Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | March 3rd Week 2023

Q1. Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the early demands of the Moderates?

(a) They demanded a reduction in land revenue and salt duty

(b) They demanded policies to help in the growth of Indian industries and handicrafts

(c) They demanded the repeal of the Arms Act

(d) They demanded to abolish Permanent Settlement from all parts of India

 

S1.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Congress program during the first phase (1885-1905) was very modest. It demanded moderate constitutional reforms, economic relief, administrative reorganization, and defense of civil rights. Some of the important demands were as follows,

• Organization of the provincial councils.
• Simultaneous examination for the I.C.S. in India and England.
• Reduction in land revenue and salt duty.
• Abolition or reconstitution of the Indian Council.
• Separation of the Judiciary from the executive.
• Repeal of the Arms Act.
• Appointment of Indians to the commissioned ranks in the Army. •Reduction of military expenditure and
• Introduction of Permanent Settlement to other parts of India. But with respect to the Permanent Settlement, the moderates did not demand the abolishment of Permanent Settlement from all parts but rather demanded the extension to other parts.

 

Q2. With reference to 17th October 1940 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct ?

(a) Establishment of Indian National Army by Subash chandra Bose

(b) Mahatma Gandhi had chosen Acharya Vinoba Bhave as the first satyagrahi to start personal satyagraha

(c) Establishment of Swaraj Party by C.R.Das and Motilal Nehru

(d) Viceroy Linlithgow announced the Cripps Mission on behalf of British Parliament.

 

S2.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Subhas Chandra Bose reorganized and revitalized the Indian National Army under Mohan Singh and Major- General Shah Nawaz Khan in Singapore in May 1943. So, Option (a) is not correct. On October 17, 1940, Mahatma Gandhi chose Acharya Vinoba Bhave as the first satyagrahi (proponent of satyagraha) to start personal satyagraha (a movement that meant holding to the truth) and Jawaharlal Nehru as the second. The British Colonial government had committed India to the Second World War without the consent of the Indian leaders. To oppose this decision by the foreign government, the Congress party launched individual satyagraha. So, Option (b) is correct. Chittaranjan Das formed the Congress-Khilafat-Swaraj Party within the Congress on 31 December 1922. He was aided by Motilal Nehru and Malaviya from UP, Lajpat Rai from Punjab, M. R. Jayakar and Vithalbhai Patel from Gujarat, the ‘Tilak group’ from Bombay and some leaders from south India. It became both a minority faction within the Congress and an independent organization ‘running candidates for legislatures outside the purview of the Congress. The plan, program and constitution of the Swaraj Party (Swarajya Party) were drawn up at its first conference in Allahabad in 1924. Chittaranjan Das became the President of this new party, and Motilal Nehru was one of its secretaries. So, Option (c) is not correct. Cripps Mission was sent to India to discuss the British Government’s Draft Declaration on the Constitution of India with representative Indian leaders from all parties. Cripps arrived in Delhi on 22 March 1942, where they discussed the Draft Declaration with many Indian leaders. The Cripps Mission failed, and the issue of India’s constitution was postponed until the end of the war. Thus, Viceroy Linlithgow announced the Cripps Mission to offer dominion status to India on behalf of British Parliament in 1942. So, Option (d) is not correct.

 

Q3.Consider the following statements

4. DNA vaccines work by injecting genetically engineered plasmid containing the DNA sequence encoding the antigen(s) against which an immune response is sought,
5. ZyCoV-D. Developed by Cadila Healthcare, it is the first DNA vaccine approved for humans.
6. The biggest disadvantage of DNA vaccine is of instability for storage for long term

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(a)

Sol.

DNA vaccines work by injecting genetically engineered plasmid containing the DNA sequence encoding the antigen(s) against which an immune response is sought, so the cells directly produce the antigen, thus causing a protective immunological response. In August 2021, Indian authorities gave emergency approval to ZyCoV-D. Developed by Cadila Healthcare, it is the first DNA vaccine approved for humans

Advantages

• No risk for infection:
• mmune response focused on the antigen of interest Ease of development and production
• Stability for storage and shipping
• Cost-effectiveness Obviates need for peptide synthesis, expression and purification of recombinant proteins and use of toxic adjuvants
• Long-term persistence of immunogen[
• vivo expression ensures protein more closely resembles normal eukaryotic structure, with accompanying post-translational modifications

 

Q4.Consider the following statements

3. Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID) number is a six-digit alphanumeric code consisting of numbers and letters.
4. Quality Control Orders (QCO) for hallmarking of gold jewellery are passed by world gold council
5. Central government recently banned the sale of gold jewellery and artefacts without HUID from April 2023.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Sale of gold jewellery and gold artefacts hallmarked without a six-digit alphanumeric HUID — unique identification number — shall not be permitted from 1st April 2023, the government on recently said. Gold hallmarking is a purity certification of the precious metal. It was voluntary in nature till June 2021. Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID) number is a six-digit alphanumeric code consisting of numbers and letters. HUID will be given to every piece of jewellery at the time of hallmarking and it is unique for every piece of jeweller

The BIS has proposed Quality Control Orders (QCO) for 663 products in the coming time.

 

Q5. Women, Business and the Law 2023 Report is released by which of the following?

1. World Bank
2. UNDP
3. BRICS
4. WEF

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Recently, the World Bank released the Women, Business and the Law 2023 report. The Report relies on eight indicators to measure if women are on an equal standing with men .A perfect score of 100 on the Index means that women are on an equal standing with men.only 14 countries scored a perfect 100

India scored 74.4 in the  index which was  higher than the 63.7 average for the South Asian region, but lower than Nepal which had the region’s highest score of 80.6.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements with reference to the Light-Emitting Diodes (LEDs) :

1. Normally, LEDs emit light and heat in all directions
2. The light intensity of LEDs diminishes with time
3. Silicon and Germanium are the commonly used semiconductor materials for LEDs

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

LED stands for the light-emitting diode. LED lighting products produce light up to 90% more efficiently than incandescent light bulbs. LEDs are “directional” light sources, meaning they emit light in only one direction instead of incandescent and CFL bulbs, which release light and heat in all directions. This implies that LEDs can use light and energy more efficiently in various applications. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

LEDs are p-n junction devices constructed of gallium arsenide (GaAs), gallium arsenide phosphide (GaAsP), or gallium phosphide (GaP). Silicon and germanium are unsuitable for LED manufacturing because those junctions produce heat and no appreciable IR or visible light. The junction in a LED is forward-biased. When electrons cross the junction from the n- to the p-type material, the electron-hole recombination process produces some photons in the IR or visible in an electroluminescence process.

• Electroluminescence (EL) is an optical and electrical phenomenon in which a material emits light in response to the passage of an electric current or a strong electric field.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to the Quantum Frontier Mission :

1. It aims to initiate work in the understanding and control of quantum mechanical systems.
2. It is an initiative of the Department of Science and Technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Quantum Frontier mission of the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) aims to initiate work in understanding and controlling quantum mechanical systems with many degrees of freedom as one of the great contemporary challenges in fundamental science and technology. Building excellence in the quantum frontier through this mission is essential for national security and developing quantum computers, quantum chemistry, quantum communication, new materials, quantum sensors, and quantum cryptography. So, Statement 1 is correct.

 

Q8. An astronaut experiences weightlessness in a space satellite. This is mainly because :

(a) The gravitational force is zero at that location in space

(b) Both the astronaut and the satellite are in free fall toward the Earth

(c) The angular momentum of the astronaut is zero

(d) gravitational shielding is possible in space

 

S8.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Gravity causes every object to pull every other object toward it. Some people think that there is no gravity in space. In fact, a small amount of gravity can be found everywhere in space. Gravity is what holds the moon in orbit around Earth. So, Option (a) is not correct.

An astronaut experiences weightlessness in a space satellite. It is because both the astronaut and the satellite are in “free fall” toward the earth. Free fall is defined as “any motion of a body where gravity is the only force acting upon it.” In the vacuum of space, where there are no air molecules or supportive surfaces, gravity only acts upon astronauts. Thus, they are falling towards Earth at the acceleration of gravity. Although gravity pulls astronauts towards Earth, the Astronauts and satellites are traveling so quickly in the forward direction that it ends up orbiting around the earth in a circular pattern, much like a ball swinging at the end of a string. For example, the International Space Station travels at about 17,150 miles per hour, and this forward momentum keeps the astronauts in orbit despite being pulled toward Earth. So, Option (b) is correct.

Angular momentum of the Astronaut in Space is Zero and it helps Astronauts tumbles, twists and rotates in space and it does not relate to experiencing weightlessness in a space satellite. So, Option (c) is not correct.

The term gravitational shielding refers to a hypothetical process of shielding an object from the influence of a gravitational field. Such processes, if they existed, would have the effect of reducing the weight of an object. Thus, Gravitational Shielding is not possible in space. So, Option (d) is not correct.

 

Q9. Consider the following rivers:

1. Gandak
2. Punpun
3. Yamuna
4. Ghargra
5. Son

Which of the rivers given above are the right- bank tributaries of Ganga?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 4 and 5 only

(c) 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

 

S9.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Ganga River

The Ganges (also known as Ganga or Gonga), is the biggest river in the Indian subcontinent in terms of water flow. The length of the Ganga is 2,510 km or 1,560 miles. The river has its origin in the Western Himalayan Ranges in the state of Uttarakhand. The Ganges passes through the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. The major tributaries of the Ganga are as follows: Left tributaries – Karnali, Mahakhali, Gandak, Koshi (Kosi), Ghaghra, and Damodar Right tributaries – Yamuna, Son, Mahananda, Chambal, Punpun

 

Q10. Which of the following geological events have shaped the present drainage systems of Peninsular India?

1. Subsidence of the western flank of the Indian Peninsula
2. Upheaval of the Himalayas when the northern flank of the Peninsular block was subjected to subsidence
3. Slight tilting of the Peninsular block from south-east to the north-western direction

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Subsidence of the western flank of the Peninsula leading to its submergence below the sea during the early tertiary period. Generally, it has disturbed the symmetrical plan of the river on either side of the original watershed. It shaped the present drainage systems of Peninsular India.

Statement 2 is correct: Upheaval of the Himalayas when the northern flank of the peninsular block was subjected to subsidence and the consequent trough faulting. The Narmada and The Tapi flow in trough faults and fill the original cracks with their detritus materials. Hence, there is a lack of alluvial and deltaic deposits in these rivers. It shaped the present drainage systems of Peninsular India.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Slight tilting of the peninsular block from northwest to the south-eastern direction gave orientation to the entire drainage system towards the Bay of Bengal during the same period.

 

Q11. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding the features of Peninsular Plateau of India?

1. It is a part of the oldest landmass formed due to breaking and drifting of Gondwana Land.
2. The plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills
3. The western and north-western part of the plateau has an emphatic presence of black soil.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S11.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Peninsular Plateau of India The Peninsular plateau is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks. It was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land and thus, making it a part of the oldest landmass. The plateau has broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills. This is one of the oldest and the most stable landmass of India. The general elevation of the plateau is from the west to the east, which is also proved by the pattern of the flow of rivers. . Some of the important physiographic features of this region are tors, Block Mountains, rift valleys, spurs, bare rocky structures, series of hummocky hills and wall-like quartzite dykes offering natural sites for water storage. The western and north-western part of the plateau has an emphatic presence of black soil.

 

Q12. The minimum number of judges required to set up a Constitutional Benches is

1. 3
2. 5
3. 7
4. 2

 

S12.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Constitutional Benches, consisting of five or more judges, are set up in consonance with Article 145(3) of the Constitution. Such Benches usually consist of five, seven, nine, 11 or even 13 judges

 

Q13. Which of the following constitutional provision empowers the state to enact laws “providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions” to “all classes and sections of Hindus”.

1. Article 24
2. Article 25
3. Article 26
4. Article 30

 

S13.Ans.(b)

Sol.

State management of temples is often justified as a way of ensuring access to temples for worshippers and archakas (priests). Regulating secular activities associated with religious practice can be traced to Article 25(2)(a) of the Constitution. Article 25(2)(b) which empowers the state to enact laws “providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions” to “all classes and sections of Hindus”.

 

Q14. Consider the following statements regarding puisne judge

4. The term puisne judge is used in common law countries to refer to judges who are ranked lower in seniority
5. Common law is the body of law that is created by judges through their written opinions, rather than through statutes or constitutions (statutory law).
6. Commonwealth countries, including India, are common law countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S14.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Who is a Puisne Judge: The term puisne judge is used in common law countries to refer to judges who are ranked lower in seniority, i.e., any judge other than the Chief Justice of that court. Common law is the body of law that is created by judges through their written opinions, rather than through statutes or constitutions (statutory law). Common law, which is used interchangeably with ‘case law’, is based on judicial precedent. The United Kingdom (UK) and the Commonwealth countries, including India, are common law countries. Puisne Judge in India: In India, all judges have the same judicial powers. As the seniormost judge of a court, the Chief Justice has an additional administrative role.

 

Q15. With reference to Financial Inclusion Index(FI-Index), which of the following statement is correct?

1. It is developed by the Reserve Bank of India in collaboration with NITI Aayog.
2. The FI-Index is responsive to ease of access, availability and usage of services and quality of services, consisting of 97 indicators.
3. The financial inclusion index is calculated using 2011-12 as the base year.
4. All are correct

 

S15.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Reserve Bank of India has developed the composite financial inclusion index has been conceptualized as a comprehensive index incorporating details of banking, investments, insurance, postal, and the pension sector in consultation with the Government and respective sectoral regulators. But it is developed solely by the Reserve Bank of India and not in collaboration with NITI Aayog. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

This index comprises three parameters including access, usage and quality and is responsive to ease of access, availability and usage of services and quality of services, consisting of 97 indicators. The FI-Index is published annually in July every year. But the index has been constructed without any base year and reflects the cumulative efforts of all stakeholders over the years toward financial inclusion. Thus, the financial inclusion index is not calculated using 2011-12 as the base year. So, Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q16. Consider the following statements with reference to National Startup Advisory Council(NSAC):

1. It promotes measures needed for nurturing innovation and startups to generate large scale employment opportunities.
2. The prime minister acts as the Chairman of NSAC.
3. The Ministry of skill development and Entrepreneurship and ISRO, has launched the NavIC Grand

Challenge for Indian startups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

 

S16.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) had constituted the National Startup Advisory Council to advise the Government on measures needed to build a strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups in the country to drive sustainable economic growth and generate large-scale employment opportunities. So, Statement 1 is correct.

It is the Minister of Commerce and Industry and not the Prime Minister who acts as the Chairman of the National startup advisory council (NSAC). Besides the ex-officio members, the council has some non-official members, representing various stakeholders such as founders of successful startups, veterans who have grown and scaled companies in India, persons capable of representing the interest of investors in startups, persons capable of representing the interests of incubators and accelerators, representatives of associations of stakeholders of startups and representatives of industry associations. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry along with ISRO, has launched the NavIC Grand Challenge for Indian startups. The challenge involves the development of indigenous NavIC-enabled drones to capture data on damage caused to farms, processing of the data, and make it available for use for commercial purposes. ISRO experts will provide technical guidance to the short-listed startups. Hence it is not launched by the Ministry of skill development and Entrepreneurship. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q17. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In the Third Plan, agriculture was given top priority to support the exports and industry.
2. In the Seventh Plan, the first-time private sector got priority over the public sector.
3. Eleventh Five Year Plan focused on strengthening the Capital Markets as part of Inclusive growth.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S17.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The third five-year plan (1961-1966) focused was to make India a self-reliant and self-generating economy because it was felt that the Indian government is present at the take-off stage. Based on the experiences from the first two plans agriculture was given top priority to support exports and industry. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The seventh five-year plan (1985- 1990) emphasized rapid growth in food-grains production, increased employment opportunities, and productivity within the framework of basic tenants of planning. For the first-time private sector got priority over the public sector. The plan was very successful, the economy recorded a 6% growth rate against the targeted 5%. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The 11th five-year plan (2007 – 2012) aims to achieve inclusive growth, improve the quality of life for the citizens of the state and contribute to the larger national goals of socio-economic development. It did not focus on strengthening capital markets as a part of inclusive growth whereas it mainly concentrated on eradicating poverty, providing employment opportunities, promoting education and health care, and increasing agricultural productivity as part of inclusive growth. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q18. Consider the following statements :

1. Green Gigaton Challenge is a global initiative by Emergent and the UN Environment, supported

by the Environmental Defense Fund.

2. Green Gigaton Challenge brings together a coalition of public, private and philanthropic

partners to channelize funds for REDD+.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Green Gigaton Challenge is a global initiative by Emergent and the UN-REDD Programme, supported by the Environmental Defense Fund, Forest Trends and the Architecture for REDD+ Transactions – to catalyze funding for one gigaton of high-quality emissions reductions a year from forests by 2025. The Green Gigaton Challenge aims to break the stalemate on the contribution from forests to close the emission gap by 2030 and ensure biodiversity conservation and a green recovery from Covid-19. Achieving one gigaton a year of emission reduction will significantly contribute to keeping global warming below 2°C and do so in a cost-effective way. Ultimately, the Challenge offers a concrete framework to leverage public and private finance for large-scale, high-quality forest protection and restoration. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Green Gigaton Challenge brings together a coalition of public, private and philanthropic partners to channel funds into efforts led by national and subnational governments to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+). So, Statement 2 is correct.

 

Q19. Consider the following statements :

1. The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral facility

that promotes and rewards reduced greenhouse gas emissions.

2. BioCF Tranche 3, an arm of the International Monetary Fund, provides results-based finance

through the purchase of verified emissions reductions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S19.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral facility that promotes and rewards reduced greenhouse gas emissions and increased sequestration through better land management, including REDD+ (Reduced Emissions from Deforestation and forest Degradation), climate smart agriculture, and smarter land use planning and policies. The ISFL will pilot programs and interventions at a jurisdictional scale in order to test approaches and share lessons learned broadly. This Initiative was established in 2013 and is supported by Germany, the Kingdom of Norway, Switzerland, the United Kingdom, and the United States. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The ISFL has two key funding instruments, the BioCFplus and BioCF Tranche 3 (T3), which have been designed specifically to operationalize the vision of the ISFL. BioCF Tranche 3 provides results-based payments for verified emission reductions through an Emission Reductions Purchase Agreement (ERPA). The ISFL is supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements :

1. Trametes maxima IIPLC-32 is a bacteria capable of removing toxic and carcinogenic polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) from the environment.
2. It was identified by the CSIR-Indian Institute of Petroleum,Dehradun.
3. Pyrene belongs to the highly toxic class of PAHs, with carcinogenic and mutagenic properties.
4. Pyrene is used to make dyes, plastics and pesticides.

Which of the statements given below is/are correct ?

(a) 1,3 and 4 only

(b) 2,3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

 

S20.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Recently, researchers at the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research-Indian Institute of Petroleum (CSIR at Dehradun have identified a fungus capable of removing toxic, recalcitrant (Not easily controlled), carcinogenic Pyrene or Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAHs) from the environment. Trametesmaxima IIPLC-32, a white-rot fungus, not bacteria, which has the potential to cause microbial degradation of pyrene, which grows on dead plants Trametesmaxima IIPLC-32, which has the potential to cause microbial degradation of pyrene. So, Statement 1 is not correct, and Statement 2 is correct.

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are ubiquitous (Present everywhere) environmental pollutants originating from multiple sources, including the combustion of petrogenic fossil fuels and incomplete incineration of municipal wastes and biomass. Pyrene belongs to the highly toxic class of PAHs, with carcinogenic and mutagenic properties, and it possesses four benzene rings. It gets lodged into the environmental matrices like soil, water and atmosphere, resulting in widespread environmental pollution, necessitating adequate remediation of contaminated environmental matrices. Pyrene and its derivatives are used commercially to make dyes, for example,pyranine, pesticides, pharmaceuticals, and plastics. So, Statements 3 and 4 are correct.

 

Q21. Consider the following statements with reference to the Poona Pact of 1932 :

1. It replaced separate electorate proposed by the Communal Award by a Joint electorate for

candidates from depressed classes in the elections to legislative councils.

2. It provided more than double the number of reserved seats in legislative councils compared to the

Communal Award

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Poona Pact on 24 September 1932, signed between Gandhi and Ambedkar, replaced a separate electorate with a joint electorate with a substantial increase in the number of reserved seats in legislative councils for candidates from untouchable castes. So, Statement 1 is correct. The number accorded in this pact was 148, which was more than double the number granted by the Communal Award, and was nearly equivalent to the proportion of untouchables in the population. So, Statement 2 is correct.

 

Q22. Consider the following statements with reference to the initiatives taken by the congress ministries after the 1937 general election ?

1. Political prisoners were set free
2. The rent of the peasantry was reduced
3. The press restriction has been removed
4. Legislation conferring emergency powers has been repealed.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(c) Only three statements

(d) All four statements

 

S22.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Congress ministry’s initiatives after the 1937 election are,

• Laws giving emergency powers were repealed
• Ban illegal organizations, such as the Hindustan Seva Dal and Youth Leagues were lifted from certain books and journals.
• Press restrictions were lifted.
• Newspapers were taken out of black lists.
• Confiscated arms and arms licenses were restored.
• Police powers were curbed, and the CID stopped shadowing politicians.
• Reduction in rent for the peasantry
• Political prisoners and revolutionaries were released, and deportation and internment orders were revoked.
• In Bombay, lands confiscated by the government during the Civil Disobedience Movement were restored.
• Pensions of officials associated with the Civil Disobedience Movement were restored. So, Option (d) is correct.

 

Q23. With reference to Modern Indian history, Nyandan Mandals, Gram Samitis and Jatiya Sarkar

were related to

(a) Swadeshi Movement

(b) Non-Cooperation Movement

(c) Civil Disobedience Movement

(d) Quit India Movement

 

S23.Ans.(d)

Sol.

A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of what came to be known as parallel governments in some parts of the country.

• The Prati Sarkar (Parallel Government) carried on its activities on three fronts—against the British as a part of the Quit India movement, against dacoity, and towards the settlement of peasant issues of indebtedness and land disputes.
• To do it efficiently, Prati Sarkar set up three different village-based institutions,

The nyandan mandals or people’s courts that settled disputes

The gram samitis looked after constructive work and village welfare and

Toofan senas or youth militia drawn from village wrestling groups protected the peasants against moneylender harassment.

In Tamluk in the Midnapur district of Bengal, the Jatiya Sarkar came into existence on 17 December 1942 and lasted till September 1944. Tamluk was an area where Gandhian constructive work had made considerable headway, and it was also the scene of earlier mass struggles. The Jatiya Sarkar undertook cyclone relief work, gave grants to schools, and organized an armed Vidyut Vahini. So, Option (d) is correct.

 

Q24. With reference to ‘Artemis Accords’, consider the following statements:

1. These are principles set by the United Nations Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space. 2. These cover civil activities on the Moon, Mars, comets and asteroids.
2. The signatories commit to inform the Secretary-General of the United Nations of their space resource extraction activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• Artemis Accords are a set of principles to carry out civil activities in outer space, intended to increase the safety of operations and promote the sustainable and beneficial use of space for all. These are proposed by National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). So, statement 1 is not correct.
• These activities may take place on the Moon, Mars, comets, and asteroids, including their surfaces and subsurface, as well as in orbit of the Moon or Mars, in the Lagrangian points for the Earth-Moon system, and in transit between these celestial bodies and locations. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Under this accord, the Signatories commit to informing the Secretary-General of the United Nations as well as the public and the international scientific community of their space resource extraction activities in accordance with the Outer Space Treaty. So, statement 3 is correct.
• Other space agencies are also involved in the Artemis programme for example – the Canadian Space Agency has committed to providing advanced robotics. The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency plans to contribute habitation components and logistics resupply, etc.
• Outer space is considered a shared natural resource, the United Nations Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (COPUOS) in 2019 adopted a set of 21 voluntary, non-binding guidelines to ensure the long-term sustainability of outer space activities.

 

Q25. With reference to Tuberculosis (TB), consider the following statements:

1. It is a bacterial disease that can affect lungs, kidney and brain.
2. Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine provides protection against TB.
3. Person with Latent TB infection has alive but inactive TB germs that cannot be transmitted to others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S25.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The bacteria usually attack the lungs, but TB bacteria can attack any part of the body such as the kidney, spine, and brain. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) is a vaccine for tuberculosis (TB) disease, administered in children at the time of birth in India. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Two TB-related conditions exist: latent TB infection (LTBI) and TB disease.
• If not treated properly, TB disease can be fatal. TB bacteria spread through the air from one person to another.
• TB bacteria can live in the body without making you sick. This is called latent TB infection. In most people who breathe in TB bacteria and become infected, the body is able to fight the bacteria to stop them from growing. People with latent TB can’t spread TB bacteria to others. So, statement 3 is correct.