With reference to the White Mutiny, consider the following statements.
1. It posed a serious threat to British control in India, similar to the Revolt of 1857.
2. It was primarily caused by the grievances of Indian sepoys who felt mistreated by British officers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct option is C

The correct answer is (c) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The White Mutiny of 1859 was a protest by European (British) soldiers of the East India Company's army, not Indian sepoys.
• It was triggered by the transfer of power from the Company to the British Crown, which meant the soldiers lost their "batta" (extra allowances) and were transferred without a fresh enlistment bonus.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: While it was an internal crisis, it did not pose a threat to British control comparable to the massive popular and military uprising of 1857.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The mutiny was by British soldiers against the British government, not by Indian sepoys.

Information Booster:

• The mutiny was resolved by Lord Canning, who allowed the soldiers the option to take their discharge and return to England.
• This event led to the complete reorganization of the British military forces in India.

Additional Knowledge:

2 only (Option b)

• Incorrect because "White" in the name explicitly refers to the European ethnicity of the mutineers.

So the correct answer is (c)