Odisha Civil Services Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | July 2nd Week 2023

 

The mock paper consists of a comprehensive set of questions that are framed in accordance with the syllabus prescribed by the OPSC. It aims to evaluate the candidates’ analytical and problem-solving abilities, as well as their familiarity with important concepts, events, and issues.

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Q1. With reference to the practice of begging in India, consider the following statements.

1. It comes under the concurrent list of the Constitution.
2. It is banned under the central law on begging and destitution enacted by the parliament.
3. A child being forced to beg is an offence under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer. Despite of India’s rapid economic growth, begging as a social problem has existed in our society since inception of human civilization and still persists even after our government intended to abolish it by taking lot of measures and bringing in legislations.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Begging is a state subject, and there isn’t a central law governing this. As per the 7 th Schedule of the Constitution of India and under serial no. 9 of State List, the subject matter of “Relief of the disabled and unemployable” comes under the purview of State List. The States are responsible for taking necessary preventive and rehabilitative steps. Statement 2 is incorrect. India has no central law on begging and destitution. As many as 20 States and 2 Union Territories have either enacted their own Anti-Beggary Legislation or adopted legislations enacted by other States/UTs. i.e., the Bombay Prevention of Begging Act, 1959, which carries a penalty of detention of three to 10 years in beggar homes.

Statement 3 is correct. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 is the primary law for children in the country. As per the law, whoever employs or uses any child for the purpose of begging or causes any child to beg shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years and shall also be liable to fine of one lakh rupees.

    Q2. Plantlife found in wetlands includes

1. Sedges
2. Tamarack
3. Black spruce
4. Cypress

Select the correct code from below:

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1,2,3 and 4

 

S2.Ans. (d)

Sol.

A wetland is an area of land where the soil is saturated with moisture either permanently or seasonally. Such areas may also be covered partially or completely by shallow pools of water. Wetlands include swamps, marshes, and bogs, among others

Plantlife found in wetlands includes mangrove, water lilies, cattails, sedges, tamarack, black spruce, cypress, gum, and many others

 

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART):

1. It is planetary defence test mission.
2. It is dedicated to demonstrate asteroid deflection through kinetic impact.
3. Mission is being planned by the China National Space Administration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct and 3 is incorrect: NASA will launch the agency’s first planetary defence test mission named the Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART). The main aim of the mission is to test the newly developed technology that would allow a spacecraft to crash into an asteroid and change its course.

Statement 2 is correct: DART is the first- ever mission dedicated to investigating and demonstrating one method of asteroid deflection by changing an asteroid’s motion in space through kinetic impact. This method will have DART deliberately collide with a target asteroid—which poses no threat to Earth— in order to change its speed and path. DART’s target is the binary, near-Earth asteroid system Didymos, composed of the roughly 780-meter (2,560-foot) -diameter “Didymos” and the smaller, approximately 160-meter (530-foot)-size “Dimorphos,” which orbits Didymos.

 

 Q4. When the Pay Commission recommends pay revisions, the base is the-

1. CPI-RL
2. CPI-UNME
3. CPI (IW)
4. All of the above

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

When the Pay Commission recommends pay revisions, the base is the CPI (IW) or Consumer Price Index for the industrial workers (CPI-IW)

 

 

          Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Satrap system of Government:

1. It was introduced by the Sakas and Parthians in India.
2. It was a centralised administrative setup with no delegation of powers to the provinces.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The Sakas along with the Parthians introduced the Satrap system of government which was similar to that of the Achaemenid and Seleucid systems in Iran. So, statement 1 is correct.  Under this system, the kingdom was divided into provinces each under a military governor called Mahakshatrapa (great Satrap). Governors with lower status were called Kshatrapas (Satraps). These governors issued their own inscriptions and also minted their own coins. This is indicative of a more independent status than was otherwise normal in an administrative set-up. So, statement 2 is not correct.

 

 

Q6. Which of the following events may lead to fiscal drag in an economy?

1. Rise in income
2. Progressive Taxation
3. Increasing Repo rate
4. Deflation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 2 and 4 only

 

S6.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer. Fiscal drag is an economic term whereby inflation or income growth moves taxpayers into higher tax brackets. This in effect increases government tax revenue without actually increasing tax rates.

Option 1 and 2 are correct. Fiscal drag happens when income growth moves tax payers into higher tax brackets, because of progressive taxation system. This results in larger share of income going into taxes, reducing aggregate demand as consumer spending decreases. Inflation can cause a drag as it reduces the money left in the hands of people. The increase in taxes reduces aggregate demand and consumer spending from taxpayers as a larger share of their income now goes to taxes, which leads to deflationary policies, or drag, on the economy. Progressive taxation, whereby individuals are moved into higher tax brackets because of inflation or increased income, is a fiscal policy that results in fiscal drag.

Option 3 is incorrect. Change in repo rates controls the flow of money in the economic system. Increasing repo rate would decrease the money supply in the system and thus would lead to deflationary pressures. This would not result in Fiscal Drag.

Option 4 is incorrect. Fiscal drag happens when inflation (and not deflation) moves tax payers into higher tax brackets, because of progressive taxation system. This results in larger share of income going into taxes, reducing aggregate demand as consumer spending decreases. This ultimately leads to drag on the economy.

 

 

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972

1. Under the Act, only Central Government or any agency authorised by it can export antiquity or art treasure.
2. Under the act, every person who owns or is in possession of any antiquity shall register it.
3. Under the Act, any antiquities taken out of the country can be restituted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972

• Antiquity – It includes which has been in existence for not less than 100 y ears.
• Any manuscript, record or other document having aesthetic value and which has been in existence for not less than 75 years.
• Art treasure –It includes any human work of art, not being an antiquity, declared by the Central Government.
• Regulation – It shall not be lawful for any person, other than the Central Government or any authority authorised by the Central Government to export any antiquity or art treasure.
• Antiquities to be sold only under a licence – No person shall, himself selling or offering to sell any antiquity except under and in accordance with the terms and conditions of a licence granted.
• Licence for selling or granting antiquity by a person is granted by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
• The first thing in order to prove the ownership is the complaint (FIR) filed with the police.
• Restitution- There are three categories

1. antiquities taken out of India preindependence;
2. those which were taken out since independence until March 1976, i.e. before the implementation of AATA; and3. Antiquities taken out of the country since April 1976.

• For First category, requests have to be raised bilaterally or on international fora.
• Antiquities comes under the 2nd and 3rd category can be restituted by raising an issue bilaterally with proof of ownership and with the help of the UNESCO convention.

 

 

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding genetically modified (GM) crops:

1. Genes of one crop are edited to incorporate traits from another crop.
2. GM crops provide the solution for antimicrobial resistance.
3. The exchange of gene can take place between two organisms of same species only.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

S8.Ans.(d)

Sol.

GM food involves the editing of genes of a crop in such a way that it incorporates beneficial traits from another crop or organism. This could mean changing the way the plant grows, or making it resistant to a particular disease. Food produced using the edited crop is called GM food. This is done using the tools of genetic engineering.

Statement 1 is correct: GM food involves the editing of genes of a crop in such a way that it incorporates beneficial traits from another crop or organism. This could mean changing the way the plant grows, or making it resistant to a particular disease. Food produced using the edited crop is called GM food. This is done using the tools of genetic engineering.

Statement 2 is incorrect: GM crops are modified to include antibiotics to kill germs and pests. And when we eat them, these antibiotic markers will persist in body and will render actual antibiotic medications less effective over a period of time, leading to superbug threats. This means illnesses will become more difficult to cure.

Statement 3 is incorrect: A DNA of blueberry could be inserted into that of a banana to get a blue banana. The exchange could be affected between two or more organisms. One can even introduce a gene of a fish into a plant. Consider this fact. Genes from an Arctic fish were inserted into tomatoes to make it tolerant to frost. This tomato gained the moniker ‘fish tomato’. But it never reached the market. Crops can be engineered to withstand extreme weather.

 

 

Q9. Consider the following statements with regard to Bonn Challenge:

1. It is launched by UNEP in association with Government of Germany.
2. It is legally binding international pledge agreement.
3. It aims to bring 350 million hectares of degraded and deforested landscapes into restoration by 2030.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

 

 

S9.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect and 3 are correct: The Bonn Challenge is a global goal to bring 150 million hectares of degraded and deforested landscapes into restoration by 2020 and 350 million hectares by 2030. Launched by the Government of Germany and IUCN in 2011, the Challenge surpassed the 150- million-hectare milestone for pledges in 2017.

Statement 2 is incorrect: At the UNFCC Conference of the Parties (COP) 2015 in Paris, India also joined the voluntary Bonn Challenge pledge to bring into restoration 13 million hectares of degraded and deforested land by the year 2020, and additional 8 million hectares by 2030. India’s pledge is one of the largest in Asia.

 

 

Q10. Till which year is the bulge in the working-age population going to last in India?

1. 2022
2. 2030
3. 2055
4. 2042

 

S10.Ans. (c)

Sol.

This bulge in the working-age population is going to last till 2055, or 37 years from its beginning.

 

 

Q11. With reference to endangered tribes of the world, consider the following pairs:

Tribe Country

1. Akuntsu : Colombia
2. Jarawa : India
3. Nukak : Brazil

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 2 only

 

S11.Ans.(d)

Sol.

• The Akuntsu are a tiny Amazonian tribe of just three individuals. They are the last known survivors of their people and live in Rondônia state, western Brazil. In a few decades the Akuntsu will become extinct, and our planet will have lost a unique people, language and culture. As tribal custom doesn’t allow outsiders to marry in, the future of the Akuntsu appears to be non-existent. The Brazilian constitution protects the land of uncontacted tribes so some ranchers and loggers decided the best way to exploit Rondônia’s verdant wilderness – and circumvent red tape – was to massacre the Akuntsu and thus they are the victims of greed and genocide. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• In the Andaman Aka-Bea language, Jarawa means ‘stranger’. One of four people native to the Andaman Islands of India, the Jarawa were strangers to the modern world until 1998. They still hunt and fish and, after two measles epidemics, mainly prefer their secluded reservation in the primordial rainforest. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• The Nukak are one of at least 32 indigenous peoples in Colombia that the UN has identified as at risk of imminent extinction. Armed colonists, growing cocoa for the cocaine trade, and military conflict between rebels and government have turned the southern Colombian rainforest where the Nukak once roamed into a treacherous place. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Q12. In the context of the Power sector in India, consider the following statements:

1. Private sector has the largest installed power generation capacity in India.
2. Presently, non-fossil fuel contributes to the largest source of power generation in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

As per the Ministry of Power, India’stotal installed power generation capacity is 4,07,797 MW (100%) x Central Sector share is 99,005 MW (24.3%), x State Sector share is 1,04,966 MW (25.7%), and x Private sector share is 2,03,825 MW (50.0%). So, Statement 1 is correct. As per the Ministry of Power, presently fossil fuel (like coal, lignite, gas, and diesel) power generation is the largest source of power generation in India which is 2,36,086 MW of power (57.9%) and non-fossil fuel (like hydro, wind, solar, etc.) share is 171,710 MW (42.1%). So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q13. Consider the following statements with reference to the International Counter Ransomware Initiative (CRI) :

1. It is a grouping of 36 countries collaborating to enhance “collective resilience” to ransomware and cooperate across all elements of the ransomware threat.
2. India is not a member of CRI.
3. Ransomware is a kind of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software and acts discretely, and creates backdoors to let other malware in.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The International Counter Ransomware Initiative (CRI), is a grouping of 36 countries, which includes India and the European Unionto enhance “collective resilience” to Ransomware, disrupt attacks and pursue responsible actors, counter illicit finance that underpins the ransomware ecosystem, work with the private sector against attacks, and cooperate across all elements of the ransomware threat. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The members of the International Counter Ransomware Initiative (CRI) are Australia, Austria, Belgium, Brazil, Bulgaria, Canada, Croatia, Czech Republic, Dominican Republic, Estonia, France, Germany, India, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Kenya, Lithuania, Mexico, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Nigeria, Norway, Poland, Republic of Korea, Romania, Singapore, South Africa, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, United Arab Emirates, United Kingdom, United States, and Ukraine, and the European Union—met in Washington, DC. Thus, India is the member of the International Counter Ransomware Initiative (CRI). So, Statement 2 is not correct.

The trojan is a kind of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software or is included in legitimate software that has been tampered with. It tends to act discretely and create backdoors in security to let other malware in. Hence, Ransomware is a type of malware that prevents or limits users from accessing their system, either by locking the system’s screen or by locking the users’ files until a ransom is paid to its owner. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

 

Q14. Consider the following pairs regarding the rivers and their tributaries:

River Tributaries

1. Shyok Nubra
2. Barak Singla
3. Dihing Longai

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All the three pairs

(d) No pair

 

S14.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Shyok River is a tributary of the Indus River that flows through northern Ladakh and enters Gilgit–Baltistan. It originates at the Rimo Glacier, one of the tongues of Siachen Glacier. Nubra, Galwan, Saltoro, and Chang Chen Mo rivers are the tributaries of the Shyok River.

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Barak rises in the Manipur hills and enters the plains near Lakhipur. The river enters Bangladesh as Surma and Kushiyara. Later, the river is called the Meghna and receives the combined flow of the Ganga and Brahmaputra. The principal tributaries of Barak are the Jiri, the Dhaleswari, the Singla, the Longai, the Sonai and the Katakhal.

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Dihing or Burhi Dihing is a large tributary, about 380 kilometres (240 mi) long, of the Brahmaputra River in Upper Assam in northeastern India. The river originates at 2,375 metres above sea level in the Eastern Himalayas (the Patkai Hills) in Arunachal Pradesh and flows through Tinsukia (Tinicukeeya) and Dibrugarh Districts in Assam to its confluence with the Brahmaputra at Dihingmukh. The Disang is a tributary of the Dihing on its southern bank.

 

 

 

Q15. If a wetland is brought under the ‘Montreux  Record, what does  it imply

1. Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference
2. The country  in which  the wetland  is  located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity  within  five kilometers of the edge of the wetland
3. The  survival of the wetland depends on  the cultural practices  and  traditions  of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed
4. It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’

 

S15.Ans. (a)

Sol.

The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference

 

Q16. Consider the following statements:

1. The Carajas iron ore mine, one of the biggest in the world is in Brazil.
2. Australia is the largest iron ore producer in the world.
3. Russia is the largest iron ore exporting country in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S16.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Carajas mine in Para, in Northern Brazil is one of the world’s biggest iron ore mines holding

7.27 billion tonnes of proven and probable reserves as of December 2012. Hence statement 1 is correct.

The world’s top largest iron ore-producing countries are (in the decreasing order)

o Australia, Brazil, China, India, Russia, Ukraine, Canada, Kazakhstan, South Africa.

o Hence statement 2 is correct.

Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Q17. Bhore Committee Recommendations of 1946 are related to:

1. Education reforms
2. Public Health
3. Digital transactions
4. Water use efficiency

 

S17.Ans. (b)

Sol.

This committee, known as the Health Survey & Development Committee, was appointed in 1943 with Sir Joseph Bhore as its Chairman.

• It laid emphasis on the integration of curative and preventive medicine at all levels.
• It made comprehensive recommendations for the remodelling of health services in India.

 

Q18. Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021 sometimes seen in the news recently, seeks to

amend the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 to :

1. Encourage the Indian system of medicine and cultivation of wild medicinal plants
2. Facilitate fast-tracking of processes for research, patent application, and transfer of research

results

3. Criminalize offenses under the act
4. Encourage foreign investment in the sector
5. Include references to the Nagoya Protocol

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

S18.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Biodiversity refers to variabilities among plants, animals and microorganism species. Biodiversity includes the number of different plants, animals and microorganisms, their genes, and the terrestrial, marine and freshwater ecosystems they are part of. It also reflects the organization of organisms at different levels. The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill 2021 amends the Biological Diversity Act 2002, which provides for the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from the use of biological resources. Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill 2021 seeks to amend the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 to:

• Encourage the Indian system of medicine and cultivation of wild medicinal plants,
• Facilitate fast-tracking of processes for research, patent application, and transfer of research results,
• Decriminalise offences under the Biological Diversity Act 2002. Hence, it does not criminalize offenses.
• Encourage foreign investment in the sector.
• The Bill also amends the Act to include references to the Nagoya Protocol.

Q19. With reference to the post-Mauryan art and culture, consider the following statements:

1. The Shunga rulers introduced the idea of decorated gateways in Buddhist stupas.
2. During this period, the prayer halls or Chaityas were developed in rock caves.
3. The Lomas Rishi cave is an example of man-made cave built during the post-Mauryan period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

 

S19.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer. The collapse of the Mauryan rule in 187 BCE paved the way for the emergence of several powers in the Indian subcontinent. The period from the decline of the Mauryas to the rise of the Guptas (2nd century BCE to 3rd century CE) is known in Indian history as the post- Mauryan period.

Statement 1 is correct. Stupas were the burial mounds where the ashes of the dead were kept. In Post- Mauryan period, the size of stupas became larger and more decorative with the use of Stone in place of wood and brick as used during the Mauryan and Vedic period. The Shunga dynasty introduced the idea of ‘torans’ i.e., a beautifully decorated gateways to the stupas that were intricately carved with figures and patterns and were evidence of Hellenistic influence. Examples: Bharhut stupa in Madhya Pradesh.

Statement 2 is correct. The rock-cut cave architecture emerged during Mauryan Period where it was used as viharas (living quarters) only. In Post-Mauryan period, the rock-cut caves developed Chaityas or the prayer halls along with the viharas.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Lomas Rishi Cave is a man-made cave in Bihar built during Ashoka Period as a part of sacred architecture of Aajivika Sect. The Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves of Orissa is an example of post-Mauryan caves that are both natural and man-made built by kharavela rulers.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements with reference to the Global Snow Leopard Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP) :

1. It is a first-of-its-kind intergovernmental alliance for the conservation of the snow leopard and its unique ecosystem.
2. It is led by the Environment Ministers of 12 countries in Asia.
3. Its secretariat is based in New Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S20.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Global Snow Leopard & Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP) is an unprecedented alliance of all snow leopard range countries, non-governmental organizations, multi-lateral institutions, scientists, and local communities, united by one goal: to save the snow leopard and its mountain ecosystems. In fact, it is a first-of-its-kind intergovernmental alliance for conserving the snow leopard and its unique ecosystem. So, Statement 1 is correct. It is led by the environment ministers of 12 countries in Asia that form the home range of the snow leopard. These are Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Its secretariat is located in Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan’s capital, not New Delhi. . 22 GSLEP was created in 2013 when officials, politicians, and conservationists arrived at a common conservation strategy enshrined in the Bishkek Declaration (2013) to cooperate in conserving this species and its habitat. So, Statement 2 is correct, and Statement 3 is not correct.

 

 

Q21. Consider the following statements regarding ‘MSME Competitive (LEAN) Scheme’

1. It aims to enable MSMEs to reduce wastage substantially, increase productivity and expand their markets
2. National Productivity Council has been appointed as one of the Implementing Agency in the implementation of MSME Competitive (Lean) Scheme
3. The government will contribute 90% of implementation cost for handholding and consultancy fees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Through the LEAN journey, MSMEs can reduce wastages substantially, increase productivity, improve quality, work safely, expanding their markets, and finally becoming competitive and profitable. Under the scheme, MSMEs will implement LEAN manufacturing tools like 5S, Kaizen, KANBAN, Visual workplace, Poka Yoka etc under the guidance of trained and competent LEAN Consultants to attain LEAN levels like Basic, Intermediate and Advanced.       The government will contribute 90% of implementation cost for handholding and consultancy fees. There will be an additional contribution of 5% for the MSMEs which are part of SFURTI clusters, owned by Women/SC/ST and located in Northeast region.      NPC has been appointed as one of the Implementing Agency which will assist Ministry of MSME in the implementation of MSME Competitive (Lean) Scheme.

 

Q22. Consider the following rivers:

1. Chip Chap River
2. Shyok River
3. Karakash River
4. Galwan River

The Depsang Plains are bounded by which of the rivers mentioned above?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

S22.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Depsang Plains

The Depsang Plains are located in the north- western part of Aksai Chin. They are bounded on the north by the valley of the Chip Chap River and on the west by the Shyok River. On the east they are bounded by low hills of the “Lak Tsung” range, which separate them from the basin of the Karakash River. In the south, the Depsang Plains proper end at the Depsang La pass, but in common parlance, the Depsang region is taken to include the mountainous region to the south of it, including the “Depsang Bulge”. The Karakoram Pass is located to the north of the Depsang Plains while the Lingzi Thang plains lie to the southeast. On the west is the southern part of the Rimo glacier, the source of the Shyok River.

 

Q23. Consider the following statements with reference to the Government of India Act of 1935 :

1. It transferred financial control from London to New Delhi.
2. It expanded the size of the electorate and discontinued high-property qualifications.
3. It reserved seats for women in legislatures
4. Under the act, Viceroy retained full control over foreign affairs, defense and internal security. How many statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only one statement

(b) Only two statements

(c) Only three statements

(d) All four statements

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

In 1935, the Government of India Act was passed. It evolved into the concept of the All India Federation. Provincial Autonomy was introduced. There was to be a transfer of financial control from London to Delhi in response to the long-standing demand of the Government of India for fiscal autonomy. Provinces were given independent financial powers and resources. Provincial governments could borrow money for their own security. So, Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act 1935 expanded the size of the electorate to 30 million but retained high property qualifications. Only 10 percent of the Indian population got the right to vote. So, Statement 2 is not correct. The Government of India Act 1935 expanded women’s franchise through preferential or special franchise qualifications, it also reserved seats for women in legislatures in accordance with the allocation of seats for different communities. So, Statement 3 is correct. The Government of India Act 1935 replaced the diarchy. At the same time, it gave provincial governors enormous ‘discretionary power’ to call the legislature, to not give consent to bills passed in legislatures, and, most important and undemocratic of all, to take over the control of a province from its elected majority ministry on the grounds of public order. Dyarchy was introduced at the center under the condition of several safeguards, and the Viceroy retained full control over foreign affairs, defense, and internal security. So, Statement 4 is correct.

 

Q24. Consider the following pairs : Fossil Parks Location 1. Marine Gondwana Fossil Park – Chattisgarh 2. Akal Fossil Wood Park – Gujarat 3. Siwalik Fossil Park – Uttarakhand 4. Bhojunda Stromatolite Park – Rajasthan How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs . 48

(d) All four pairs

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Marine Gondwana Fossil Park is located at Manendragarh, Sarguja district in Chattisgarh is a unique exposure of fossiliferous marine Permian rocks of the Talchir Formation belonging to the Gondwana Supergroup. So, Pair 1 is correct. Akal Fossil Wood Park is located in the Jaisalmer District of Rajasthan. The area is located near Akal, 18 km South East from Jaisalmer on the NH-15. So, Pair 2 is not correct. Siwalik Fossil Park is located at Saketi, Sirmur District in Himachal Pradesh contains a rich collection of 2.5 million years old vertebrate fossils from Siwaliks. It covers an area of about 1.5 sq. km at Saketi, in the Markanda valley of Sirmur district, H.P., and was built to check indiscriminate destruction of fossil bones. So, Pair 3 is not correct. Stromatolite Park, Bhojunda, is located in the Chittaurgarh District of Rajasthan, and it is an exposure to the massive Bhagwanpura Limestone of the Lower Vindhyan age. Stromatolites are structures produced by blue-green algae, which through their filaments, attract and bond carbonate particles forming a mat. So, Pair 4 is correct.

 

 

Q25. Which of the following statements with reference to the Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is incorrect ?

1. It converts a person’s voice into a digital signal that travels over the Internet
2. It allows a person to make a call directly from a computer
3. It does not have the option to speak to more than one person at a time
4. All VoIP services require an active Internet connection.

 

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is a technology that allows you to make voice calls using an Internet connection rather than an analog (traditional) phone line.
• Here the Voice is converted into a digital signal by VoIP services that travel over the Internet. But if the regular phone number is called, the signal is converted to a regular telephone signal i.e. an analog signal before it reaches the destination.
• VoIP allows a person to make a call directly from a computer or a special VoIP phone.
• Some VoIP services allow you to call multiple people at the same time, while others may allow you to call anyone. They can have or do not have a phone number, which includes local, long-distance, mobile, and international numbers. Thus, this service has an option to speak more than one person at a time.
• All VoIP needs a high-speed Internet connection which can be through a cable modem or high-speed services such as a local area network.