ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ 2024 Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | December 1st Week

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Q1. Struggle-Victory (S-V) strategy was suggested by-

(a)  Mahatma Gandhi

(b)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(c)  Aurobindo Ghosh

(d)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

 

S1.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Criticising the S-T-S strategy, Nehru argued that the Indian national movement had reached a stage after the Lahore Congress call for the purna swaraj programme, in which there should be a continuous confrontation and conflict with imperialism till it was overthrown. He advocated the maintenance of a “continuous direct action” policy by Congress and without the interposition of a constitutionalist phase. Real power, he said, cannot be won by two annas and four annas. Against an S-T-S strategy, he suggested a Struggle-Victory (S-V) strategy

 

Q2. With reference to Central Bank Digital Currency, consider the following statements :

1. The RBI has launched this digital currency based on blockchain technology only in retail

segments.

2. Like cash, this digital currency will not earn any interest per se and can be converted to other

money forms.

3. It is issued in denominations that are different from paper currency and coins.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

 

S2.Ans.(a)

Sol.

A central bank digital currency (CBDC) is the digital form of a country’s fiat currency. A CBDC is issued and regulated by a nation’s monetary authority or central bank (RBI). CBDCs promote financial inclusion and simplify the implementation of monetary and fiscal policy. The idea for central bank digital currencies stems from cryptocurrencies and blockchain technology; CBDCs are not cryptocurrencies. The RBI has launched pilots of CBDC in both the Wholesale and Retail segments. The pilot in the wholesale segment, known as the Digital Rupee -Wholesale (e₹-W), was launched on November 1, 2022. The use case was limited to settling secondary market transactions in government securities. The pilot in the retail segment, known as digital Rupee-Retail (e₹-R), was launched on December 01, 2022, within a closed user group (CUG) comprising participating customers and merchants. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

A token-based CBDC may be issued with minimum value or fixed denominations, the same as existing physical currency denominations. Using the minimum value of the token may result in higher volume and, thus, increase processing time and performance issues. Further, the physical appearance (touch and feel) of cash in India imparts trust to the public to undertake cash transactions. The introduction of CBDC with fixed Denominations as in physical currencies in denominations of Rs. 500, 100, 50 etc., shall facilitate building the same level of trust and experience among the public in digital form. This similarity with existing currency is expected to induce wider acceptance and adoption of CBDC. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the light-mantled albatross:

1. It is a seabird native to the Antarctic seas and forages over the cold Antarctic.
2. It was recently spotted in India for the first time.
3. It is classified as near threatened on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Recent Context: Rare flight of Antarctic’s Light-mantled Albatross to T.N. coast intrigues researchers.
• Asia’s first sighting of the Light-mantled Albatross, a seabird native to the Antarctic seas, was recorded near Rameswaram coast (Tamil Nadu). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• This seabird habits over a circumpolar distribution in the Southern Ocean and forages over the cold Antarctic waters as far south as the pack ice in summer. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It breeds on several sub-Antarctic islands, such as Macquarie Islands, Heard Island and McDonald Islands (Australia), South Georgia Island (British Overseas Territory), Prince Edward Islands (South Africa), Iles Kerguelen and Iles Crozet (France), and Auckland, Campbell, and Antipodes Islands (New Zealand).
• IUCN status: Near Threatened. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

Q4. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana 2.0?

1. It aims to provide free electricity connections to poor households.
2. In rural India, the connections will be issued in the name of the women of the households.
3. In Ujjwala 2.0, migrants will not be required to submit ration cards or address proof.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is a scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural introduced to safeguard women’s and children’s health by providing them with clean cooking fuel such as LPG available to rural and deprived households, which were otherwise using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal, 30 cow-dung cakes etc. Using traditional cooking fuels had detrimental impacts on rural women’s health and the environment. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) connections under Ujjwala 2.0aim to provide deposit-free LPGconnections to those low-income families along with free first refill and stove. Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana is to provide electricity connections to all un-electrified households in rural and urban areas to achieve universal household electrification. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) ensures women’s empowerment, especially in rural India, and the connections will be issued in the name of women of the households. So, Statement 2 is correct.

In Ujjwala 2.0, migrants will not be required to submit ration cards or address proof. Instead, a self- declaration for both a ‘family declaration’ and a ‘proof of address will suffice. Ujjwala 2.0 will help to achieve the vision of universal access to LPG. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding national Emblem

1. The Constituent Assembly decided on the Sarnath pillar as the national emblem
2. The emblem depicting the words Satyameva Jayate (truth alone triumphs written below it, was taken from the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 only

(b)  2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d)  Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

As India won independence, the Constituent Assembly decided on the Sarnath pillar as the national emblem. It was felt that the pillar epitomized the power, courage, and confidence of the free nation. The emblem depicts a two-dimensional sculpture with the words Satyameva Jayate (truth alone triumphs) written below it, taken from the Mundaka Upanishad, written in Devanagari script.

Five students of renowned artist Nandalal Bose created the emblem. Among them were Jagdish Mittal, Kripal Singh Shekhawat, Gauri Bhanja, and Dinanath Bhargava who was a young man in his 20s then.

 

 

Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence

(GPIA) :

1. GPAI is an international initiative resulting from the fruition of ideas within G7 to promote

responsible AI use.

2. India joined GPAI as a founding member.
3. Membership in GPAI is open to all countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S6.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) is a multi-stakeholder initiative that aims to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities.

It is an international initiative to support responsible and human-centric development and the use of Artificial Intelligence (AI). GPAI was launched in June 2020 with 15 members initially, and it is the fruition of an idea developed within the G7. 128 As of now, GPAI has 29 members, and they are Argentina, Australia, Belgium, Brazil, Canada, Czech Republic, Denmark, France, Germany, India, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Mexico, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Poland, the Republic of Korea, Senegal, Serbia, Singapore, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Turkiye, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union. India joined the GPAI as a founding member in 2020, and it will actively participate in the global development of Artificial Intelligence, leveraging upon its experience around use of digital technologies for inclusive growth. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Membership in GPAI is open to countries, including emerging and developing countries. Members are expected to provide funding for the GPAI Secretariat principally through voluntary financial contributions. In-kind contributions (e.g. loaning or seconding staff) may be accepted by the OECD. Members will also be responsible for funding their officials’ own travel and accommodations for GPAI meetings and events. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q7. An inflationary gap signals that the economy is in which part of the trade cycle?

(a) Boom

(b) Recession

(c) Depression

(d) Recovery

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

It is a situation where resources are being used over their capacity, factories are operating with increasing average costs; wage rates increase because labour is used beyond normal hours at overtime pay rates. The inflationary gap is so named because the relative increase in real GDP causes an economy to increase its consumption, which causes prices to rise in the long run. The main cause of the gap is considered to be expansionary monetary policies carried out by the government.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements about ‘Law Commission of India’

1. It is statutory body constituted by the Government of India under the Ministry of Law and justice
2. The first Law Commission was established during the British Raj era and was chaired by Lord Cornwallis
3. The recommendations of the commission are not binding on the government

Choose the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

 

 

S8.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Law Commission of India is an executive body established by an order of the Government of India. The commission’s function is to research and advise the government on legal reform, and is composed of legal experts, and headed by a retired judge. The commission is established for a fixed tenure and works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice. The first Law Commission was established in 1834 by the British government under the chairmanship of Lord Macaulay. The recommendations of the commission are not binding on the government. “They are recommendations. They may be accepted or rejected. Action on the said recommendations depends on the ministries/departments, which are concerned with the subject matter of the recommendations.” This has resulted in a number of important and critical recommendations not being implemented

 

Q9. Consider the following statements :

1. India’s first Artificial Intelligence & Robotics Technology Park (ARTPARK) is a joint venture of India

and Germany.

2. ARTPARK will work as a statutory body under the Ministry of Electronics and information

technology.

3. It is funded by the private and government under the PPP model.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Artificial Intelligence & Robotics Technology Park (ARTPARK) is a not for profit foundation promoted by Indian Institute of Sciences (IISc) Banglore. It is India’s first Artificial Intelligence & Robotics Technology Park which work on Public-Private model. ARTPARK is a joint venture of IISc and AI Foundry, not Germany. Thus,it is not a Statutory body under the Ministry of Electronics and Informaion Technology.So, Statement 1 and 2 are not correct.

ARTPARK is funded by private and government under the public-private partnership (PPP) model, with a seed funding of Rs. 170 Cr ($22mn) from the Department of Science & Technology(DST), Govt. of India, under the National Mission on Inter-disciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS), it will bring about a collaborative consortium of partners from industry, academia and government bodies. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements with reference to the National Logistics Policy 2022 :

1. It aims to create a data-driven decision-support mechanism for an efficient logistics ecosystem.
2. It aims to reduce India’s logistics cost to a level comparable to global benchmarks by 2030.
3. It aims to make India among the top 25 countries by 2030 in the Logistics Performance Index.
4. It is formulated by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is implemented in complement to the PM-Gati Shakti scheme.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(c) Only three statements

(d) All four statements

 

S10.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Recently, National Logistics Policy (NLP) was launched, which aims to lower the existing cost of logistics in India from the present 14% of GDP to less than 10% on par with other developed country’s global benchmarks by 2030 and to create a data-driven decision support mechanism for an efficient logistics ecosystem. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

This policy also targeted to improve India’s ranking in Logistics Performance Index to be among the top 25 countries by 2030. And it was formulated by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry will improve India’s trade competitiveness, create more jobs, improve India’s performance in global rankings and pave the way for India to become a logistics hub. This policy was implemented to complement the PM Gati Shakti- National Master Plan scheme. So, Statements 3 and 4 are correct.

 

Q11. Among the many committees that were constituted to review of the functioning of local government institutions, few recommended constitutional recognition for the local government bodies. Which among the committee was latest which lead to the constitutionalising of the local bodies?

(a) GVK Rao Committee

(b) LM Singhvi Committee

(c) Thungon Committee

(d) Ashok Mehta Committee

 

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The term Panchayati Raj in India signifies the system of rural local self-government. In 1988, a sub-committee of the Consultative Committee of Parliament was constituted under P.K. Thungon to examine the political and administrative structure in the district for district planning. The Panchayati Raj bodies should be constitutionally recognized with A three-tier system of panchayats at the village, block and district levels. Therefore, P.K. Thungon Committee led to the constitutionalising of the local bodies. So, Option (c) is correct.

 

Q12.Consider the following statements

1. The Dutch founded their first factory in Masulipatnam (in Andhra)
2. They captured Nagapatam near Madras (Chennai) from the french and made it their main stronghold in South India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Dutch Settlements After their arrival in India, the Dutch founded their first factory in Masulipatnam (in Andhra) in 1605. They went on to establish trading centres in different parts of India and thus became a threat to the Portuguese. They captured Nagapatam near Madras (Chennai) from the Portuguese and made it their main stronghold in South India. The Dutch established factories on the Coromandel coast, in Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bengal and Bihar

 

Q13. Consider the following statements with reference to Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) :

1. ESZ must be at least 1 km around any protected wildlife area.
2. The size of ESZ around any protected area need not be uniformly fixed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S13.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Recently, the Supreme Court had directed that each protected area, every national park and wildlife sanctuary in India would establish an Eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of at least 1 kilometre starting from its demarcated boundaries where there is no mining construction and other new establishment projects will be allowed. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The size of ESZ is not uniformly fixed around any protected area, all national parks and sanctuaries, because it could have variable width and extent. According to Wildlife Conservation Strategy 2002, Lands falling within 10 km (maximum) of the boundaries of National Parks and Sanctuaries can be notified as eco-fragile zones. So, Statement 2 is Correct.

 

Q14. The Government enacted, the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

(a) To provided self-governance

(b) To recognize traditional rights

(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

(d) To free tribal people from exploitation

 

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. The PESA Act was enacted to extend the provisions of 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts to the Fifth Schedule areas. Thus, it was meant to provide institutions of local self-governance in the Scheduled Areas and to recognize the traditional rights of the tribals. The provisions of this Act address some of the most complex problems of exploitation and marginalization of the tribals. The act did not have any provisions of creating any autonomous regions

 

Q15. With reference to the Light-mantled albatross, consider the following statements :

1. The Species is endemic to Antarctic seas.
2. It is a biennial breeder, which usually nests in mass colonies like Olive Ridley turtles.
3. Recently, it was sighted for the first time in Asia during its visit to Tamil Nadu’s Rameshwaram coast.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Light-mantled albatross, also called the grey-mantled albatross, or the light-mantled sooty albatross is a large pelagic bird (birds that spend a large portion of their lives on the open ocean) was recently sighted for the first time in Asia in Tamil Nadu’s Rameshwaram coast. These bird species are endemic to the Antarctic seas that are dispersed over cold Antarctic waters in summer as far south as the pack ice but ranges north into temperate and sub-tropical seas in winter. So, Statements 1, and 3 are correct.

These species are biennial breeders, usually nesting solitarily or in small colonies. Most eggs are laid in October-November, hatch in December-January and chicks fledge in May-June (Croxall and Gales 1998). Egg laying is highly synchronous within each colony. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q16. Consider the following statements about Social Progressive Index (SPI) for States and Districts :

1. The National Sample Survey Organisation compiles this holistic measure of national and state

social progress index.

2. Basic Human Needs, Foundations of well-being, and Opportunities are the dimensions for this

index calculation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S16.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Social Progress Index (SPI) is a comprehensive tool that can serve as a holistic measure of a country’s social progress at the national and sub-national levels. Social Progress Index (SPI) for Nations, States and Districts was compiled by the Institute for Competitiveness and Social Progress Imperative. Social Progress Index (SPI) for States and Districts was released by the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) and not by the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO). So, Statement 1 is not correct.

The Social Progressive index assesses states and districts based on 12 components across three critical dimensions of social progress – Basic Human Needs, Foundations of well-being, and Opportunity. Social Progressive index uses an extensive framework comprising 89 indicators at the state level and 49 at the district level. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q17. In 1988, British ecologist Norman Myers introduced the concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’. Consider the following statements with respect to biodiversity hotspots:

1. For a place to be declared a biodiversity hotspot, it should have at least 1500 endemic animal species.
2. The Sundaland Biodiversity Hotspot and Indo-Burma hotspot are the only two biodiversity hotspots present in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• In 1988, British ecologist Norman Myers published a seminal paper identifying 10 tropical forest “hotspots.” He introduced the concept of biodiversity hotspots These regions were characterized both by exceptional levels of plant endemism and serious levels of habitat loss.
• Subsequently, Conservation International in association with Mayers introduced two strict quantitative criteria, for a region to qualify as Biodiversity Hotspot
• It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics — which is to say, it must have a high percentage of plant life found nowhere else on the planet. A hotspot, in other words, is irreplaceable. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation. In other words, it must be threatened.
• There are 36 Biodiversity Hotspots in the world which represent just 2.5% of Earth’s land but support over 50% of the world’s endemic species.
• India is home to 4 biodiversity hotspots out of 36, namely:

o The Himalayas: Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Myanmar)

o Indo-Burma: Includes entire North-eastern India, except Assam and Andaman group of islands (and Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, and southern China)

o Western Ghats & Sri Lanka: Includes entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka)

o Sundaland

• Sundaland consists of the Western half of the Indonesian archipelago. The part of India that falls in the Sundaland Hotspot is the Nicobar Islands. It does not contain the whole of the Andaman and Nicobar Island group. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q18.  The Reserve Bank has specified certain regulatory trigger points, as a part of the prompt corrective action (PCA) Framework. Which of the following are those

1. Capital to risk-weighted assets ratio (CRAR)
2. Net non-performing assets (NPA)
3. Return on Assets (RoA)
4. Common Equity Tier-I

Select the correct code

(a)  1, 2

(b)  2,3,4

(c)  1,2,3

(d)  1,2,3,4

 

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Reserve Bank has specified certain regulatory trigger points, as a part of prompt corrective action (PCA) framework, in terms of three parameters, i.e. capital to risk-weighted assets ratio (CRAR), net non-performing assets (NPA), and Return on Assets (RoA), for initiation of certain structured and discretionary actions in respect of banks hitting such trigger points. The PCA framework is applicable only to commercial banks and not extended to cooperative banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), and FMIs.

 

Q19. Consider the following statements regarding the features of the Government of India Act 1935

1. Provinces henceforth derived their legal authority directly from the British Crown
2. 90% of the budget was made votable
3. Adult Franchise was extended to women

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)  1 and 2

(b)  2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d)  1,2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Features of The Government of India Act of 1935

• Provincial autonomy replaced dyarchy.
• Provinces were granted autonomy and separate legal identity.
• Provinces were freed from “the superintendence, direction” of the secretary of state and governor-general. Provinces henceforth derived their legal authority directly from the British crownall members were to be directly elected. The franchise was extended; women got the right on the same basis as men.
• Ministers were to administer all provincial subjects in a council of ministers headed by a premier.
• Ministers were made answerable to and removable by the adverse vote of the legislature.
• Provincial legislature could legislate on subjects in provincial and concurrent lists.
• 40 per cent of the budget was still not votable.
• Governor could (a) refuse assent to a bill, (b) promulgate ordinances, (c) enact governor’s Act 40 per cent of the budget was still not votable.

 

Q20. Which of the following weapon systems uses kinetic energy instead of explosives to destroy its

target?

1. ASAT missile of India
2. Hellfire R9X of USA
3. Dongfeng 17
4. Spike missile

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

 

S20.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• A kinetic energy weapon is a weapon system developed solely based on a projectile’s kinetic energy instead of explosives whereby it is basically a hit-to-kill technology similar to a bullet fired from a gun
• They are generally anti-ballistic in nature.
• Examples of anti- ballistic missiles are ASAT, Hellfire R9X. Israeli Arrow 3. So, Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Dongfeng 17 and spike missiles are ballistic missiles that use explosive materials for executing the target. So, Statement 3 and 4 are not correct.

 

Q21. Consider the following statement with reference to CAPSTONE spacecraft sometimes seen in the news:

1. It was launched by Japanese space Agency JAXA.
2. Its primary objective is to test and verify the calculated orbital stability of a Near Rectilinear Halo Orbit around the Moon.
3. It is the part of Artemis Program.

Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement1 is incorrect: NASA launched CAPSTONE, a microwave oven-sized CubeSat weighing just 55 pounds (25 kg). CAPSTONE, short for Cislunar Autonomous Positioning System Technology Operations and Navigation Experiment, is designed to test a unique, elliptical lunar orbit.

Statement 2 is correct: CAPSTONE’s primary objective is to test and verify the calculated orbital stability of a Near Rectilinear Halo Orbit around the Moon, the same orbit planned for Gateway. NASA’s Gateway is a small space station that will orbit around the Moon to provide astronauts with access to the lunar surface. It will feature living quarters for astronauts, a lab for science and research and ports for visiting spacecraft. CAPSTONE is one of the first steps to learn how to operate more robust missions in this unique orbit, thus laying the groundwork for future exploration of our solar system.

Statement 3 is correct: As a pathfinder for Gateway, a Moon-orbiting outpost that is part of NASA’s Artemis program, CAPSTONE will help reduce risk for future spacecraft by validating innovative navigation technologies and verifying the dynamics of this halo-shaped orbit.

 

Q22. Arrange the following west-flowing rivers of India from south to north direction :

1. Mahadayi
2. Damanganga
3. Savitri
4. Purna

Select the correct answer from the codes given below ?

(a) 4-2-3-1

(b) 1-2-3-4

(c) 1-3-2-4

(d) 4-3-1-2

 

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The west-flowing rivers are smaller and lesser in number than the east-flowing rivers.

The following west-flowing rivers of India from south to north direction are:

• The Mahadayi river rises in western ghats in Karnataka.
• The Savitri river originates from the Mahabaleshwar hills in Maharashtra.
• The Damanganga river rises in the Sahyadri hill, Nasik district of Maharashtra.
• The river Purna originates in the Ajanta Range of hills in Aurangabad District, Maharashtra.

So, Option (c) is correct.

 

Q23. With respect to Barchan, consider the following statements:

1. These are crescentic shaped dunes which always occur individually in desert regions.
2. Strong winds blow sand in one direction in desert region favour the Barchan formation.
3. The windward slope of the barchan is gentle and concave while the leeward slope is steep and convex.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Aeolian landforms:

Depositional landforms:

Sand dunes:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Barchan are crescentic or moon shaped dunes which occur individually or in groups.

Statement 2 is correct: Barchans arise in deserts where the ground is hard and flat and strong winds blow sand in one direction. Thousands of the dunes can occupy a narrow strip. Fueled by wind, the dunes travel at different paces and can traverse up to 100 meters in a year.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Barchans windward side is convex and gently – sloping while the leeward side, being sheltered, is concave and steep. The collisions prevent dunes from growing out of control. If two barchan dunes collide, they can merge into one crescent or they can split up into multiple smaller barchans.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements with reference to the Himalayas :

1. It is a complex mountain system formed mostly of sedimentary and metamorphic rocks.
2. The Shiwaliks are separated from the Northern Plains of India by the Main Boundary Thrust.
3. Duns and Duars are the longitudinal valleys or alluvial plains found in the Himalayan region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Fold mountains are defined by complex, vital geologic forms known as folds. Fold mountains are created where two or more of Earth’s tectonic plates are pushed together. At these colliding, compressing boundaries, rocks and debris are warped and folded into rocky outcrops, hills, mountains, and entire mountain ranges. Most of these mountains are composed primarily of sedimentary rock and metamorphic rock formed under high pressure and relatively low temperatures.
• The rugged, soaring heights of the Himalayas, Andes, and Alps are all active fold mountains. The sedimentary rocks of the Himalayas include shale and limestone. Metamorphic rocks of the region include schist and gneiss. So, Statement 1 is correct.

A surface along which a rocking body has broken/fractured and has been displaced is known as a fault. The Himalayan Front Fault is the one that separates the Great Plains of India from the Shiwaliks, whereas the Main Boundary Fault separates the Shiwaliks from the Lesser Himalayas. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The Outer Himalayas or the Siwaliks is the outermost range of the Himalayas. The altitude varies between 900-1100 meters and the width lies between 10-50 KM. They have low hills like Jammu Hills, etc. The longitudinal valleys lying between Siwalik and Lesser Himalayas (Himachal) are called Duars and ‘Duns’ like Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun, and Patli Dun are also present here. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q25. What was the key ruling of the Supreme Court in the ‘State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan’ case?

(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy have a position of legal primacy and supremacy over the Fundamental Rights.

(b) Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles.

(c) The Fundamental Rights can never be amended by the Parliament, even by enacting Constitutional amendment acts.

(d) The Fundamental Rights would prevail over the Directive Principles of State Policy, in case of any conflict between the two.

 

S25.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer.

Option d is correct and Option c is incorrect. The State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India. This judgement led to the first amendment of the Constitution of India. The Supreme court held that Directive Principles of State Policy have to conform to and run as subsidiary to the Chapter of Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the former would prevail. But, it also held that the Fundamental Rights could be amended by the Parliament by enacting constitutional amendment acts.

Option a is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment Act accorded the position of legal primacy and supremacy to the Directive Principles over the Fundamental Rights conferred by Articles 14, 19 and 31. However, this extension was declared as unconstitutional and invalid by the Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980). It meant that the Directive Principles were once again made subordinate to the Fundamental Rights.

Option b is incorrect. In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court also held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. They together constitute the core of commitment to social revolution. They are like two wheels of a chariot, one no less than the other. To give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution. This harmony and balance between the two is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.