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    When are the two vibrating particles said to be in same phase?
    Question

    When are the two vibrating particles said to be in same phase?

    A.

    if the phase difference between them is an even multiple of π

    B.

    if the path difference is an even multiple of $(\lambda/2)$

    C.

    if the time interval is an even multiple of $(T/2)$

    D.

    All of the above

    Correct option is D

    The correct answer is (d) All of the above

    Explanation:
    • Particles are in the same phase when they are at the same displacement and moving in the same direction.
    Phase difference: Must be $2n\pi$ (where n = 0, 1, 2...), which is an even multiple of $\pi$.
    Path difference: Must be $n\lambda$, which is an even multiple of $\lambda/2$ (i.e., $2n \times \lambda/2$).
    Time interval: Must be $nT$, which is an even multiple of $T/2$.

    Information Booster:
    • If the phase difference is an odd multiple of $\pi$, the particles are in opposite phase.
    $\lambda$ is the wavelength and $T$ is the time period.

    Additional Knowledge:
    Option A
    • Correct: 0, 2$\pi$, 4$\pi$ represents same state.
    Option B
    • Correct: $\lambda$, 2$\lambda$ corresponds to same phase.
    Option C
    • Correct: T, 2T represents the completion of full cycles.

    So the correct answer is (d)

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