ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | August 3rd Week 2023

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Q1.Consider the following statements regarding Ryotwari Settlement?

1. It was introduced by Holt Mackenzieand R.M. Bird.
2. The maximum area of the East India Company was under the Ryotwarisystem.
3. The zamindars or middlemen wererecognized as the owners of the land.
4. This land revenue systemencouraged the cultivation of cashcrops.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S1.Ans.(d)

Sol.

It was introduced by Thomas Munro and Alexander Reed. The peasants were recognized as the owners of land and not zamindars.

 

Q2.  Which one of the following is the largest natural terrestrial carbon store?

(a) Ocean

(b) Peatlands

(c) Tropical forests

(d) Mangroves

 

S2.Ans. (b)

Sol.

Peatlands, also known as bogs or mires, are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store. They accumulate carbon over thousands of years as partially decayed plant material accumulates in waterlogged environments. This makes peatlands a significant carbon sink, playing a crucial role in the global carbon cycle and climate regulation.

 

Q3.With reference to hypersonic weapons, consider the following statements:

1. They can fly at speeds of at least 5 times the speed of sound.
2. Weapons working on hypersonic technology can never be intercepted by the radars.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S3.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Hypersonic weapons can indeed fly at speeds of at least 5 times the speed of sound.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While hypersonic technology can make it more challenging for traditional radars to detect and intercept such weapons due to their high speeds and maneuverability, it is not accurate to say that they can never be intercepted by radars. Defense systems are being developed and tested to counter hypersonic threats, though it is a complex and evolving field of technology and defense strategy.

So, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

 

Q4.Consider the following statements :

1. Mahatma Gandhi was assisted in Champaran Satyagraha by lndulalYajnik
2. Vallabhbhai Patel and Anasuya Sarabhai assisted Mahatma Gandhi in Kheda Satyagraha
3. Mahatma Gandhi was assisted in the Ahmedabad mill workers strike by Anasuya Sarabhai

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S4.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Mahatma Gandhi was requested by Rajkumar Shukla, a local man, to look into the problems of the farmers in the context of indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar. Gandhi went to Champaran with Rajkumar early in 1917 accompanied by Rajendra Prasad, Mazhar-ul-Haq, Mahadev Desai, Narhari Parekh, and J.B. Kripalani. Whereas, Indulal Yajnik assisted Gandhi in Kheda satyagraha. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Mahatma Gandhi was assisted in Kheda Satyagraha by Sardar Vallabhai Patel and other local lawyers and advocates such as Indulal Yagnik, Shankarlal Banker, Mahadev Desai, Narhari Parikh, Mohanlal Pandya, and Ravi Shankar Vyas. Anasuya Sarabhai also played a major role in the Kheda satyagraha and was also one of the first signatories of the ‘Satyagraha Pledge’ created by Gandhi to oppose the Rowlatt Bill. So, Statement 2 is correct. Gandhi organized the third campaign in Ahmedabad where he intervened in a dispute between the mill owners and workers. Gandhi knew Ambalal Sarabhai, a millowner, as the latter had financially helped Gandhi’s Ashram. Moreover, Ambalal’s sister Anasuya Sarabhai had reverence for Gandhi. He was assisted by Anasuya Sarabhai organized daily mass meetings of workers, in which he delivered lectures and issued a series of leaflets on the situation. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q5. Consider the following statements with respect to Methane Global Tracker report

1. It is a report published by the International Energy Agency (IEA).
2. According to the report, the energy sector accounts for around 40% of the total average methane emissions from human activity.
3. Carbon dioxide (CO2) dissolves faster than Methane but is a much more powerful greenhouse gas during its short lifespan.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

• 1 and 3 only
• 1 and 2 only
• 2 only
• 1, 2 and 3

 

S5.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Methane Global Tracker report

• The Annual report is released by International Energy Agency (IEA).
• For the first time, the report provides a complete set of country-level estimates for methane emissions from the energy sector.
• Its main objective is to bring down these emissions and implement the new Global Methane Pledge.
• According to the report, the energy sector accounts for around 40% of the total average methane emissions from human activity.
• Methane is responsible for around 30% of the rise in global temperatures.
• Methane dissipates faster than carbon dioxide (CO2) but is a much more powerful greenhouse gas during its short lifespan.
• The energy sector accounts for around 40% of methane emissions from human activity

 

Q6.A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?

1. Slowing economic growth rate.
2. Less equitable distribution of national income.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Option 1 is correct. Tax to GDP ratio compares the amount of taxes collected by a government to the amount of income that country receives for its products. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates a slowing economic growth. When tax revenues grow at a slower rate than the GDP of a country, the tax-to GDP ratio drops.

Option 2 is incorrect. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country does not indicate a less equitable distribution of national income. Tax to GDP ratio and income inequality are not directly corelated with each other.

 

Q7.Which of the following group of countries are the members of the Arctic Council?

(a) Canada, Denmark, United Kingdom

(b) Russia, United States and Iceland

(c) Norway, Sweden and Ireland

(d) Canada, Denmark, United Kingdom

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Arctic Council is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among the Arctic States, Arctic Indigenous peoples and other Arctic inhabitants on common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental protection in the Arctic. It was formally established in 1996

The Arctic Council comprises the eight Arctic states: Canada, the Kingdom of Denmark (which includes the autonomous constituent countries of Greenland and the Faroe Islands), Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden and the United States.

 

Q8.Consider the following statements regarding right against self-incrimination

1. As per this “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.”
2. This provision in constitution is mentioned under article 21
3. Providing voice sample amounts to violation of right against self-incrimination

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The right against self-incrimination has its origins in Roman law, and evolved as a distinct right in the English jurisprudence. The Fifth Amendment in the United States Constitution says “No person shall be…compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself…without due process of law

Article 20(3) in Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Indian Constitution says, “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.

In 2019, the Supreme Court in its ruling in Ritesh Sinha versus State of Uttar Pradesh broadened the parameters of handwriting samples to include voice samples, adding that this would not violate the right against self-incrimination.

 

Q9.  Consider the following statements about ‘Leprosy’

1. It is a chronic infectious disease caused by a type of virus which predominantly affects the skin and peripheral nerves
2. India has achieved the elimination of leprosy as a public health problem

Select the INCORRECT statement(s)

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S9.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Leprosy is not caused by a virus; it is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium leprae. It primarily affects the skin and peripheral nerves.

Statement 2 is correct: India has achieved the elimination of leprosy as a public health problem. This means that the prevalence of leprosy has been reduced to a level where it no longer poses a significant public health concern.

India has achieved the elimination of leprosy as a public health problem i.e., defined as less than 1 case per 10,000 populations, at the National level. The World Health Organization (WHO) reports that leprosy is endemic in several Indian states and union territories, with an annual case detection rate of 4.56 per 10,000 population. India reports more than 1,25,000 new patients of leprosy every year.

 

Q10. The term “Summit of Financial Markets and the World Economy” seen in the news refers to :

(a) OECD

(b) G20

(c) World bank

(d) World Economic Forum

 

S10.Ans.(b)

Sol.

¾ The G20 is an international forum comprised of 19 countries and the European Union, representing the world’s major developed and emerging economies. Together, the G20 members represent 85% of the global GDP, 75% of international trade and two-thirds of the world’s population. ¾ It focuses on major global economic issues such as international financial stability, climate change mitigation, and sustainable development. ¾ The G20 Summit is formally known as the “Summit on Financial Markets and the World Economy”. So, Option (b) is correct.

 

Q11.Consider the following pairs:

Dam River

1. Three GorgesDam: Yangtze River
2. ItaipuDam : Amazon River
3. Grand CouleeDam: MississippiRiver

Which of the pairs given above is/arecorrectly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S11.Ans.(a)

Sol.

• The Three Gorges Dam Project (TGP) is one of the world’s biggest hydropower complex projects, located in the Xilingxia Gorge, one of the three gorges of the Yangtze River, in Hubei province, China. Yangtze River is the longest river in both China and Asia andthird longest river in the world. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

o Construction on the Three Gorges Dam was completed in 2008. The dam stands 185m tall and 2,309m wide, making it one of the world’s largest hydro plants, well ahead of Brazil’s 12,600MW Itaipu installation.

• The Itaipu Hydroelectric Dam is located on the Parana River on the border between Brazil and Paraguay. The structure which serves to generate power is about 7.9 km long, with a maximum height of 196 m. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.

o Itaipu Hydroelectric Dam is the world’s second-largest operational hydroelectric power plant in terms of installed power.

• Grand Coulee Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Columbia River in the United States of America, built to produce hydroelectric power and provide irrigation water. It was constructed between 1933 and 1942. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

 

Q12.“This great epic of Tamil literature was written around 2nd century A.D. It is a story of miscarriage ofjustice done to Kannagi at the court of Pandyan dynasty and subsequent revenge taken on kingdom. It isalso a moralistic discourse abounding Jain themes and ideas.” This is a description of the book:

1. Tolkappiyam
2. Kundalakesi
3. Manimekalai
4. Silappadikaram

 

S12.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option a is incorrect: Tolkappiyam is the most ancient and existing Tamil grammar text and the oldest extant long work of Tamil literature. Some in the Tamil tradition place the text in the mythical second sangam, variously in 1st millennium BCE or earlier. Option b is incorrect: Kundalakesi, is a Tamil Buddhist epic written by Nathakuthanaar. The epic is a story about love, marriage, getting tired with the married partner, murder and then discovering religion. Option c is incorrect: Manimekalai is a sequel to the earliest Tamil epic Silappadikaram. Manimekalai is written around 6th century CE. The title Manimekalai is also the name of the daughter of Kovalan and Madhavi, who becomes a Buddhist nun. Option d is correct: Ilango Adigal’sSilappadikaram is considered one of the greatest epics of Tamil literature and was written in 2nd century AD. It revolves around Kannagi, who having lost her husband to a miscarriage of justice at the court of the Pandyan Dynasty, wreaks her revenge on his kingdom. TheSilappatikaran contains Jain themes and the ideas like the idea of Sallekhana, and the presence of Kuvanti the Jain Sadhavi who is a spiritual preceptor/ religious adviser.

 

Q13.Consider the following statements regarding CBI

1. Under CBI there is a Directorate of prosecution which is responsible for conducting the prosecution of cases under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
2. The tenure of the director of CBI is secured for full-fledged 5 years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

The CBI is headed by a Director, an IPS officer with the rank of Director General of Police.

The director of the CBI currently has a fixed two-year tenure, but recently as per the new ordinance promulgated by the president, this tenure can now be given three annual extensions which make it a maximum of two years.

Under CBI There shall be a Directorate of prosecution headed by a Director for conducting the prosecution of cases under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. The Director of Prosecution shall be an officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India. He shall function under the overall supervision and control of the Director of CBI.

 

Q14. Consider the following statements with reference to K-selected species:

1. They produce large number of offsprings with a very high probability of survival to maturity.
2. These species always inhabit unstable environments.
3. Elephants and humans are included in k- selected species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

 

S14.Ans.(c)

Sol.

• According to the Darwin’s theory of evolution, the fitness of species is based on the number of offspring that survive and are then capable of reproduction. Based on this, the species can be classified into two extreme categories in evolutionary terms – r-selected species and k-selected species.
• K-selected (K refers to the carrying capacity) produce low number of offsprings that each have a higher probability of survival to maturity. This means that the babies are entering a competitive world, in a population at or near its carrying capacity. In contrast, r-selected (r is for reproduction) species puts only a small investment of resources into each offspring, but produces many such low effort babies. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• K-selected species possess relatively stable populations fluctuating near the carrying capacity of the environment. These species are characterized by having only a few offspring but investing high amounts of parental care. On the other hand, r-selected species often inhabit unstable environments and are completely density independent. These species often have short life expectancies and invest very low amounts of parental care. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Elephants, humans and bison are all k-selected species while R-selected species can include mosquitoes, mice and bacteria. So, statement 3 is correct.

 

Q15. Consider the following statements with respect to Marburg virus disease (MVD)

1. It is caused by filovirus similar to Ebola.
2. It spreads through human-to-human transmission.
3. Rousettus fruit bats are considered the natural hosts for the Marburg virus.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S15.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Marburg virus disease (MVD)

• Marburg virus disease (MVD), earlier known as Marburg hemorrhagic fever, is a severe, often fatal hemorrhagic fever, according to the WHO.
• Causing agent – It is caused by a filovirus similar to Ebola.
• Host – Rousettus fruit bats are considered the natural hosts for the Marburg virus.
• However, African green monkey s imported from Uganda were the source of the first human infection, the WHO points out.
• First detection -It was first detected in 1967 after simultaneous outbreaks in Marburg and Frankfurt in Germany and in Serbia.
• The disease has an average fatality rate of around 50%.
• Symptoms – begins abruptly, with high fever, severe headache and severe malaise.
• Severe watery diarrhoea, abdominal pain and cramping, nausea and vomiting can begin on the third day .
• Diagnosis – It is difficult to clinically distinguish MVD from diseases such as malaria, typhoid fever and other viral haemorrhagic fevers.
• However, it is confirmed by lab testing of samples, which like Coronavirus and Ebola are extreme biohazard risks.
• There is no approved antiviral treatment or vaccine for MVD as of now.
• It can be managed with supportive care.
• According to the WHO, rehydration with oral or intravenous fluids, and treatment of specific symptoms can help prevent death.

 

Q16. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Yield Curve?

1. The Yield curve is a line chart that plots interest rates for bonds that have equal credit quality, but different maturity dates
2. Yields are normally higher for long term bonds
3. A yield curve is said to be inverted, if interest rates on long-term bonds fall lower than those of short-term bonds
4. An inverted yield curve indicates a boom in economy and an increase in employment opportunities

 

S16.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Government Securities yield curve became inverted recently against the similar phenomenon in the US.

• Yield Curve – It represents the yield or interest rates of bonds of similar quality across various tenors.
• Usually , the yield rises with an increase in the tenor of bonds.
• However, yield curve inversion occurs when the yield of longer-term bonds dips below that of medium-term bonds or the yield of medium term bonds falls below that of short-term bonds.
• Yield curve inversion denotes an impending economic recession or slowdown.

 

Q17. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:

1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 only

 

S17.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Sankirtana involves ritual singing, drumming and dancing performed in the temples and domestic spaces.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Drums and shankha are also used in Sankirtana performances.

Statement 3 is correct. Sankirtana performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna.

Sankirtana inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

Q18.With reference to the ‘Preventive Detention’, consider the following statements:

1. Preventive Detention means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court.
2. The maximum period for which a person can be detained under Preventive Detention is 2 months.
3. Only the Parliament can make a law regarding Preventive Detention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1 and 3 only

 

S18.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Detention is of two types, namely, punitive and preventive. Statement 1 is correct: Preventive detention means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future. It is only a precautionary measure and based on suspicion.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The 44th Amendment act of 1978 has reduced the period of detention without obtaining the opinion of the advisory board from 3 months to 2 months. However, this provision has not yet been brought into force, hence, the original period of three months still continues. Also, if an advisory board reports sufficient cause for an extension, its 3-month period can also be extended.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs and the security of India. Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community

 

Q19. Consider the following statements regarding Low Temperature Thermal Desalination (LTTD) Technology

1. LTTD is used for conversion of seawater into potable water.
2. It exploits the difference in temperature in ocean water at the surface and at depths.
3. The technology is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S19Ans.(d)

Sol.

National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) is aiming to set up green, self-powered desalination plant in Lakshadweep using LTTD technology Working of LTTD

• LTTD exploits the difference in temperature (nearly 15°C) in ocean water at the surface and at depths of about 600 feet.
• This cold water condenses water at the surface, that is warmer but whose pressure has been lowered using vacuum pumps.
• Such de-pressurised water can evaporate even at ambient temperatures and this resultingvapour when condensed is free of salts and contaminants and fit to consume.

Significance of LTTD

• The LTTD technology does not require any chemical pre and post-treatment of seawater and thus the pollution problems are minimal and suitable for island territories.
• Since no effluent treatment is required, it gives less operational maintenance problems compared to other desalination processes.
• The LTTD technology is completely indigenous, robust and environment friendly.
• Currently, 4 LTTD plants have been successfully commissioned in the country, namely Kavaratti, Minicoy ,Agatti of Lakshadweep and one at Northern Chennai Thermal Power Station (NCTPS), Chennai. National Institute of Ocean T echnology (NIOT)
• It is an autonomous body of the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
• It is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• It has been responsible for design, develop, demonstrate and commission the LTTD plants in selected coastal locations.

 

Q20.Consider the following statements regarding polar vortex

1. The polar vortex is a large circulation of low pressure and cold air that forms every winter in the above the equator
2. Polar vortex always spins in the stratosphere

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S20.Ans. (a)

Sol.

The polar vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air surrounding both of the Earth’s poles. It ALWAYS exists near the poles, but weakens in summer and strengthens in winter. The term “vortex” refers to the counter-clockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the Poles. Many times during winter in the northern hemisphere, the polar vortex will expand, sending cold air southward with the jet stream

 

Q21.The revenue administration was separated from the judiciary functions and which led to the disappearance of the Maal Adalats was a provision introduced by which of the following acts?

• Charter Act of 1833
• Charter Act of 1813
• Charter Act of 1793
• Act of 1786

 

S21.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The Charter Act of 1793

• The Act renewed the Company’s commercial privileges for the next 20 years.
• The Company, after paying the necessary expenses, interest, dividends, salaries, etc., from the Indian revenues, was to pay 5 lakh pounds annually to the British government.
• The royal approval was mandated for the appointment of the governor-general, the governors, and the commander in-chief.
• Senior officials of the Company were debarred from leaving India without permission—doing so was treated as a resignation.
• The Company was empowered to give licences to individuals as well as the Company’s employees to trade in India. The licences, known as ‘privilege’ or ‘country trade’, paved the way for shipments of opium to China.
• The revenue administration was separated from the judiciary functions and this led to the disappearing of the Maal Adalats.
• The Home Government members were to be paid out of Indian revenues which continued up to 1919

 

Q22.Consider the following statements regarding Shadow zones of earthquakes:

1. P-waves are not detected beyond 104° degrees from the focus due to refraction at the mantle-core boundary.
2. S waves cannot pass through the solid outer core and are not detected between 105-145 degrees from the focus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S22.Ans.(d)

Sol.

The Shadow zone is the zone in the earth’s interior from where earthquake waves are not reported. Shadow zones occur due to the bending of earthquake waves as they pass from one medium to another.

P-wave shadow zone:

P-waves are not detected between 105-145 degrees from the focus which is called the P-wave shadow zone. It is due to the bending and slowing down(due to change in density) of P-waves as it enters the outer core. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

S-wave shadow zone: S-waves cannot pass through the outer core which is liquid and it results in an S-wave shadow zone beyond 105 degrees from the focus. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

 

Q23. Consider the following statements with reference to the Unified Payment Interface (UPI):

1. It is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application merging several banking features.
2. It was launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
3. Credit card payments are completely prohibited on UPI.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Recently, Razorpay, a payments and banking platform, announced its readiness to support credit card transactions on Unified Payments Interface (UPI), claiming it was an industry-first move. Now, with RuPay credit cards being enabled on UPI, Razorpay merchants would be able to accept credit card payments on UPI, with minimal changes to their existing set-up. This disruption was made possible in partnership with Axis bank. Hence statement 3 is not correct. Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood. It also caters to the “Peer to Peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per requirement and convenience. Hence statement 1 is correct.UPI is a real-time payment system, launched in 2016 by National Payments Corporation of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements regarding Sunga Dynasty

1. The sunga dynasty patronized Buddhism
2. The Sungas revived Brahmanism
3. The horse sacrifice was prevalent during the Sunga dynasty
4. Sunga dynasty promoted Vaisanism

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 and 4
3. 2,3 and 4
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Following the Mauryans, the first Brahmin emperor was Pushyamitra Shunga, and is believed by some historians to have persecuted Buddhists and contributed to a resurgence of Brahmanism that forced Buddhism outwards to Kashmir, Gandhara, and Bactria.

Pushyamitra is said to have burned down Buddhist monasteries, destroyed stupas few Buddhist scriptures mention this.

In the cultural sphere, the Sungas revived Brahmanism and horse sacrifice. They also promoted the growth of Vaishnavism and the Sanskrit language

 

Q25.  Consider the following statements regarding Dhawan II Engine:

1. It is a fully 3D-printed cryogenic rocket engine to be used in the Vikram II engine.
2. It uses Liquid Natural Gas and Liquid Oxygen as the fuel.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S25.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Private space vehicle company Skyroot Aerospace test-fired its 3D-printed Dhawan II engine. Dhawan II Engine It is a fully 3D-printed cryogenic engine. It is developed to use in Vikram-II rocket. It is a 3.5 Kilo Newton (kN) engine. It is a successor of the fully-cryogenic rocket engine Dhawan-I which generates a 1.0 kN thrust. The cryogenic rocket engine uses two high-performance rocket fuels Liquid Natural Gas (LNG) – more than 90 per cent Methane Liquid Oxygen (LoX) – green burning fuel Both are required to maintain cryogenic temperatures (below -150° Celsius) for storage and operation. It has higher specific impulse, which greatly enhances payload-carrying capabilities. Vikram -I will be the first private orbital rocket launch from South Asia.