    B) TB Eradication Campaign
    C) TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan
    D) TB Free India Initiative
    Answer: C) TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan
  72. What is the mode of transmission of TB?
    A) Waterborne
    B) Vector-borne
    C) Airborne
    D) Foodborne
    Answer: C) Airborne
  73. Which form of TB does not respond to first-line drugs?
    A) MDR-TB
    B) XDR-TB
    C) Latent TB
    D) Active TB
    Answer: A) MDR-TB
  74. What is the severe form of MDR-TB?
    A) XDR-TB
    B) Latent TB
    C) Active TB
    D) Drug-Sensitive TB
    Answer: A) XDR-TB
  75. What is the main symptom of TB?
    A) Fatigue
    B) Fever
    C) Cough with sputum
    D) Headache
    Answer: C) Cough with sputum
  76. Which demographic group is offered chemoprophylaxis in efforts to control TB?
    A) Elderly
    B) Children
    C) Pregnant women
    D) Adults
    Answer: B) Children
  77. What does SEAR stand for in the context of TB elimination?
    A) South-East Asia Region
    B) Southeast Asian Republics
    C) South European and Asian Regions
    D) South-East Africa Region
    Answer: A) South-East Asia Region
  78. Who remains committed to assisting neighboring countries with technical support for TB elimination?
    A) WHO
    B) UNICEF
    C) India
    D) Gates Foundation
    Answer: C) India
  79. What is the main cause of TB?
    A) Bacteria
    B) Virus
    C) Fungi
    D) Parasite
    Answer: A) Bacteria
  80. How many years earlier has India pledged to eradicate TB compared to the global target?
    A) 5 years
    B) 10 years
    C) 15 years
    D) 20 years
    Answer: A) 5 years
  81. What is the purpose of ISRO’s long-term satellite imagery from 1984 to 2023?
    A) Studying urbanization trends
    B) Monitoring glacial lake dynamics
    C) Tracking agricultural productivity
    D) Assessing forest cover changes
    Answer: B) Monitoring glacial lake dynamics
  82. What are Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) primarily caused by?
    A) Earthquakes
    B) Volcanic eruptions
    C) Glacier melting
    D) Heavy rainfall
    Answer: C) Glacier melting
  83. What makes glacial lakes particularly dangerous in terms of flooding risk?
    A) Stable ice dams
    B) Rock-solid boundaries
    C) Unstable ice or sediment dams
    D) Minimal water volume
    Answer: C) Unstable ice or sediment dams
  84. What action is Patanjali facing from the Supreme Court regarding its advertisements?
    A) Criminal charges
    B) Civil lawsuit
    C) Contempt action
    D) Defamation lawsuit
    Answer: C) Contempt action
  85. What is the purpose of Contempt of Court laws in India?
    A) To criticize judicial decisions
    B) To protect judicial institutions
    C) To undermine court authority
    D) To promote legal loopholes
    Answer: B) To protect judicial institutions
  86. Which article of the Indian Constitution designates the Supreme Court as a court of record?
    A) Article 121
    B) Article 122
    C) Article 129
    D) Article 130
    Answer: C) Article 129
  87. What is the governing law for contempt in India?
    A) Indian Penal Code
    B) Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
    C) Indian Evidence Act
    D) Constitution of India
    Answer: B) Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
  88. Which category of contempt includes actions that scandalize the authority of the court?
    A) Civil contempt
    B) Criminal contempt
    C) Constitutional contempt
    D) Judicial contempt
    Answer: B) Criminal contempt
  89. What do safeguard measures aim to protect?
    A) Domestic industries
    B) Foreign investments
    C) International trade agreements
    D) Intellectual property rights
    Answer: A) Domestic industries
  90. Which organization oversees safeguard measures under WTO agreements?
    A) IMF
    B) WHO
    C) WTO
    D) UNICEF
    Answer: C) WTO
  91. Which of the following is not a type of contingent trade protection measure under WTO?
    A) Safeguard measures
    B) Anti-dumping measures
    C) Countervailing measures
    D) Subsidy measures
    Answer: D) Subsidy measures
  92. What is the purpose of Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) scheme?
    A) Providing education scholarships
    B) Offering housing loans
    C) Providing financial assistance for medical treatment
    D) Funding agricultural projects
    Answer: C) Providing financial assistance for medical treatment
  93. Who administers the Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) scheme?
    A) Ministry of Finance
    B) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
    C) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
    D) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
    Answer: B) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  94. What is the threshold income for claiming benefits under the RAN scheme in rural areas?
    A) ₹1,571 per month
    B) ₹1,605 per month
    C) ₹96,000 annually
    D) ₹1,000 per month
    Answer: A) ₹1,571 per month
  95. Which court has instituted a case regarding the grant of financial assistance under the RAN scheme?
    A) Supreme Court of India
    B) Delhi High Court
    C) High Court of Bombay
    D) High Court of Calcutta
    Answer: B) Delhi High Court
  96. What is the annual income threshold for RAN scheme applicants?
    A) ₹1,571
    B) ₹1,605
    C) ₹96,000
    D) ₹10,000
    Answer: C) ₹96,000
  97. Which diseases are covered under the RAN scheme for medical treatment assistance?
    A) Common cold and flu
    B) Orthopedic injuries
    C) Life-threatening diseases like heart, kidney, liver, cancer, etc.
    D) Skin infections
    Answer: C) Life-threatening diseases like heart, kidney, liver, cancer, etc.
  98. What is the primary focus of ISRO’s satellite imagery from 1984 to 2023?
    A) Monitoring urban development
    B) Assessing forest fire risks
    C) Tracking changes in glacial lakes
    D) Studying agricultural patterns
    Answer: C) Tracking changes in glacial lakes
  99. What happens in Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs)?
    A) Volcanic eruptions trigger floods
    B) Massive amounts of water rush down mountainsides
    C) Glacial lakes freeze over
    D) River basins dry up
    Answer: B) Massive amounts of water rush down mountainsides
  100. Which law governs Contempt of Court in India?
    A) Indian Penal Code
    B) Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
    C) Constitution of India
    D) Judicial Procedures Code
    Answer: B) Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
  101. How many people suffered from acute hunger in 2023 according to a UN-led report?
    a) Approximately 250 million
    b) Almost 282 million
    c) Around 200 million
    d) Exactly 300 million
    Answer: b) Almost 282 million

     

  102. What were the main factors contributing to global food insecurity as per the report?
    a) Technological advancements
    b) Political stability
    c) Conflicts, extreme weather events, and economic shocks
    d) Population growth
    Answer: c) Conflicts, extreme weather events, and economic shocks

     

  103. Who released the global report on food crises?
    a) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
    b) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
    c) Food Security Information Network (FSIN)
    d) World Health Organization (WHO)
    Answer: c) Food Security Information Network (FSIN)

     

  104. How many more people were facing food insecurity in 2023 compared to 2022 according to the report?
    a) 10 million
    b) 24 million
    c) 50 million
    d) 100 million
    Answer: b) 24 million

     

  105. Which countries were experiencing major food crises according to the report?
    a) India, China, Brazil
    b) Afghanistan, India, Syria
    c) Nigeria, Yemen, Somalia
    d) Afghanistan, Democratic Republic of Congo, Ethiopia, Nigeria, Syria, Yemen
    Answer: d) Afghanistan, Democratic Republic of Congo, Ethiopia, Nigeria, Syria, Yemen

     

  106. What did the External Affairs Minister of India highlight at the First ASEAN Future Forum?
    a) India’s space exploration plans
    b) Cooperation between India and ASEAN in healthcare
    c) Synergy between India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IIPOI) and the ASEAN Outlook on Indo-Pacific (AOIP)
    d) India’s agricultural reforms

    Answer: c) Synergy between India’s Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IIPOI) and the ASEAN Outlook on Indo-Pacific (AOIP)

     

  107. According to the External Affairs Minister, what is central to India’s Act East policy?
    a) Association of South Asian Nations (ASEAN)
    b) Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IIPOI)
    c) European Union (EU)
    d) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
    Answer: a) Association of South Asian Nations (ASEAN)

     

  108. What is the main objective of upgrading the NCS portal by the Central government?
    a) Enhancing online shopping experience
    b) Linking millions of youths with prospective employers
    c) Providing free education
    d) Promoting tourism
    Answer: b) Linking millions of youths with prospective employers

     

  109. When was the National Career Service (NCS) portal launched?
    a) 2005
    b) 2010
    c) 2015
    d) 2020
    Answer: c) 2015

     

  110. Who implements the NCS portal?
    a) Ministry of Education
    b) Ministry of Labour & Employment
    c) Ministry of Finance
    d) Ministry of Health
    Answer: b) Ministry of Labour & Employment

     

  111. How can nuclear energy be utilized to stimulate the production of ‘pink’ hydrogen in India?
    a) By amending the solar energy laws
    b) By constructing more wind turbines
    c) By amending the nuclear law
    d) By promoting coal-based energy production
    Answer: c) By amending the nuclear law

     

  112. What is pink hydrogen generated through?
    a) Solar panels
    b) Wind turbines
    c) Nuclear energy-powered electrolysis
    d) Geothermal energy
    Answer: c) Nuclear energy-powered electrolysis

     

  113. What are other names for pink hydrogen?
    a) Green hydrogen
    b) Yellow hydrogen
    c) Purple hydrogen or red hydrogen
    d) Blue hydrogen
    Answer: c) Purple hydrogen or red hydrogen

     

  114. How can nuclear power benefit pink hydrogen production?
    a) By increasing production costs
    b) By increasing emissions
    c) By reducing production costs and emissions
    d) By promoting fossil fuel consumption
    Answer: c) By reducing production costs and emissions

     

  115. What are the promising applications of pink hydrogen?
    a) Agriculture and fishing
    b) Textile industry
    c) Cement industry, steel industry, aviation, and heavy transportation
    d) Retail and hospitality
    Answer: c) Cement industry, steel industry, aviation, and heavy transportation

     

  116. What does the NCS portal provide to its registered users?
    a) Online grocery delivery
    b) Online career counseling and vocational guidance
    c) Free healthcare services
    d) Discount coupons for shopping
    Answer: b) Online career counseling and vocational guidance

     

  117. What is the aim of the NCS portal?
    a) To promote tourism
    b) To help jobseekers make informed career choices
    c) To sell educational courses
    d) To provide entertainment content
    Answer: b) To help jobseekers make informed career choices

     

  118. How does the NCS portal facilitate job-matching?
    a) Through online gaming
    b) Through social media platforms
    c) Through a nation-wide online platform for job seekers and employers
    d) Through traditional job fairs
    Answer: c) Through a nation-wide online platform for job seekers and employers

     

  119. What is the ultimate goal of the NCS portal upgrade?
    a) To promote political campaigns
    b) To prepare a future-ready workforce
    c) To encourage entrepreneurship
    d) To provide legal consultation services
    Answer: b) To prepare a future-ready workforce

     

  120. What was the outlook described as in the global report on food crises?
    a) Promising
    b) Bleak
    c) Optimistic
    d) Uncertain
    Answer: b) Bleak
  121. What is the projected global income reduction by 2050 due to climate change according to the study published in Nature journal?
    A) 22%
    B) 13%
    C) 19%
    D) 60%
    Answer: C) 19%

     

  122. Which country is expected to face a higher income loss than the global average according to the study?
    A) China
    B) India
    C) United States
    D) Brazil
    Answer: B) India

     

  123. Which institute conducted the study on the economic impact of climate change as reported in the Nature journal?
    A) Oxford University
    B) Potsdam Institute for Climate Impacts Research
    C) Harvard University
    D) Stanford University
    Answer: B) Potsdam Institute for Climate Impacts Research

     

  124. What are the primary drivers of economic setbacks mentioned in the study?
    A) Decreased labor productivity
    B) Rising sea levels
    C) Altered rainfall patterns
    D) Increased international trade
    Answer: C) Altered rainfall patterns

     

  125. Which regions are anticipated to bear severe consequences according to the study?
    A) North America and Europe
    B) South Asia and Africa
    C) South America and Australia
    D) East Asia and Middle East
    Answer: B) South Asia and Africa

     

  126. What was the total annual global loss projected by the study for 2050?
    A) $50 trillion
    B) $38 trillion
    C) $20 trillion
    D) $10 trillion
    Answer: B) $38 trillion

     

  127. Which countries are mentioned as vulnerable to income reductions despite being highly developed?
    A) China and India
    B) European Union and Russia
    C) United States and Canada
    D) European Union and United States
    Answer: D) European Union and United States

     

  128. What is emphasized as a cost-effective solution to mitigate economic losses due to climate change?
    A) Investing in healthcare
    B) Building more infrastructure
    C) Investing in climate protection
    D) Developing new technologies
    Answer: C) Investing in climate protection

     

  129. According to the study, what is stressed as a necessity for safeguarding economic stability?
    A) Continued reliance on fossil fuels
    B) Transition towards renewable energy sources
    C) Reducing investment in agriculture
    D) Increasing carbon emissions
    Answer: B) Transition towards renewable energy sources

     

  130. What is the name of the Odisha government’s program aimed at providing free residential schooling for needy ST and SC children?
    A) Ananya
    B) Annapurna
    C) Anwesha
    D) Antariksha
    Answer: C) Anwesha

     

  131. How many districts has the Anwesha program been extended to in Odisha?
    A) 12
    B) 17
    C) 20
    D) 25
    Answer: B) 17

     

  132. How many children are estimated to benefit from the Anwesha program in Odisha?
    A) 10,000
    B) 20,000
    C) 22,340
    D) 30,000
    Answer: C) 22,340

     

  133. What is the primary objective of the Anwesha program?
    A) Providing vocational training
    B) Promoting cultural activities
    C) Integrating children from ST and SC categories into mainstream education
    D) Providing financial support to families
    Answer: C) Integrating children from ST and SC categories into mainstream education

     

  134. What facilities are provided by the Anwesha program to the enrolled students?
    A) Indoor and outdoor recreational facilities
    B) Nutritious diet
    C) Study materials
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above

     

  135. Who acts as “after-school mentors” to the students enrolled in the Anwesha program?
    A) Principals of the schools
    B) Parents of the students
    C) Specialized subject teachers
    D) Government officials
    Answer: C) Specialized subject teachers

     

  136. What is the wellness grant provided to the students enrolled in the Anwesha program?
    A) Rs 100 per month
    B) Rs 150 per month
    C) Rs 200 per month
    D) Rs 250 per month
    Answer: C) Rs 200 per month

     

  137. What has been the response of parents to the Anwesha program?
    A) Criticism
    B) Indifference
    C) Gratitude
    D) Resistance
    Answer: C) Gratitude

     

  138. What has led to the extension of the Anwesha program for another five years?
    A) Decrease in enrollment
    B) Government budget cuts
    C) Program’s success
    D) External pressure
    Answer: C) Program’s success

     

  139. In which year was Similipal declared a biosphere reserve by the Government of India?
    A) 1956
    B) 1973
    C) 1994
    D) 2009
    Answer: C) 1994

     

  140. How many protected areas does the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve encompass?
    A) One
    B) Two
    C) Three
    D) Four
    Answer: C) Three
  141. What was the purpose of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)?
    a) To increase government control over judicial appointments
    b) To replace the Collegium system for judicial appointments
    c) To enhance transparency and accountability in judicial appointments
    d) To delegate judicial appointments entirely to the President
    Answer: b) To replace the Collegium system for judicial appointments

     

  142. When was the NJAC introduced?
    a) 2013
    b) 2014
    c) 2015
    d) 2016
    Answer: b) 2014

     

  143. Why was the NJAC declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court?
    a) It infringed upon the executive’s powers
    b) It lacked transparency and accountability
    c) It violated the basic structure of the Constitution
    d) It favored certain political parties in appointments
    Answer: c) It violated the basic structure of the Constitution

     

  144. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the NJAC?
    a) 98th
    b) 99th
    c) 100th
    d) 101st
    Answer: b) 99th

     

  145. What system did the NJAC aim to replace?
    a) Executive appointment system
    b) Parliamentary appointment system
    c) Collegium system
    d) Presidential appointment system
    Answer: c) Collegium system

     

  146. What criticism was directed towards the Collegium system?
    a) Lack of diversity in appointments
    b) Lack of transparency and accountability
    c) Political interference in appointments
    d) Excessive judicial activism
    Answer: b) Lack of transparency and accountability

     

  147. Who declared the NJAC unconstitutional?
    a) President
    b) Prime Minister
    c) Parliament
    d) Supreme Court
    Answer: d) Supreme Court

     

  148. What was the role of the government in the NJAC?
    a) Sole authority in appointments
    b) Equal role with judiciary in appointments
    c) No role in appointments
    d) Advisory role in appointments
    Answer: b) Equal role with judiciary in appointments

     

  149. Which Act was passed along with the 99th Constitutional Amendment to establish the NJAC?
    a) National Judicial Reforms Act
    b) National Judicial Appointments Commission Act
    c) Supreme Court Amendment Act
    d) Constitutional Amendment Act
    Answer: b) National Judicial Appointments Commission Act

     

  150. What did the Supreme Court reinstate after declaring the NJAC unconstitutional?
    a) Executive appointment system
    b) Parliamentary appointment system
    c) Collegium system
    d) Presidential appointment system
    Answer: c) Collegium system