Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: September-5

The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.

What is the primary focus of Gond art?
(a) Religious themes
(b) Nature and animals
(c) Geometric patterns
(d) Historical events
Ans: (b) Nature and animals
Which tribe is known for Pithora paintings?
(a) Rathwas
(b) Warlis
(c) Gonds
(d) Bhilalas
Ans: (a) Rathwas
Where are Madhubani paintings predominantly practiced?
(a) Odisha
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (c) Bihar
Pattachitra paintings are traditionally associated with which state?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Odisha
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Bihar
Ans: (b) Odisha
Which material is NOT used in Warli painting?
(a) Rice paste
(b) Gum
(c) Water
(d) Natural dyes
Ans: (d) Natural dyes
What is the main characteristic of Madhubani paintings?
(a) Use of natural dyes
(b) Geometric patterns
(c) Depiction of deities
(d) Abstract art
Ans: (b) Geometric patterns
Which tribe traditionally paints on mud walls of their houses?
(a) Gonds
(b) Rathwas
(c) Warlis
(d) Bhilalas
Ans: (a) Gonds
Which of the following is a distinctive style of Madhubani painting?
(a) Kohbar
(b) Godna
(c) Pithora
(d) Samaveda
Ans: (a) Kohbar
The main purpose of Pithora paintings is to:
(a) Create decorative art
(b) Bring prosperity and happiness
(c) Depict historical events
(d) Illustrate religious stories
Ans: (b) Bring prosperity and happiness
Which Veda is known as the Veda of melodies and chants?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Samaveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (c) Samaveda
The Samaveda is considered the root of:
(a) Indian classical music
(b) Indian dance
(c) Hindu mythology
(d) Ritualistic practices
Ans: (a) Indian classical music
Which two Upanishads are embedded in the Samaveda?
(a) Chandogya and Brihadaranyaka
(b) Kena and Isha
(c) Katha and Taittiriya
(d) Mundaka and Mandukya
Ans: (b) Kena and Isha
The Yajurveda is categorized into which two types?
(a) White and Black
(b) Old and New
(c) Long and Short
(d) Clear and Unclear
Ans: (a) White and Black
Which layer of Yajurveda includes the Satapatha Brahmana?
(a) Oldest layer
(b) Middle layer
(c) Youngest layer
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Middle layer
The Atharvaveda is known for containing:
(a) Ritualistic hymns
(b) Magical formulas
(c) Musical chants
(d) Philosophical discourse
Ans: (b) Magical formulas
Which Veda includes the Upanishads Mundaka, Mandukya, and Prashna?
(a) Samaveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Atharvaveda
(d) Rigveda
Ans: (c) Atharvaveda
Which recension of Yajurveda is considered ‘Shukla’?
(a) Krishna
(b) White
(c) Black
(d) Ancient
Ans: (b) White
The Samaveda Samhita is intended to be:
(a) Read as a text
(b) Heard like a musical score
(c) Recited as a hymn
(d) Memorized as a chant
Ans: (b) Heard like a musical score
Which Veda is described as a Veda of magical formulas?
(a) Samaveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Rigveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (d) Atharvaveda
Which painting style is NOT traditionally associated with the Northern Sahyadri region?
(a) Warli
(b) Madhubani
(c) Gond
(d) Pithora
Ans: (b) Madhubani
Which Veda has two embedded Upanishads: Chandogya and Kena?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (b) Samaveda
Which type of paint is NOT used in Madhubani paintings?
(a) Natural dyes
(b) Rice paste
(c) Bright colours
(d) Geometric patterns
Ans: (b) Rice paste
Pattachitra paintings are primarily characterized by:
(a) Abstract themes
(b) Geometric patterns
(c) Hindu mythology and folklore
(d) Modern themes
Ans: (c) Hindu mythology and folklore
Which Veda’s hymns are unique, with few exceptions from Rigveda?
(a) Samaveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Rigveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (d) Atharvaveda
Which layer of the Yajurveda is described as having clear and arranged verses?
(a) Krishna
(b) Shukla
(c) Oldest
(d) Youngest
Ans: (b) Shukla
Warli paintings are created using which of the following tools?
(a) Brush
(b) Bamboo stick
(c) Nib
(d) Matchsticks
Ans: (b) Bamboo stick
Which Veda has the largest number of verses borrowed from Rigveda?
(a) Atharvaveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Samaveda
(d) Rigveda
Ans: (c) Samaveda
Gond art is primarily associated with which part of India?
(a) Northern India
(b) Southern India
(c) Central India
(d) Eastern India
Ans: (c) Central India
In which Veda are the hymns meant to be pronounced by a sorcerer or seeker?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (d) Atharvaveda
The Rigveda primarily consists of:
(a) Hymns and chants
(b) Ritualistic procedures
(c) Philosophical teachings
(d) Magical spells
Ans: (a) Hymns and chants
Which institution released the publication titled ‘75 Endemic Birds of India’?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Zoological Survey of India
(c) UNEP
(d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Ans. (b) Zoological Survey of India
According to the Elephant Census-2023, which state leads the country in the total number of elephants?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
Ans. (a) Karnataka
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) ordered a ban on cruise ships operating on water bodies of which state?
(a) Odisha
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (b) Madhya Pradesh
A recent CAG report has filed mismanagement affecting wildlife and forests in which state?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Sikkim
(c) Gujarat
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (c) Gujarat
As per a recent study, which species produces food grains as much as 140 million tonnes of food annually?
(a) Earthworms
(b) Bullocks
(c) Fish
(d) Ants
Ans. (a) Earthworms
Which state has the highest population of Snow Leopard Count in India?
(a) Assam
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Sikkim
Ans. (b) Himachal Pradesh
The Hostile Activity Watch Kernel (HAWK) system is associated with which state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Ans. (b) Karnataka
Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary (WLS) is located in which state?
(a) Odisha
(b) Bihar
(c) Sikkim
(d) Goa
Ans. (d) Goa
Cnemaspis rashidi is the name of which new species discovered in the Western Ghats recently?
(a) Spider
(b) Turtle
(c) Gecko
(d) Butterfly
Ans. (c) Gecko
Which term refers to the warming of the ocean surface in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean?
(a) El Nino
(b) La Nina
(c) Continental pattern
(d) Monsoon pattern
Ans. (a) El Nino
Which study revealed that 84% of districts in India are experiencing severe heatwaves?
(a) Managing Monsoons in a Warming Climate
(b) Climate Crisis and India
(c) India’s Heatwave Analysis
(d) Extreme Weather Patterns in India
Ans. (a) Managing Monsoons in a Warming Climate
Which region in India is NOT mentioned as being affected by extreme weather in the recent study?
(a) Coastal Areas
(b) Plains
(c) Desert Areas
(d) Hilly Areas
Ans. (c) Desert Areas
What was the key focus of the ‘Heat Risk Observatory’?
(a) Monitoring floods
(b) Predicting heatwaves
(c) Tracking hurricanes
(d) Analyzing rainfall patterns
Ans. (b) Predicting heatwaves
Which system in Karnataka focuses on wildlife crime management?
(a) HAWK
(b) EAGLE
(c) OWL
(d) FALCON
Ans. (a) HAWK
What environmental issue was a major reason for the NGT ban on cruise ships in Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Air pollution
(b) Noise pollution
(c) Overfishing
(d) Land encroachment
Ans. (b) Noise pollution
How many bird species are found in India, according to the Zoological Survey of India?
(a) 1,000
(b) 1,253
(c) 1,353
(d) 1,453
Ans. (c) 1,353
What percentage of bird species in India are endemic according to the recent publication by ZSI?
(a) 3%
(b) 5%
(c) 7%
(d) 9%
Ans. (b) 5%
Which state’s elephant population nearly reduced by half according to the Elephant Census-2023?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Assam
Ans. (c) Kerala
Which Indian state is home to the highest density of snow leopards?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Sikkim
Ans. (c) Himachal Pradesh
Which body is responsible for auditing Waqf properties according to the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024?
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) CAG
(d) Waqf Board
Ans. (c) CAG
What species was named after Prof. Rashid Sayyed in the Western Ghats discovery?
(a) A spider
(b) A turtle
(c) A gecko
(d) A butterfly
Ans. (c) A gecko
Which of the following is NOT affected by the extreme weather patterns according to the study?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Kerala
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar
Ans. (b) Kerala
What is a key characteristic of El Niño events?
(a) Warming of ocean surface
(b) Cooling of ocean surface
(c) Increased monsoon
(d) Drier winters
Ans. (a) Warming of ocean surface
What new finding about earthworms was highlighted in a recent study?
(a) Earthworms contribute significantly to global food production
(b) Earthworms are the main cause of soil degradation
(c) Earthworms are endangered in many regions
(d) Earthworms have medicinal properties
Ans. (a) Earthworms contribute significantly to global food production
Which report raised concerns over wildlife mismanagement in Gujarat?
(a) CAG Report
(b) NGT Report
(c) UNEP Report
(d) WWF Report
Ans. (a) CAG Report
What action did the Goa Bench of the Bombay High Court order concerning the Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary?
(a) Declaring it a tiger reserve
(b) Banning tourism
(c) Expanding its area
(d) Removing it from the sanctuary list
Ans. (a) Declaring it a tiger reserve
Which statement is true about black carbon?
(a) Produced naturally and by human activities
(b) Major contributor to climate change
(c) Particles strongly absorb sunlight
(d) Technologies to reduce emissions are not available
Ans. (a) Produced naturally and by human activities
The concept of the Kyoto protocol was created in which summit?
(a) Kyoto protocol
(b) Montreal protocol
(c) Basel convention
(d) Ramsar convention
Ans. (a) Kyoto protocol
The Cartagena protocol is related to?
(a) Bio-safety
(b) Trans-boundary movement of hazardous wastes
(c) Climate change
(d) Ozone depletion
Ans. (a) Bio-safety
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Ponzan summit: 2008
(b) Bali summit: 2002
(c) Earth Summit: 1992
(d) Montreal Protocol: 1987
Ans. (b) Bali summit: 2002
The Charter Act of 1813 was primarily enacted to:
(a) Extend the rule of the East India Company in India
(b) End the British trade monopoly in India completely
(c) Grant independence to Indian territories
(d) Establish complete British sovereignty over India
Ans: (a) Extend the rule of the East India Company in India
Which of the following was not a monopoly retained by the East India Company after the enactment of the Charter Act of 1813?
(a) Trade with China
(b) Tea trade
(c) Trade with Europe
(d) Opium trade
Ans: (c) Trade with Europe
The Charter Act of 1813 allowed British missionaries to:
(a) Trade in Indian territories
(b) Engage in religious proselytization in India
(c) Govern Indian provinces
(d) Establish schools exclusively for Europeans
Ans: (b) Engage in religious proselytization in India
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Charter Act of 1813?
(a) It imposed a total ban on Indian literature and scientific studies
(b) It provided financial grants for the promotion of Indian literature and science
(c) It restricted education in India to only Europeans
(d) It reduced the powers of the local Indian courts over Europeans
Ans: (b) It provided financial grants for the promotion of Indian literature and science
What was the fixed dividend percentage for the East India Company as per the Charter Act of 1813?
(a) 8.5%
(b) 9.5%
(c) 10.5%
(d) 11.5%
Ans: (c) 10.5%
Under the Charter Act of 1813, the East India Company’s rule was extended by:
(a) 10 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 25 years
Ans: (c) 20 years
The Charter Act of 1813 gave more powers to which courts over European British subjects?
(a) Indian local courts
(b) British High Court
(c) French courts in India
(d) Supreme Court in Calcutta
Ans: (a) Indian local courts
The Charter Act of 1813 was repealed by which subsequent act?
(a) Government of India Act, 1858
(b) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(c) Government of India Act, 1915
(d) Regulating Act, 1773
Ans: (c) Government of India Act, 1915
Which of the following was one of the main reasons behind the enactment of the Charter Act of 1813?
(a) The decline of the Mughal Empire
(b) The Continental System in Europe by Napoleon Bonaparte
(c) The First Anglo-Maratha War
(d) The demand for Indian independence
Ans: (b) The Continental System in Europe by Napoleon Bonaparte
The Charter Act of 1813 made provisions for the appointment of which religious figure in India?
(a) Archbishop
(b) Bishop
(c) Cardinal
(d) Imam
Ans: (b) Bishop
Who established the Calcutta Madrassa in 1781 for the teaching of Muslim law?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Jonathan Duncan
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Sir Charles Wood
Ans. (a) Warren Hastings
Which of the following was the first step towards making education a government objective in India?
(a) Wood’s Despatch
(b) Charter Act of 1813
(c) Macaulay’s Minutes
(d) Hunter Commission
Ans. (b) Charter Act of 1813
Who is associated with the establishment of a Sanskrit College in Varanasi in 1791?
(a) William Carey
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Jonathan Duncan
(d) Charles Wood
Ans. (c) Jonathan Duncan
What was the main reason for the British to promote education in India?
(a) To educate Indians for clerical jobs
(b) To spread Western culture and values
(c) To introduce scientific education
(d) To promote religious harmony
Ans. (a) To educate Indians for clerical jobs
Who among the following was an ardent supporter of English education and proposed the ‘infiltration theory’?
(a) James Prinsep
(b) Thomas Babington Macaulay
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Henry Thomas Colebrooke
Ans. (b) Thomas Babington Macaulay
The Elphinstone College in Bombay and the Calcutta Medical College were established in which year?
(a) 1791
(b) 1835
(c) 1854
(d) 1882
Ans. (b) 1835
Which document is known as the ‘Magna Carta of English education in India’?
(a) Charter Act of 1813
(b) Macaulay’s Minutes
(c) Wood’s Despatch
(d) Hunter Commission Report
Ans. (c) Wood’s Despatch
The Wood’s Despatch of 1854 emphasized the education of which of the following groups?
(a) Indian women
(b) British settlers
(c) Indian farmers
(d) Indian merchants
Ans. (a) Indian women
Which universities were established as a result of Wood’s Despatch by 1857?
(a) Universities of Madras, Calcutta, and Bombay
(b) University of Punjab and University of Allahabad
(c) Delhi University and Banaras Hindu University
(d) Aligarh Muslim University and Osmania University
Ans. (a) Universities of Madras, Calcutta, and Bombay
In 1921, what was the approximate illiteracy rate in British India?
(a) 92%
(b) 80%
(c) 70%
(d) 50%
Ans. (a) 92%
Which of the following was a key feature of the Charter Act of 1833?
(a) The company’s commercial activities were expanded.
(b) The company’s commercial activities were closed down.
(c) The company was allowed to trade freely with China.
(d) The company was granted new trading rights in India.
Ans: (b) The company’s commercial activities were closed down.
Who was the first Governor-General of India as per the Charter Act of 1833?
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Ans: (c) Lord William Bentinck
Which act legalised the British colonisation of India?
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(c) Charter Act of 1813
(d) Charter Act of 1833
Ans: (d) Charter Act of 1833
The Charter Act of 1833 provided for which of the following regarding the Governor-General’s powers?
(a) Legislative powers were limited to Bengal.
(b) Legislative powers were extended over entire British India.
(c) Governor-General had no legislative powers.
(d) Legislative powers were extended over only Madras and Bombay.
Ans: (b) Legislative powers were extended over entire British India.
Which of the following statements is true about the Indian Law Commission established by the Charter Act of 1833?
(a) It sought to codify all British law.
(b) It sought to codify all Indian law.
(c) It sought to codify all European law.
(d) It sought to codify only religious law.
Ans: (b) It sought to codify all Indian law.
According to the Charter Act of 1833, who could be employed in government service?
(a) Only British citizens
(b) Only members of the East India Company
(c) Indians, based on merit
(d) Indians, based on their caste
Ans: (c) Indians, based on merit
What was one of the significant outcomes of the Charter Act of 1833 regarding the Presidency of Bengal?
(a) Bengal was divided into Agra and Fort William presidencies.
(b) Bengal was unified with Madras.
(c) Bengal remained undivided as the division was never implemented.
(d) Bengal was made a separate entity from British India.
Ans: (c) Bengal remained undivided as the division was never implemented.
How did the Charter Act of 1833 address the issue of slavery in India?
(a) It ignored the issue of slavery.
(b) It encouraged slavery.
(c) It provided for the mitigation of slavery.
(d) It abolished slavery immediately in India.
Ans: (c) It provided for the mitigation of slavery.
How did the Charter Act of 1833 impact the governance structure in India?
(a) It decentralized the administration.
(b) It unified the country’s administration under one control.
(c) It split the administration between British and Indian leaders.
(d) It granted full autonomy to Indian princely states.
Ans: (b) It unified the country’s administration under one control.
What change did the Charter Act of 1833 bring about concerning the religious establishment in India?
(a) It restricted the number of Bishops to one in India.
(b) It prohibited the establishment of Christian institutions.
(c) It allowed for the establishment of three Bishops in India.
(d) It mandated the closure of Christian institutions in India.
Ans: (c) It allowed for the establishment of three Bishops in India.
ସେ ତ__ ଅନର୍ଥ ସୃଷ୍ଟି କରୁଛି ତାକୁ କଣ ଜାଣି ନାହିଁ
(a) ହୁଂକାପିଟା
(b) ଅତି ଦୁଷ୍ଟ
(c) ଦୁଷ୍ଟ
(d) ମହା ଦୁଷ୍ଟ
Ans: ହୁଂକାପିଟା
ଗୋବର ଗଣେଶ – ରୂଢି ଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ମୂଲ୍ୟହୀନ
(b) କଥା କଷ୍ଟସାଧ୍ୟ
(c) ବୃଥା ସ୍ୱପ୍ନ
(d) ନିର୍ବୋଧ
Ans: ନିର୍ବୋଧ
ଜପାମାଳି – ରୂଢି ଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ନିର୍ବୋଧ
(b) ମଫସଲିଆ
(c) ସୁନ୍ଦର
(d) ଅତିପ୍ରିୟ
Ans: ଅତିପ୍ରିୟ
ପ୍ରକୃତ କଥା ନ ଜାଣି__ କରି କହୁଛ କାହିଁକି?
(a) ଠାସୁକୁମାରି
(b) ଅନ୍ଦାଜ଼ କରି
(c) ଅନୁମାନ କରି
(d) ନ ଦେଖି
Ans: ଠାସୁକୁମାରି
ଅନର୍ଥର ମୂଳ ଏହି ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରୁଥିବା ରୂଢିଟି କେଉଁଟି?
(a) ଚିତା କାଟିବା
(b) ନାଟର ଗୋବର୍ଧନ
(c) ମୁହଁ ଦେବା
(d) ଦାଉ ସାଧିବା
Ans: ନାଟର ଗୋବର୍ଧନ
___ଧନ ମଣିଷକୁ ପ୍ରକୃତ ଶାନ୍ତି ଦିଏ
(a) ଉଠେଇ ଆଣିଥିବା
(b) ଠକି ଆଣିଥିବା
(c) ଝାଳ ବୁହା
(d) ତଣ୍ଟି ଆଣିଥିବା
Ans: ଝାଳ ବୁହା
ପ୍ରଦୀପ ର ସମୋଚ୍ଚାରିତ ଶବ୍ଦ କ’ଣ?
(a) ପ୍ରତୀପ
(b) ପ୍ରତିକ୍ଷଣ
(c) ପ୍ରତୀତ
(d) ପ୍ରଧାନ
ଉତ୍ତର: (a) ପ୍ରତୀପ
ପୁତ ଶବ୍ଦର ଭିନ୍ନା ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ ହେବ?
(a) ପବିତ୍ର
(b) ଦୀପ
(c) ନରକ ବିଶେଷ
(d) ଶ୍ରେଷ୍ଠ
ଉତ୍ତର: (c) ନରକ ବିଶେଷ
ଦୁର୍ଦ୍ଦଶା ର ସନ୍ଧିବିଛେଦ କ’ଣ ହେବ?
(a) ଦୁର୍ + ଦଶା
(b) ଦୁର୍ + ଆରୋଗ୍ୟ
(c) ଦୁର୍ + ଭିକ୍ଷ
(d) ଦୁର୍ + ଶ୍ରେଷ୍ଠ
ଉତ୍ତର: (a) ଦୁର୍ + ଦଶା
ପ୍ରତୀକ୍ଷଣ ସମୋଚ୍ଚାରିତ ଶବ୍ଦର ଭିନ୍ନା ଅର୍ଥ ହେବ କ’ଣ?
(a) ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦେଶ, ସମ୍ୟକ୍ ଦେଖିବା
(b) ଅନୁକ୍ଷଣ, ସମ୍ୟକ୍ ଦେଖିବା
(c) ଆନନ୍ଦ, ସର୍ବଦା
(d) ମନୋରଞ୍ଜନ, ସମ୍ୟକ୍ ଦେଖିବା
ଉତ୍ତର: (b) ଅନୁକ୍ଷଣ, ସମ୍ୟକ୍ ଦେଖିବା
ଦୁର୍ଗୁଣ ର ସନ୍ଧିବିଛେଦ କ’ଣ ହେବ?
(a) ଦୁର୍ + ଭିକ୍ଷ
(b) ଦୁର୍ + ଗୁଣ
(c) ଦୁର୍ + ନାମ
(d) ଦୁର୍ + ଆରୋଗ୍ୟ
ଉତ୍ତର: (b) ଦୁର୍ + ଗୁଣ
ପ୍ରଦାନ ଶବ୍ଦର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ ହେବ?
(a) ପବିତ୍ର
(b) ଶ୍ରେଷ୍ଠ
(c) ଦେବା
(d) ଦୀପ
ଉତ୍ତର: (c) ଦେବା
‘ଦୁର୍ନାମ’ ର ସନ୍ଧିବିଛେଦ କ’ଣ ହେବ?
(a) ଦୁର୍ + ନାମ
(b) ଦୁର୍ + ଆରୋଗ୍ୟ
(c) ଦୁର୍ + ଭିକ୍ଷ
(d) ଦୁର୍ + ଯୋଗ
ଉତ୍ତର: (a) ଦୁର୍ + ନାମ
‘ପୁଷ୍କଳ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ପଦ୍ମ
(b) ବହୁଳ
(c) ଆନନ୍ଦ
(d) ବିପରୀତ
ଉତ୍ତର: (b) ବହୁଳ
“ଆଗରେ ଜନ୍ମ ନେଇଛି ଯେ” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ଅଗ୍ରସର
(b) ଅଗ୍ରଜ
(c) ନିଦ୍ରାଳୁ
(d) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
Ans: (b) ଅଗ୍ରଜ
“ଆଗରେ ଯେ ଯାଏ” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ଅଗ୍ରସର
(b) ଅଗ୍ରଜ
(c) ଅଧ୍ୟାପକ
(d) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
Ans: (a) ଅଗ୍ରସର
“ଅକ୍ଷିର ପର” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ପରୋକ୍ଷ
(b) ଅଗ୍ରଜ
(c) ଅଧ୍ୟାପକ
(d) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
Ans: (a) ପରୋକ୍ଷ
“ଆଳସ୍ୟ କରିବା ସ୍ଵଭାବ ଯାହାର” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ଅଳସୁଆ
(b) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
(c) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
(d) ଅଧ୍ୟାପକ
Ans: (a) ଅଳସୁଆ
“ଅଳ୍ପ ବୟଃ ଯାହାର” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ଅଳପୁଆ
(b) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
(c) ଅଳସୁଆ
(d) ଅଳ୍ପବୟସ୍କ
Ans: (d) ଅଳ୍ପବୟସ୍କ
“ଆନନ୍ଦର ଅଭାବ” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ନିରାନନ୍ଦ
(b) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
(c) ଅଳସୁଆ
(d) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
Ans: (a) ନିରାନନ୍ଦ
“ଅନେକଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ବୃହତ୍” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ବୃହତ୍ତମ
(b) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
(c) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
(d) ଅଧ୍ୟାପକ
Ans: (a) ବୃହତ୍ତମ
“ଅନେକଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରେ କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ବୃହତ୍ତମ
(b) କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ରତମ
(c) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
(d) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
Ans: (b) କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ରତମ
ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ବାକ୍ୟ ଟି ବାଛ ?
(a) ଶିକ୍ଷୟତ୍ରୀ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ଛାତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କୁ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ପଚାରିଲେ
(b) ଶିକ୍ଷୟତ୍ରୀ ଛାତ୍ରମାଙ୍କୁ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ପଚାରିଲେ
(c) ଶିକ୍ଷୟତ୍ରି ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ଛାତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କୁ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ପଚାରିଲେ
(d) ଶିକ୍ଷୟିତ୍ରୀ ଛାତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କୁ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ପଚାରିଲେ
Ans: (d) ଶିକ୍ଷୟିତ୍ରୀ ଛାତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କୁ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ପଚାରିଲେ
ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ବାଛ ?
(a) ଆଧିକ୍ୟ
(b) ଆଧିକ୍ଯତା
(c) ଅଧିକ୍ଯ
(d) ଅଧିକ୍ଯତା
Ans: (a) ଆଧିକ୍ୟ
ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ବାକ୍ୟଟି ବାଛ ?
(a) ଲଜ୍ଯାରେ ମୋ ମୁଣ୍ଡ ନଇଁ ଗଲା
(b) ଲଜ୍ଜାରେରେ ମୋ ମୁଣ୍ଡ ନଇଁ ଗଲା
(c) ଲଜ୍ଯାରେ ମୋ ମୁଣ୍ଡ ନଇଁ ଗଲା
(d) ଲଜ୍ଯାରେ ମୋ ମଣ୍ଡ ନଇଁ ଗଲା
Ans:(b) ଲଜ୍ଜାରେରେ ମୋ ମୁଣ୍ଡ ନଇଁ ଗଲା
ଲଙ୍କାରେ ହରି ଶବ୍ଦ – ଏହା କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥକୁ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରେ ?
(a) ଶକ୍ତିଶାଳୀ
(b) ଅସମ୍ଭବ କଥା
(c) ସୁଆଦିଆ
(d) ଆମୋଦପ୍ରମୋଦ
Ans: (b) ଅସମ୍ଭବ କଥା
ଯେଉଁ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ସାମାନ୍ୟ ରୂପରେ ପରିବର୍ଭନ ହୋଇ ଆମ ଭାଷାରେ ଚଳୁଛି ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
(a) ତତ୍ସମ
(b) ତଭବ
(c) ଦେଶଜ
(d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
Ans. (b) ତଭବ
ଯେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦୀର୍ଘକାଳ ଧରି ଆମ ଭାଷାରେ ଚଳି | ଆସୁଅଛି, ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ କଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) ତତ୍ସମ
(b) ତଭବ
(c) ଦେଶଜ
(d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
Ans. (c) ଦେଶଜ
ଯେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଅନ୍ୟ ଭାଷାରୁ ଆସି ଆମ ଭାଷାରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହେଉଅଛି, ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ କଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) ତତସମ
(b) ତଭବ
(c) ଦେଶଜ
(d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
Ans. (d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
ପର୍ବତରୁ ପଥର ଖସିଲା ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଟି କି କାରକ ?
(a) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ
(b) କର୍ମ କାରକ
(c) ଅପାଦାନ
(d) କରଣ କାରକ
Ans. (c) ଅପାଦାନ
Where are Tropical Evergreen rain forests predominantly found in India?
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Deccan Plateau
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Central India
Ans. (a) Western Ghats
Which tree species is NOT commonly found in Tropical Evergreen rain forests?
(a) Mahogany
(b) Sandalwood
(c) Teak
(d) Rosewood
Ans. (c) Teak
Deciduous forests in India are found in which of the following regions?
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Central Deccan Plateau
(d) Andaman Islands
Ans. (c) Central Deccan Plateau
What is the primary reason why Dry Deciduous forests are characterized?
(a) High annual precipitation
(b) Low annual precipitation
(c) Rich biodiversity
(d) Evergreen vegetation
Ans. (b) Low annual precipitation
Which type of forest is characterized by a multilayered structure with intense tree growth and high biodiversity?
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Tidal or Mangrove forests
(c) Tropical Evergreen forests
(d) Semi-desert vegetation
Ans. (c) Tropical Evergreen forests
Which trees are commonly found in the higher elevations of the Himalayas?
(a) Rhododendrons and Junipers
(b) Sal and Teak
(c) Pine and Fir
(d) Bamboo and Mahogany
Ans. (a) Rhododendrons and Junipers
What is a significant feature of Mangrove forests?
(a) High altitude location
(b) Low annual precipitation
(c) Growth near coastal areas and deltas
(d) Presence of tropical hardwood trees
Ans. (c) Growth near coastal areas and deltas
Which of the following is NOT a typical tree found in Tidal or Mangrove forests?
(a) Sundari
(b) Hogla
(c) Sal
(d) Garan
Ans. (c) Sal
Where are Semi-desert and Desert vegetation primarily found in India?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Punjab and Rajasthan
(c) West Bengal
(d) Meghalaya
Ans. (b) Punjab and Rajasthan
Why does Tropical Evergreen rain forest not regenerate quickly compared to Deciduous forests?
(a) Exotic species invade the fertile soil
(b) The soil is deficient in nutrients
(c) Rain forest species are slow-growing
(d) Propagules of the trees have poor viability
Ans. (b) The soil is deficient in nutrients
What is the primary action of weathering on Earth?
a) Formation of new rocks
b) Erosion of sediments
c) Disintegration of rocks
d) Creation of mountains
Ans. c) Disintegration of rocks
Which of the following is NOT a major group of weathering processes?
a) Biological Weathering
b) Chemical Weathering
c) Physical or Mechanical Weathering
d) Erosion Weathering
Ans. d) Erosion Weathering
What role do climate and atmospheric conditions play in weathering?
a) They have no effect on weathering processes.
b) They influence the rate and type of weathering.
c) They only affect physical weathering.
d) They are solely responsible for chemical weathering.
Ans. b) They influence the rate and type of weathering.
Which weathering process involves the fragmentation of rocks by biological agents?
a) Chemical Weathering
b) Physical Weathering
c) Biological Weathering
d) Thermal Weathering
Ans. c) Biological Weathering
How does physical or mechanical weathering differ from chemical weathering?
a) Physical weathering involves chemical reactions, while chemical weathering involves physical forces.
b) Physical weathering is caused by biological agents, whereas chemical weathering is caused by physical forces.
c) Physical weathering is caused by physical forces, whereas chemical weathering involves chemical reactions.
d) Physical weathering only affects minerals, while chemical weathering affects organic materials.
Ans. c) Physical weathering is caused by physical forces, whereas chemical weathering involves chemical reactions.
Which of the following factors influences the degree of weathering?
a) Only climatic factors
b) Only biological factors
c) Geological, climatic, topographic, and vegetative factors
d) Only atmospheric conditions
Ans. c) Geological, climatic, topographic, and vegetative factors
What determines the resistance of minerals to weathering?
a) Their color and size
b) The depth of the weathering mantle
c) Their formation pressure and temperature
d) Their age and location
Ans. c) Their formation pressure and temperature
Which type of weathering is characterized by the weakening of rocks through chemical reactions?
a) Physical Weathering
b) Mechanical Weathering
c) Biological Weathering
d) Chemical Weathering
Ans. d) Chemical Weathering
What is the primary cause of biological weathering?
a) Water and ice
b) Wind and temperature changes
c) Plants, animals, and microbes
d) Chemical reactions in the atmosphere
Ans. c) Plants, animals, and microbes
In what way does the weathering process differ from erosion?
a) Weathering involves the transport of materials, whereas erosion does not.
b) Weathering breaks down materials in situ, while erosion involves the movement of materials.
c) Weathering is only a chemical process, while erosion is purely physical.
d) Weathering and erosion are identical processes.
Ans. b) Weathering breaks down materials in situ, while erosion involves the movement of materials.
What does biodiversity primarily refer to?
(a) The number of different species in a specific region
(b) The number of individuals of a single species
(c) The climate conditions in a region
(d) The geographical features of an area
Ans: (a) The number of different species in a specific region
Which role does biodiversity play in maintaining ecological balance?
(a) It decreases the stability of the ecosystem
(b) It regulates the production and decomposition of organic waste
(c) It focuses solely on economic benefits
(d) It creates artificial habitats
Ans: (b) It regulates the production and decomposition of organic waste
What is a major economic role of biodiversity?
(a) Creating artificial habitats
(b) Providing raw materials for industrial products like oils and perfumes
(c) Decreasing the number of plant species
(d) Reducing soil fertility
Ans: (b) Providing raw materials for industrial products like oils and perfumes
How does biodiversity contribute to scientific knowledge?
(a) By focusing only on economic aspects
(b) By providing evidence of life’s evolution and species’ roles in sustainability
(c) By decreasing the variety of species
(d) By ignoring the role of ecosystems
Ans: (b) By providing evidence of life’s evolution and species’ roles in sustainability
Which type of biodiversity refers to the diversity within species?
(a) Ecosystem Diversity
(b) Genetic Diversity
(c) Species Diversity
(d) Environmental Diversity
Ans: (b) Genetic Diversity
What is meant by species diversity?
(a) The variety of ecosystems in a region
(b) The number of different species within a specific region or habitat
(c) The genetic makeup of individual species
(d) The economic benefits derived from species
Ans: (b) The number of different species within a specific region or habitat
Which of the following is a cause of biodiversity loss?
(a) Natural habitat preservation
(b) Decreased demand for natural resources
(c) Pollution and climate change
(d) Increased forestation
Ans: (c) Pollution and climate change
What impact do natural calamities have on biodiversity?
(a) They help in increasing species diversity
(b) They lead to loss of biodiversity
(c) They preserve habitats
(d) They create new ecosystems
Ans: (b) They lead to loss of biodiversity
How does air pollution contribute to biodiversity loss?
(a) By increasing species diversity
(b) By enhancing the carbon dioxide levels, leading to climate change
(c) By reducing the temperature of land and oceans
(d) By encouraging species adaptation
Ans: (b) By enhancing the carbon dioxide levels, leading to climate change
What role do plants play in the context of biodiversity and medicinal use?
(a) They have no role in medicinal use
(b) They are used primarily for industrial products
(c) They are essential for producing anti-cancer drugs
(d) They contribute to air pollution
Ans: (c) They are essential for producing anti-cancer drugs
Anatomy is a branch of Science which deals with:
(a) Structure of animals and plants
(b) Functioning of body organs
(c) Animal behaviour
(d) Cells and tissues
Ans. (a)
Oncology is the study of:
(a) Birds
(b) Cancer
(c) Mammals
(d) Soil
Ans. (b)
Numismatics is the study of:
(a) Coins
(b) Numbers
(c) Stamps
(d) Space
Ans. (a)
Eugenics is the study of:
(a) Different races of mankind
(b) Genetics of plants
(c) People of European region
(d) Altering human beings by changing their genetic components.
Ans. (d)
Ornithology is the:
(a) Study of plants
(b) Study of bones
(c) Study of noise
(d) Study of birds
Ans. (d)
Epidemiology is the study of:
(a) Endodermis disease
(b) Dermis disease
(c) Epidemic disease
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
The energy of food is measured in:
(a) Calories
(b) Celsius
(c) Kelvin
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
Name the instrument that is used to measure Relative Humidity?
(a) Hygrometer
(b) Hydrometer
(c) Barometer
(d) Mercury Thermometer
Ans. (a)
Name an instrument which is used to measure the Density of milk?
(a) Lactometer
(b) Hydrometer
(c) Barometer
(d) Hygrometer
Ans. (a)
Name an instrument used to measure electric resistance?
(a) Ohmmeter
(b) Electrometer
(c) Galvanometer
(d) Spectrometer
Ans. (a)
Name an instrument used to measure the intensity of earthquakes?
A. Richter Scale
B. Ammeter
C. Hyetometer
D. Oometer
Answer: A
Fathometer is used to measure:
A. Earthquakes
B. Rainfall
C. Ocean depth
D. Sound intensity
Answer: C
Coronagraph is used for:
A. Study the veins
B. Studying Blood Pressure
C. Studying the arteries
D. Observing and often photographing the sun’s corona.
Answer: D
What do you understand by Aerodynamics:
A. It is a science of movement in a flow of air or gas.
B. It is a science of generative organs.
C. It is a science of pleasure and pain.
D. None of the above
Answer: A
What is Bryology?
A. Study of food
B. Study of fruit
C. Study of mosses and liverworts
D. Study of rings
Answer: C
Chirology is the study of:
A. Hands
B. Feet
C. Comets
D. Skull
Answer: A
Entozoology is the study of:
A. Enigmas
B. Glands
C. Enzymes
D. Parasites that live inside larger organisms.
Answer: D
Study of increasing the habitability of the earth is termed as:
A. Geology
B. Geotechnics
C. Geoponics
D. Geogony
Answer: B
Thalassography is the science of:
A. Sea
B. Animal tissues
C. Humidity
D. Measuring heights
Answer: A
What is the meaning of the term Topology?
A. It is the study of places and natural features.
B. Study of hair and its disorders.
C. It is the study of shape and features of the moon.
D. Study of theological salvation.
Answer: A
Ball-Point pen is invented by:
A. Waterman
B. Oscar
C. Wilson
D. Lazlo Biro
Ans. D
Logarithm tables were invented by:
A. J.J. Thompson
B. John Napier
C. Paul Ehrlich
D. A.G. Bell
Ans. B
Who had invented zero?
A. Egyptians
B. Greeks
C. Indians
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Aeroplane was invented by:
A. Wright Brothers
B. Edward Jenner
C. John Douglas
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Blaise Pascal is associated with:
A. Bicycle
B. Speed
C. Calculator
D. Electricity
Ans. C
Who discovered that plants have life?
A. Edward Jenner
B. J.C. Bose
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Darwin
Ans. B
The telephone was invented by:
A. Einstein
B. Robert Hook
C. John Napier
D. Alexander Graham Bell
Ans. D
The velocity of light was first measured by:
A. Romer
B. Thomas Alva Edison
C. James Watt
D. Faraday
Ans. A
Doctor’s Thermometer was invented by:
A. Newton
B. Fahrenheit
C. Louis Pasteur
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Who had discovered oxygen?
A. Rutherford
B. William Harvey
C. Priestly
D. Galileo
Ans. C
Who is the Chief Minister responsible for Home, General Administration and Public Grievance, Information and Public Relations, Water Resources, Planning and Convergence?
(a) Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
(b) Pravati Parida
(c) Mohan Charan Majhi
(d) Suresh Pujari
Answer: (c) Mohan Charan Majhi
Who holds the position of Deputy Chief Minister responsible for Agriculture and Farmers’ Empowerment and Energy?
(a) Pravati Parida
(b) Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
(c) Mukesh Mahaling
(d) Rabi Narayan Naik
Answer: (b) Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
Which Deputy Chief Minister is in charge of Women and Child Development, Mission Shakti, and Tourism?
(a) Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
(b) Pravati Parida
(c) Nityananda Gond
(d) Suresh Pujari
Answer: (b) Pravati Parida
Who is the Minister for Revenue and Disaster Management?
(a) Suresh Pujari
(b) Rabi Narayan Naik
(c) Nityananda Gond
(d) Krushna Chandra Patra
Answer: (a) Suresh Pujari
Who is responsible for Rural Development, Panchayati Raj and Drinking Water?
(a) Bibhuti Bhusan Jena
(b) Mukesh Mahaling
(c) Rabi Narayan Naik
(d) Prithviraj Harichandan
Answer: (c) Rabi Narayan Naik
Who handles School and Mass Education, ST & SC Development, Minorities & Backward Classes Welfare?
(a) Nityananda Gond
(b) Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
(c) Pravati Parida
(d) Suresh Pujari
Answer: (a) Nityananda Gond
Who is the minister for Food Supplies and Consumer Welfare, Science & Technology?
(a) Krushna Chandra Patra
(b) Mukesh Mahaling
(c) Prithviraj Harichandan
(d) Bibhuti Bhusan Jena
Answer: (a) Krushna Chandra Patra
Who is in charge of Law, Works, and Excise?
(a) Mukesh Mahaling
(b) Prithviraj Harichandan
(c) Bibhuti Bhusan Jena
(d) Dr. Krushna Chandra Mohapatra
Answer: (b) Prithviraj Harichandan
In which year did the first agitation against British rule occur in Khurda?
(a) 1799
(b) 1802
(c) 1804
(d) 1810
Answer: (c) 1804
Who was the king during the first agitation in Khurda against British rule?
(a) Mukunda Deva I
(b) Mukunda Deva II
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Raja Gopabandhu Das
Answer: (b) Mukunda Deva II
What form did the early agitation against British rule take in Odisha?
(a) Peaceful protests
(b) Negotiations
(c) Armed resistance
(d) Cultural revival
Answer: (c) Armed resistance
Which of the following terms best describes the initial phase of the freedom struggle in Odisha?
(a) Collaboration
(b) Cooperation
(c) Resistance
(d) Submission
Answer: (c) Resistance
What is the birthdate of Aykrushana Mohapatra, also known as Jayee Rajguru, a prominent freedom fighter from Odisha?
(a) 29th October, 1769
(b) 29th October, 1739
(c) 29th November, 1739
(d) 29th September, 1769
Answer: (b) 29th October, 1739
In which village was Jayee Rajguru born?
(a) Puri
(b) Biraharekrushnapur
(c) Chandipur
(d) Bhubaneswar
Answer: (b) Biraharekrushnapur
What was Jayee Rajguru’s original name?
(a) Aykrushana Mohapatra
(b) Jayakrushna Rajguru Mahapatra
(c) Haramani Devi
(d) Chand Rajguru
Answer: (b) Jayakrushna Rajguru Mahapatra
How is Jayee Rajguru commonly remembered in Indian history?
(a) The first Prime Minister of India
(b) A famous poet
(c) A prominent freedom fighter
(d) A renowned scientist
Answer: (c) A prominent freedom fighter
Which body of water borders Odisha on the east?
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Pacific Ocean
Answer: (c) Bay of Bengal
Between which parallels of latitude is Odisha located?
(a) 15.49’N and 20.34’N
(b) 16.49’N and 22.34’N
(c) 17.49’N and 23.34’N
(d) 17.49’N and 22.34’N
Answer: (d) 17.49’N and 22.34’N
Which two states border Odisha on the west and the south respectively?
(a) Telangana and Tamil Nadu
(b) Chhattisgarh and Tamil Nadu
(c) Chhattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh and Telangana
Answer: (c) Chhattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh
What is the total length of Odisha’s coastline?
(a) About 300 kms
(b) About 350 kms
(c) About 400 kms
(d) About 450 kms
Answer: (d) About 450 kms
Between which meridians of longitude is Odisha located?
(a) 81.27’E and 87.29’E
(b) 80.27’E and 86.29’E
(c) 79.27’E and 85.29’E
(d) 82.27’E and 88.29’E
Answer: (a) 81.27’E and 87.29’E
Which state shares its border with Odisha in the west and northwest?(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) West Bengal
Answer: (c) Chhattisgarh
Which state shares its border with Odisha in the north-east?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer: (a) West Bengal
Which state shares its border with Odisha in the north?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Rajasthan
Answer: (c) Jharkhand
Which state shares its border with Odisha in the south?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Kerala
Answer: (b) Andhra Pradesh
What is the total area of Odisha in square kilometers?
(a) 1,55,707 km²
(b) 1,45,607 km²
(c) 1,35,707 km²
(d) 1,65,707 km²
Answer: (a) 1,55,707 km²
Which East Indian region was Odisha known to due to maritime trade relations?
(a) China
(b) East Indies
(c) Persia
(d) Arabian Peninsula
Answer: (b) East Indies
In which year did the armies of the Sultanate of Bengal conquer the region?
(a) 1450 CE
(b) 1505 CE
(c) 1568 CE
(d) 1650 CE
Answer: (c) 1568 CE
Who led the armies of the Sultanate of Bengal during the conquest of the region?
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Kalapahad
(c) Sher Shah Suri
(d) Shah Jahan
Answer: (b) Kalapahad
By which year had Odisha completely passed to the Mughal Empire?
- (a) 1593
  (b) 1650
  (c) 1700
  (d) 1751
  Answer: (a) 1593
In which year did the Ghumsar Rebellion start?
(a) 1857 AD
(b) 1835 AD
(c) 1869 AD
(d) 1865 AD
Ans. (b) 1835 AD
Who among the following joined the Sepoy Mutiny in 1857?
(a) Chandan Hajuri
(b) Ramakrishna Samantasinghar
(c) Surendra Sai
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
When did the Na’anka Famine occur in Odisha?
(a) 1835 AD
(b) 1857 AD
(c) 1865-66 AD
(d) 1882 AD
Ans. (c) 1865-66 AD
In which year was the first college in Cuttack opened?
(a) 1867 AD
(b) 1868 AD
(c) 1903 AD
(d) 1896 AD
Ans. (a) 1867 AD
The Bhuyan Uprising in Odisha took place in which year?
(a) 1857 AD
(b) 1868 AD
(c) 1865 AD
(d) 1882 AD
Ans. (b) 1868 AD
When was the Utkal Brahmo Samaj formed?
(a) 1865 AD
(b) 1868 AD
(c) 1869 AD
(d) 1882 AD
Ans. (c) 1869 AD
The Utkal Sabha was formed in which year?
(a) 1835 AD
(b) 1882 AD
(c) 1896 AD
(d) 1905 AD
Ans. (b) 1882 AD
When did the railway service in coastal Odisha begin?
(a) 1835 AD
(b) 1882 AD
(c) 1896 AD
(d) 1905 AD
Ans. (c) 1896 AD
The Utkal Union Conference was formed in which year?
(a) 1835 AD
(b) 1869 AD
(c) 1882 AD
(d) 1903 AD
Ans. (d) 1903 AD
In which year was the Utkal Union Samillani established?
(a) 1896 AD
(b) 1869 AD
(c) 1905 AD
(d) 1867 AD
Ans. (c) 1905 AD
In which year was the Satyabadi Vana Vidyalaya at Puri formed?
(a) 1921 AD
(b) 1909 AD
(c) 1936 AD
(d) 1940 AD
Ans. (b) 1909 AD
When did Mahatma Gandhi visit Odisha for the first time?
(a) 1930 AD
(b) 1931 AD
(c) 1921 AD
(d) 1922 AD
Ans. (c) 1921 AD
In which year did the Peasant Revolt at Kanika take place?
(a) 1909 AD
(b) 1938 AD
(c) 1922 AD
(d) 1941 AD
Ans. (c) 1922 AD
On which date did the Foot March towards Inchudi at Balasore begin?
(a) 6th April 1930 AD
(b) 14th April 1930 AD
(c) 1st December 1940 AD
(d) 1st April 1936 AD
Ans. (a) 6th April 1930 AD
When did Satyagrahis manufacture salt at Inchudi?
(a) 1st April 1936 AD
(b) 14th April 1930 AD
(c) 1st December 1940 AD
(d) November 1941 AD
Ans. (b) 14th April 1930 AD
In which year was the Odisha State’s People’s Conference formed?
(a) 1931 AD
(b) 1938 AD
(c) 1909 AD
(d) 1922 AD
Ans. (a) 1931 AD
When was Odisha granted the status of a province?
(a) 1st April 1936 AD
(b) 1st December 1940 AD
(c) 14th April 1930 AD
(d) November 1941 AD
Ans. (a) 1st April 1936 AD
In which year was the Prajamandal formed at Garimal?
(a) 1938 AD
(b) 1921 AD
(c) 1941 AD
(d) 1936 AD
Ans. (a) 1938 AD
On which date was the Individual Civil Disobedience Movement launched in Odisha?
(a) 14th April 1930 AD
(b) 1st December 1940 AD
(c) 6th April 1930 AD
(d) November 1941 AD
Ans. (b) 1st December 1940 AD
In which year was the Coalition Ministry formed with the Maharaja of Paralakhemundi?
(a) 1931 AD
(b) 1936 AD
(c) 1940 AD
(d) November 1941 AD
Ans. (d) November 1941 AD
Which significant event occurred on 28th September 1942 AD?
(a) Martyr Laxman Naik executed in Behrampur Jail
(b) Sardar Patel’s visit to Odisha for its merger
(c) Massacre of Eram in Basudevpur
(d) Mayurbhanj merged with Odisha
Ans. (c) Massacre of Eram in Basudevpur
When was Martyr Laxman Naik executed in Behrampur Jail?
(a) 29th March 1943 AD
(b) December 1947 AD
(c) 1st January 1948 AD
(d) 1949 AD
Ans. (a) 29th March 1943 AD
In which month and year did Sardar Patel visit Odisha for its merger?
(a) 28th September 1942 AD
(b) 29th March 1943 AD
(c) December 1947 AD
(d) 1st January 1948 AD
Ans. (c) December 1947 AD
On which date did all Princely States, except Mayurbhanj, merge with Odisha?
(a) 28th September 1942 AD
(b) 29th March 1943 AD
(c) December 1947 AD
(d) 1st January 1948 AD
Ans. (d) 1st January 1948 AD
In which year did Mayurbhanj also merge with Odisha?
(a) 28th September 1942 AD
(b) 29th March 1943 AD
(c) December 1947 AD
(d) 1949 AD
Ans. (d) 1949 AD
According to Jaina literature, which Jaina Tirthankara achieved his first goal in the city of Rayapura, the capital of Kalinga?
(a) Rishabhanatha
(b) Aranatha
(c) Mahavira
(d) Parshvanatha
Ans. (b) Aranatha
The city of Rayapura, mentioned in Jaina literature, is referred to as the capital of which ancient region?
(a) Kosala
(b) Utkala
(c) Kalinga
(d) Magadha
Ans. (c) Kalinga
In the Avasyaka Niryukti, which city is mentioned as a place where Mahavira was tortured by the local people?
(a) Dantapura
(b) Tosali
(c) Pataliputra
(d) Rayapura
Ans. (b) Tosali
The Jaina Harivamsa mentions Abhichandra as the founder of which dynasty in the Kosala region?
(a) Maurya
(b) Gupta
(c) Chedi
(d) Nanda
Ans. (c) Chedi
Which city is mentioned in Jaina literature as being associated with both Aranatha and Mahavira in ancient Odisha?
(a) Rayapura
(b) Tosali
(c) Dantapura
(d) Utkala
Ans. (a) Rayapura
If is a positive integer such that { is an integer, what is the smallest possible value of ?
- (a) 1
- (b) 2
- (c) 3
- (d) 4
Ans: (d) 4

Solution: Let $frac{3x + 5}/{7} = k$ , where is an integer. Thus, $3 x + 5 = 7 k$ . Rearranging, . For to be an integer, must be divisible by 3. Trying successive values of , the smallest $k$ that satisfies this condition is . Substituting, so . Trying the next , $3 x = 28 - 5 = 23$ , so . Finally, trying , $3 x = 35 - 5 = 30$ , so . Hence, the smallest $x$ is 10.
A man spends 40% of his monthly salary on rent, 25% on food, and 15% on transportation. If he saves ₹9,000, what is his total monthly salary?
- (a) ₹30,000
- (b) ₹36,000
- (c) ₹40,000
- (d) ₹45,000
Ans: (b) ₹36,000

Solution: Let the monthly salary be . He spends of his salary, so he saves . If of the salary is ₹9,000, then of the salary is (
The average of 5 numbers is 15. If two of the numbers are 10 and 20, what is the average of the remaining 3 numbers?
- (a) 10
- (b) 12
- (c) 15
- (d) 20
Ans: (a) 10

Solution: Solution: The sum of the 5 numbers is 5×15=75. The sum of the first two numbers is 10+20=30. Thus, the sum of the remaining 3 numbers is 75−30=45. Therefore, the average of the remaining 3 numbers is 45/3 =15. $5$ .
A sum of money doubles in 5 years at simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?
- (a) 10%
- (b) 20%
- (c) 15%
- (d) 25%
Ans: (b) 20%

Solution: Solution: Let the principal be 𝑃 and the rate of interest be r%. In 5 years, the amount is 2P, and the simple interest is P. Simple interest formula is SI=(P×r×t)/100
Thus, P= (P×r×t)/100 , so 𝑟=100/5=20%.
A train travels from point A to point B in 3 hours at a speed of 60 km/hr. If it travels from B to A at a speed of 90 km/hr, what is the average speed of the train for the entire journey?
- (a) 72 km/hr
- (b) 75 km/hr
- (c) 80 km/hr
- (d) 85 km/hr
Ans: (a) 72 km/hr

Solution: The distance between A and B is 60×3=180 km. Time taken from B to A is 180/90=2 hours. Total distance for the round trip is 180+180=360 km, and total time is 3+2=5 hours. Average speed is 360/5=72 km/hr..
The sum of the squares of two consecutive odd numbers is 410. What are the numbers?
- (a) 9 and 11
- (b) 11 and 13
- (c) 13 and 15
- (d) 15 and 17
Ans: (b) 11 and 13

Solution: Let the odd numbers be and . Then, $x^2 + (x+2)^2 =$ . Expanding and solving: $x^2 + x^2 + 4x + 4 =$ , $x^2 + 4x + 4 = 410$ , 2 $x^2 + 4x = 406$ , $x^2 + 2x = 203=0$ . Solving $x^2 + 2x – 203$ , $(x - 11) (x + 13) = 0$ , . Therefore, the numbers are 11 and 13.
If a car covers 180 km in 3 hours and another car covers 240 km in 4 hours, what is the ratio of their speeds?
- (a) 3:4
- (b) 4:3
- (c) 2:3
- (d) 3:2
Ans: (b) 4:3

Solution: Speed of the first car is 180/3 =60 km/hr. Speed of the second car is 240/4 =60 km/hr. The ratio of the speeds is 60/60=1:1.
A man buys a watch at a discount of 25% on the marked price. If he sells it for ₹9000, what was the marked price?
- (a) ₹10,000
- (b) ₹12,000
- (c) ₹13,500
- (d) ₹15,000
Ans: (a) ₹12,000

Solution: Let the marked price be 𝑀. After a 25% discount, the selling price is 75% of 𝑀 =0.75M=9000, hence M= 9000/0.75 =12000.
The sum of three consecutive integers is 69. What are the integers?
- (a) 22, 23, 24
- (b) 21, 22, 23
- (c) 23, 24, 25
- (d) 20, 21, 22
Ans: (b) 21, 22, 23

Solution: Let the integers be x−1, x, and x+1. Then,
(x−1)+x+(x+1)=69, 3x=69, x=23. Hence, the integers are 22, 23, and 24.
A student scores 85, 90, and 80 in three subjects. If the average score needs to be 88 for the fourth subject, what must be the score in the fourth subject?
- (a) 95
- (b) 96
- (c) 97
- (d) 98
Ans: (a) 95

Solution: Let the score in the fourth subject be x.
The average score is 85+90+80+x =88.
Solving for 255+x=352,
x=352−255=97.
A man buys 4 pens for ₹40 and sells them at a price of ₹12 each. What is his profit percentage?
- (a) 20%
- (b) 25%
- (c) 30%
- (d) 35%
Ans: (b) 25%

Solution: Cost price of 4 pens = ₹40,
hence cost price of 1 pen = ₹10. Selling price of 1 pen = ₹12. Profit per pen = ₹12 – ₹10 = ₹2.
Total profit = ₹2 times 4 = ₹8.
Total cost price = ₹40.
Profit percentage = 8/40×100=20%
A shopkeeper increases the price of an item by 25% and then gives a 10% discount. What is the effective percentage increase in the price of the item?
- (a) 10%
- (b) 15%
- (c) 12.5%
- (d) 20%
Ans: (c) 12.5%

Solution: Let the original price be ₹100. After a 25% increase, the new price is ₹125. After a 10% discount on ₹125, the selling price is 125×(1−0.10)=125×0.90=112.5. The effective increase is 112.5−100= 12.5.
Percentage increase =12.5/100×100=12.5%.
A student scores 70, 75, 80, and 85 in four tests. If the scores are to be in arithmetic progression, what is the score of the fifth test if the average score of all five tests is 80?
- (a) 90
- (b) 85
- (c) 95
- (d) 100
Ans: (a) 90

Solution: The sum of the five scores = 80×5=400.
The sum of the first four scores = 70+75+80+85=310.
Hence, the score of the fifth test =
400−310=90.
A man borrows ₹10,000 at 8% per annum compound interest. What is the amount he will have to pay after 2 years?
- (a) ₹11,664
- (b) ₹11,600
- (c) ₹11,680
- (d) ₹11,760
Ans: (a) ₹11,664

Solution: Amount
𝐴=𝑃(1+𝑟/100)^𝑡
Here,
P=10,000,
r=8%, and
t=2. Thus,
A=10,000(1+8/100)^8
=10,000(1.08)^2
=10,000×1.1664=11,664.
A person buys an article for ₹720 and sells it at a profit of 20%. What is the selling price?
- (a) ₹864
- (b) ₹840
- (c) ₹900
- (d) ₹880
Ans: (a) ₹864

Solution: Selling price = 720×(1+0.20)=720×1.20=₹864.
The sum of the squares of two numbers is 289, and their difference is 7. What is the product of the numbers?
- (a) 84
- (b) 90
- (c) 96
- (d) 105
Ans: (a) 84

Solution: Let the numbers be x and y. Given
x ^2 +y ^2 =289 and
x−y=7. We use the identity
(x−y) ^2 =x ^2 +y ^2 −2xy.
Hence,
49=289−2xy, so
2xy=240,
xy=120..
The ratio of the ages of two brothers is 3:4. Five years ago, the sum of their ages was 46. What are their current ages?
- (a) 20 and 25
- (b) 21 and 28
- (c) 24 and 32
- (d) 27 and 36
Ans: (c) 24 and 32

Solution: Let the ages be 3x and 4x. Five years ago, their ages were
3x−5 and 4x−5. Thus,
(3x−5)+(4x−5)=46,
solving gives
7x−10=46, hence x=8.
Therefore, their current ages are
3×8=24 and 4×8=32.
A sum of money triples itself in 10 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become nine times itself?
- (a) 20 years
- (b) 30 years
- (c) 40 years
- (d) 50 years
Ans: (c) 40 years

Solution: If the money triples in 10 years, it means the interest for 10 years is equal to twice the principal. To become nine times, the money must increase by 8 times the principal. Since the interest is proportional to time, $40$ years.
If the sum of the ages of a father and his son is 45 years and the father is 5 times as old as the son 10 years ago, what are their current ages?
- (a) 35 and 10
- (b) 40 and 5
- (c) 30 and 15
- (d) 40 and 15
Ans: (a) 35 and 10

Solution: Solution: Let the son’s age be
x and the father’s age be 45−x.
Ten years ago, the father’s age was
45−x−10=35−x, and the son’s age was x−10. Given 35−x=5(x−10), solving gives 35−x=5x−50,
6x=85, so x=10.
Hence, the father’s age is
45−10=35..
A number is decreased by 20% and then increased by 25%. The resulting number is 90. What was the original number?
- (a) 100
- (b) 96
- (c) 80
- (d) 75
Ans: (a) 100

Solution: Let the original number be $x$ . After a 20% decrease, the number is . After a 25% increase, the number becomes $0.8 x \times 1.25 = x$ . Hence, .
The ratio of the speeds of two cars is 4:5. If the first car covers 120 km in 2 hours, how long will it take for the second car to cover 150 km?
- (a) 2 hours
- (b) 2.5 hours
- (c) 3 hours
- (d) 4 hours
Ans: (a) 2 hours

Solution: Speed of the first car =
120/2=60 km/hr.
Speed of the second car =
5/4×60=75 km/hr.
Time for the second car to cover 150 km is 150/75=2 hours
What is the sum of the first 50 positive integers?
(a) 1250
(b) 1275
(c) 1225
(d) 1276
Ans: (b) 1275
Solution: The sum of the first n positive integers is given by
n(n+1)/2 =
n=50×51/2=1275
A father is three times as old as his son. After 15 years, he will be twice as old as his son. What is the father’s current age?
(a) 45
(b) 42
(c) 48
(d) 50
Ans: (a) 45
Solution:
Let the son’s age be 𝑥
x and the father’s age be 3x.
3x+15=2(x+15)
3x+15=2x+30
x=15
Father’s age:
3x=3×15=45
A and B invest $2000 and $3000 in a business, respectively. If the profit is $2500, what is A’s share of the profit?
(a) $1000
(b) $1200
(c) $1500
(d) $1400
Ans: (a) $1000
Solution:
Total investment = $2000 + $3000 = $5000
A’s share = 2000/5000×2500=2/5×2500=1000
If 5 men can complete a work in 20 days, how many days will it take for 10 men to complete the same work?
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 15
(d) 20
Ans: (a) 10
Solution:
Work done is inversely proportional to the number of men.
5 men×20 days=10 men×x days
5*20/10=10 days
If A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days, how long will they take to do it together?
(a) 6 days
(b) 7.2 days
(c) 7.5 days
(d) 8 days
Ans: (b) 7.2 days
Solution:
Work done by A in 1 day = 1/12
Work done by B in 1 day = 1/18
Total work done in 1 day together =
1/12+1/18=(3+2)/36=5/36
Time taken=36/5=7.2 days
A pipe can fill a tank in 10 hours, and another pipe can empty it in 15 hours. If both pipes are opened together, how long will it take to fill the tank?
(a) 30 hours
(b) 25 hours
(c) 20 hours
(d) 15 hours
Ans: (c) 30 hours
Solution:
Rate of filling = 1/10
Rate of emptying = 1/15
Net rate = 1/10−1/15=(3−2)/30= 1/30
Time taken=30 hours
The difference between the place value and the face value of 6 in the numeral 856973 is
(a) 973
(b) 6973
(c) 5994
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) 5994
Sol:place value of 6-Face value of 6=6000-6=5994
The difference between the local value and the face value of 7 in the cameral 32675149
(a) 75142
(b) 64851
(c) 5149
(d) 69993
Ans: (d) 69993
Sol:place value of 7-Face value of 7=70000-7=69993
What is the volume of a cube with side length 4 cm?
(a) 64 cm³
(b) 48 cm³
(c) 60 cm³
(d) 72 cm³
Ans: (a) 64 cm³
Solution:
Volume=side^3=4^3=64 cm
150.011 – 419.999 + 649.991 = ?
(a) 350
(b) 365
(c) 375
(d) 380
Ans:(d)
Which of the following is true about the Notified Area Committee?
(a) It is created in an area where new industries are set up
(b) It necessarily fulfills all the conditions for the constitution of the municipality
(c) All members are elected by the local population
(d) It is constituted by an act of legislatures
Ans. (a) It is created in an area where new industries are set up
What is the maximum election expense limit for a candidate in a Lok Sabha constituency in most Indian states?
(a) ₹10 lakhs
(b) ₹25 lakhs
(c) ₹70 lakhs
(d) ₹1 crore
Ans. (c) ₹70 lakhs
Which amendment to the Constitution of India gave constitutional recognition to Municipalities?
(a) 71st Amendment
(b) 72nd Amendment
(c) 73rd Amendment
(d) 74th Amendment
Ans. (d) 74th Amendment
The writ of prohibition is issued by which of the following authorities?
(a) Administrative authorities
(b) Judicial or quasi-judicial authorities
(c) Executive authorities
(d) Legislative bodies
Ans. (b) Judicial or quasi-judicial authorities
In which month is Quami Ekta Week (National Integration Week) observed annually?
(a) October
(b) November
(c) December
(d) January
Ans. (b) November
Under which category does Hindi fall according to the Constitution of India?
(a) National Language of India
(b) Mother Tongue of India
(c) Official Language of India
(d) Oldest Language of India
Ans. (c) Official Language of India
The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of a High Court under which article?
(a) Article 214
(b) Article 217
(c) Article 222
(d) Article 224
Ans. (b) Article 217
Which article empowers the President of India to grant pardons and other forms of clemency?
(a) Article 70
(b) Article 72
(c) Article 74
(d) Article 76
Ans. (b) Article 72
Which of the following is not included in the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
(a) To promote harmony
(b) To safeguard public property
(c) To protect freedom of speech and expression
(d) To protect and improve the natural environment
Ans. (c) To protect freedom of speech and expression
The President of India holds the same constitutional authority as which of the following figures?
(a) British Monarch
(b) President of the United States
(c) President of France
(d) Prime Minister of the UK
Ans. (a) British Monarch
How many parts did the Indian Constitution originally have?
(a) 22
(b) 25
(c) 20
(d) 12
Ans. (a) 22
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
(a) Part I
(b) Part III
(c) Part V
(d) Part IV
Ans. (b) Part III
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enshrined in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part II
(b) Part IV
(c) Part VI
(d) Part VII
Ans. (b) Part IV
Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by which amendment?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 52nd Amendment
(d) 61st Amendment
Ans. (a) 42nd Amendment
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by whom?
(a) President of India
(b) Members of Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans. (b) Members of Lok Sabha
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘The Union’?
(a) Part I
(b) Part V
(c) Part VIII
(d) Part X
Ans. (b) Part V
The Union and its territory are covered under which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part I
(b) Part III
(c) Part V
(d) Part VII
Ans. (a) Part I
Which schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the list of recognized languages?
(a) First Schedule
(b) Eighth Schedule
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans. (b) Eighth Schedule
The provision related to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes is included in which schedule?
(a) Fifth Schedule
(b) Sixth Schedule
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Ninth Schedule
Ans. (a) Fifth Schedule
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘Emergency Provisions’?
(a) Part XV
(b) Part XVIII
(c) Part XIX
(d) Part XX
Ans. (b) Part XVIII
Which schedule contains the Union list, State list, and the Concurrent list?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Sixth Schedule
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Eighth Schedule
Ans. (c) Seventh Schedule
Provisions related to elections are covered under which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part XIII
(b) Part XIV
(c) Part XV
(d) Part XVI
Ans. (c) Part XV
The form of oaths or affirmations is mentioned in which schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) First Schedule
(b) Third Schedule
(c) Fourth Schedule
(d) Sixth Schedule
Ans. (b) Third Schedule
Which part of the Indian Constitution relates to the Panchayats?
(a) Part VIII
(b) Part IX
(c) Part X
(d) Part XI
Ans. (b) Part IX
Which part of the Indian Constitution was repealed by the 7th Amendment Act of 1956?
(a) Part VII
(b) Part VIII
(c) Part IX
(d) Part X
Ans. (a) Part VII
The official language of the Union is covered under which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part XVI
(b) Part XVII
(c) Part XVIII
(d) Part XIX
Ans. (b) Part XVII
The Municipalities are covered under which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part IX
(b) Part IXA
(c) Part IXB
(d) Part X
Ans. (b) Part IXA
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India?
(a) Part V
(b) Part VI
(c) Part VII
(d) Part VIII
Ans. (a) Part V
The provisions related to cooperative societies are included in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part IX
(b) Part IXA
(c) Part IXB
(d) Part X
Ans. (c) Part IXB
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Finance, Property, Contracts, and Suits?
(a) Part X
(b) Part XI
(c) Part XII
(d) Part XIII
Ans. (c) Part XII
Who was selected as the torchbearer for the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Abhinav Bindra
(b) Neeraj Chopra
(c) PV Sindhu
(d) Gagan Narang
Answer: (a) Abhinav Bindra
Who was appointed as India’s Chef-De-Mission for the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Abhinav Bindra
(b) Neeraj Chopra
(c) Manu Bhaker
(d) Gagan Narang
Answer: (d) Gagan Narang
Which Indian athlete won a bronze medal in the Women’s 10m air pistol shooting event?
(a) Manu Bhaker
(b) Neeraj Chopra
(c) Aman Sehrawat
(d) Swapnil Kusale
Answer: (a) Manu Bhaker
Which Indian athlete won a bronze medal in the Mixed team 10m air pistol shooting event?
(a) Manu Bhaker
(b) Sarabjot Singh
(c) Swapnil Kusale
(d) Aman Sehrawat
Answer: (b) Sarabjot Singh
What was the Indian hockey team’s achievement at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Gold Medal
(b) Silver Medal
(c) Bronze Medal
(d) No Medal
Answer: (c) Bronze Medal
Which athlete won a bronze medal in Men’s 57kg wrestling?
(a) Aman Sehrawat
(b) Neeraj Chopra
(c) Manu Bhaker
(d) Swapnil Kusale
Answer: (a) Aman Sehrawat
Who carried the Indian flag at the opening ceremony of the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) PV Sindhu
(b) Sharath Kamal
(c) Abhinav Bindra
(d) Manu Bhaker
Answer: (a) PV Sindhu
Which athlete set a new Olympic record in the Women’s 100m butterfly event?
(a) Sarah Sjoestroem
(b) Gretchen Walsh
(c) Mollie O’Callaghan
(d) Katie Ledecky
Answer: (b) Gretchen Walsh
Who broke the record in the Men’s 400m individual medley?
(a) Michael Phelps
(b) Leon Marchand
(c) Daniel Wiffen
(d) Kristof Milak
Answer: (b) Leon Marchand
Which country set a new record in the Women’s 4x100m freestyle relay?
(a) USA
(b) Australia
(c) China
(d) Canada
Answer: (b) Australia
Who won a bronze medal in the Men’s 50m rifle 3 positions shooting?
(a) Swapnil Kusale
(b) Manu Bhaker
(c) Sarabjot Singh
(d) Aman Sehrawat
Answer: (a) Swapnil Kusale
Which event did Katie Ledecky set a new Olympic record in?
(a) Women’s 800m freestyle
(b) Women’s 1500m freestyle
(c) Women’s 200m freestyle
(d) Women’s 100m butterfly
Answer: (b) Women’s 1500m freestyle
Who won the Men’s 200m butterfly event?
(a) Kristof Milak
(b) Daniel Wiffen
(c) Leon Marchand
(d) Michael Phelps
Answer: (c) Leon Marchand
Which country topped the medal tally at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) China
(b) United States of America
(c) Japan
(d) Australia
Answer: (b) United States of America
How many total medals did the United States win at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) 126
(b) 120
(c) 130
(d) 115
Answer: (a) 126
Which country won 40 gold medals and finished second in the overall medal tally?
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) Australia
(d) Great Britain
Answer: (b) China
Japan secured which position in the medal tally at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 3rd
(d) 4th
Answer: (c) 3rd
What is the total number of medals won by India at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 7
Answer: (a) 6
Which Indian athlete won a silver medal in Men’s javelin throw at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Aman Sehrawat
(b) Neeraj Chopra
(c) Manu Bhaker
(d) Swapnil Kusale
Answer: (b) Neeraj Chopra
How many bronze medals did India win at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 6
Answer: (a) 5
Which event did Manu Bhaker win a bronze medal in at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Women’s 10m air rifle
(b) Women’s 10m air pistol
(c) Women’s 50m rifle 3 positions
(d) Mixed team 10m air pistol shooting
Answer: (b) Women’s 10m air pistol
What is the theme of the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) “Celebrate and Compete”
(b) “Let’s Move and Celebrate”
(c) “Joy of Sports”
(d) “Together in Sport”
Answer: (b) “Let’s Move and Celebrate”
Who are the official mascots of the Paris 2024 Olympics?
(a) The Phryges
(b) The Paris Pals
(c) The Olympic Owls
(d) The Paris Bears
Answer: (a) The Phryges
Which country won the Men’s hockey bronze medal at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) Netherlands
(d) Germany
Answer: (b) India
What was India’s rank in the medal tally at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) 62nd
(b) 71st
(c) 50th
(d) 45th
Answer: (b) 71st
Who is the only Indian woman to win two medals in a single Olympic event?
(a) Mary Kom
(b) Saina Nehwal
(c) Manu Bhaker
(d) P.V. Sindhu
Answer: (c) Manu Bhaker
Which Indian athlete won both gold and silver medals in two consecutive Olympic Games?
(a) Abhinav Bindra
(b) Neeraj Chopra
(c) Vijender Singh
(d) Milkha Singh
Answer: (b) Neeraj Chopra
Who was disqualified in the 50kg wrestling category at the Olympics after reaching the final?
(a) Vinesh Phogat
(b) Sakshi Malik
(c) Bajrang Punia
(d) Geeta Phogat
Answer: (a) Vinesh Phogat
What was the cause of Vinesh Phogat’s disqualification in the 50kg wrestling category?
(a) Inappropriate conduct
(b) Overweight
(c) Injury
(d) Violation of rules
Answer: (b) Overweight
In which event did Manu Bhaker win her Olympic medals?
(a) Women’s 25m pistol shooting
(b) Women’s 10m air pistol shooting
(c) Women’s 50m rifle shooting
(d) Women’s 10m air rifle shooting
Answer: (b) Women’s 10m air pistol shooting
Which scientist discovered the element Radium?
(a) André-Louis Debierne
(b) Kasimir Fajans
(c) Oswald Helmuth Göhring
(d) Marie Sklodowska-Curie and Pierre Curie
Ans. (d) Marie Sklodowska-Curie and Pierre Curie
What is the primary protein involved in muscle contraction?
(a) Myoglobin
(b) Myosin
(c) Mucin
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b) Myosin
Lepidopterology is the scientific study of which group of organisms?
(a) Ferns
(b) Animals in stagnant waters
(c) Lipids and fats
(d) Moths and butterflies
Ans. (d) Moths and butterflies
Which test is commonly used to diagnose color blindness?
(a) Widal Test
(b) ELISA test
(c) Rorschach test
(d) Ishihara Test
Ans. (d) Ishihara Test
Penicillin, used as an antibiotic, is obtained from which source?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Algae
(d) Lichens
Ans. (b) Fungi
What type of strain is produced if a deforming force changes the shape of a body without altering its volume?
(a) Linear
(b) Volumetric
(c) Shearing
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c) Shearing
In a sound wave, what is the time taken for two consecutive compressions or rarefactions to cross a fixed point?
(a) Amplitude
(b) Time period
(c) Angular Frequency
(d) Angular Displacement
Ans. (b) Time period
According to Ohm’s law, if the resistance of a conductor is doubled, what happens to the current?
(a) It gets doubled
(b) It gets halved
(c) It increases fourfold
(d) No change
Ans. (b) It gets halved
What are the constituents of the alloy known as German Silver?
(a) Gold, Aluminium, and Copper
(b) Zinc, Iron, and Silver
(c) Bismuth, Antimony, and Tin
(d) Copper, Nickel, and Zinc
Ans. (d) Copper, Nickel, and Zinc
What is emitted during the beta-decay process?
(a) Electron
(b) Positron
(c) Both a and b
(d) None
Ans. (c) Both a and b
Which of the following factors does not influence the gravitational force between two objects?
(a) Gravitational constant
(b) Distance between the objects
(c) Product of the masses of the objects
(d) Sum of the masses of the objects
Ans. (d) Sum of the masses of the objects
What is the Gaussian unit of kinematic viscosity?
(a) Henry
(b) Stokes
(c) Poiseuille
(d) Watt
Ans. (b) Stokes
What is the correct relationship for the unit curie (Ci)?
(a) 1 Ci = 3.7 × 10^7
(b) 1 Ci = 2.7 × 10^9
(c) 1 Ci = 2.7 × 10^7
(d) 1 Ci = 3.7 × 10^10
Ans. (d) 1 Ci = 3.7 × 10^10
Which type of rays have the highest ionizing power?
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Gamma
(d) All have the same
Ans. (a) Alpha
What is the purpose of a rectifier?
(a) Converting alternating current into direct current
(b) Converting direct current into alternating current
(c) Increasing the power of a signal
(d) Decreasing the voltage
Ans. (a) Converting alternating current into direct current
What are compounds formed by carbon atoms linked by single bonds called?
(a) Saturated compounds
(b) Unsaturated compounds
(c) Monovalent compounds
(d) Ionic compounds
Ans. (a) Saturated compounds
Which polymers are used to produce Butyl rubber?
(a) Butadiene and neoprene
(b) Butadiene and styrene
(c) Butadiene and acrylonitrile
(d) Butadiene and isobutylene
Ans. (d) Butadiene and isobutylene
Which is the most abundant metal in the Earth’s crust?
(a) Iron
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Silicon
Ans. (b) Aluminium
Which type of salts are detergents commonly made up of?
(a) Ammonium and sulphonate
(b) Calcium and magnesium
(c) Cobalt and nitrate
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) Ammonium and sulphonate
What is the correct order of iron content in these minerals?
(a) Magnetite > Haematite > Siderite > Limonite
(b) Haematite > Magnetite > Siderite > Limonite
(c) Haematite > Magnetite > Limonite > Siderite
(d) Magnetite > Haematite > Limonite > Siderite
Ans. (d) Magnetite > Haematite > Limonite > Siderite
Which of the following molecules have electrovalent bonding?
(a) NaCl
(b) MgO
(c) NH3
(d) Both a and b
Ans. (d) Both a and b
Which non-metal is liquid at room temperature?
(a) Helium
(b) Argon
(c) Bromine
(d) Sulphur
Ans. (c) Bromine
Which among the following is the hardest metal?
(a) Platinum
(b) Gold
(c) Iron
(d) Tungsten
Ans. (d) Tungsten
Who is considered the father of DNA fingerprinting?
(a) James Watson
(b) Hargobind Khurana
(c) Alec Jeffreys
(d) Nirenberg
Ans. (c) Alec Jeffreys
Which cell organelle contains RNA?
(a) Plastids
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Lysosomes
Ans. (c) Ribosomes
What sugar is found in RNA?
(a) Hexose
(b) Ribose
(c) Fructose
(d) Glucose
Ans. (b) Ribose
What factors can affect proteins and nucleic acids but not viruses?
(a) Denaturation
(b) Enzyme treatment
(c) Pressure
(d) All of these
Ans. (d) All of these
In which type of bacteria are fimbriae found?
(a) Gram-positive bacteria
(b) Gram-negative bacteria
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Gram-negative bacteria
What term describes the phenomenon where larval characteristics remain after sexual maturity?
(a) Phylogenesis
(b) Neoteny
(c) Parthenogenesis
(d) Ontogenesis
Ans. (b) Neoteny
Which state has not implemented the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 as of August 7, 2024?
(a) Punjab
(b) Kerala
(c) Telangana
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above
Which of the following is true about Pithora paintings?
(a) Depicts natural elements
(b) Created using rice paste
(c) Originated from Gujarat
(d) Includes ceremonial themes
Ans: (d) Includes ceremonial themes
Which tribe is known for creating intricate Warli paintings?
(a) Warli
(b) Bhil
(c) Gond
(d) Santhal
Ans: (a) Warli
The primary source of Samaveda is:
(a) Ritualistic hymns
(b) Chants and melodies
(c) Historical narratives
(d) Philosophical teachings
Ans: (b) Chants and melodies
In which Veda is the concept of the universe and creation most elaborated?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (a) Rigveda
Which Veda has the text ‘Satapatha Brahmana’?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (c) Yajurveda
Which painting style is known for its depiction of local deities and daily life scenes?
(a) Madhubani
(b) Warli
(c) Gond
(d) Pithora
Ans: (b) Warli
The main focus of Pattachitra paintings is:
(a) Daily life scenes
(b) Abstract forms
(c) Mythological narratives
(d) Historical events
Ans: (c) Mythological narratives
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Gond paintings?
(a) Bright colors
(b) Abstract forms
(c) Geometric patterns
(d) Natural themes
Ans: (c) Geometric patterns
Which Veda is considered the oldest of the four Vedas?
(a) Samaveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Atharvaveda
(d) Rigveda
Ans: (d) Rigveda
Which Veda is primarily concerned with rituals and ceremonies?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (c) Yajurveda
Which of the following is NOT part of the Vedic texts?
(a) Brahmanas
(b) Aranyakas
(c) Upanishads
(d) Mahabharata
Ans: (d) Mahabharata
Which Vedic text is primarily known for its philosophical and mystical content?
(a) Brahmanas
(b) Aranyakas
(c) Upanishads
(d) Samhitas
Ans: (c) Upanishads
Which style is characterized by a strong use of natural pigments and symbols?
(a) Madhubani
(b) Warli
(c) Gond
(d) Pattachitra
Ans: (c) Gond
The main purpose of rituals described in the Yajurveda is:
(a) Philosophical discourse
(b) Magical formulas
(c) Religious ceremonies
(d) Musical chants
Ans: (c) Religious ceremonies
The Rigveda primarily consists of:
(a) Hymns and chants
(b) Ritualistic procedures
(c) Philosophical teachings
(d) Magical spells
Ans: (a) Hymns and chants
Which of the following is a major theme in Warli art?
(a) Nature and animals
(b) Historical events
(c) Abstract forms
(d) Religious themes
Ans: (a) Nature and animals
Which Vedic text includes the ‘Brihadaranyaka Upanishad’?
(a) Samaveda
(b) Rigveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (c) Yajurveda
Which Veda’s hymns are used in Vedic rituals and sacrifices?
(a) Atharvaveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Rigveda
(d) Samaveda
Ans: (b) Yajurveda
Which Vedic text is known for its magical and medicinal formulas?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (d) Atharvaveda
Which style of tribal painting involves using natural elements such as leaves and bark?
(a) Warli
(b) Gond
(c) Madhubani
(d) Pithora
Ans: (b) Gond
Which Veda’s hymns are characterized by their chanted form?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (b) Samaveda
Which Upanishad is known for discussing the concept of Brahman and Atman?
(a) Chandogya
(b) Kena
(c) Mandukya
(d) Prashna
Ans: (c) Mandukya
Pattachitra paintings are traditionally created on which surface?
(a) Fabric
(b) Paper
(c) Cloth
(d) Wood
Ans: (d) Wood
Which Vedic text is known for its ceremonial and liturgical verses?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (c) Yajurveda
In which painting style are the motifs typically used to represent social events and religious ceremonies?
(a) Warli
(b) Gond
(c) Madhubani
(d) Pithora
Ans: (d) Pithora
The Chandogya Upanishad is associated with which Veda?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (b) Samaveda
Which tribal art form uses a combination of geometric patterns and symbols to create their paintings?
(a) Warli
(b) Madhubani
(c) Gond
(d) Pithora
Ans: (a) Warli
Which Vedic text discusses the ‘Soma sacrifice’?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samaveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (a) Rigveda
The primary themes of Pithora paintings are best described as:
(a) Abstract designs
(b) Everyday life
(c) Ceremonial and religious
(d) Historical events
Ans: (c) Ceremonial and religious
Which Veda is known as the Veda of melodies and chants?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Samaveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Ans: (c) Samaveda
What was the primary reason for the enactment of the Government of India Act 1858?
(a) Economic reforms
(b) Social reforms
(c) The Revolt of 1857
(d) Demand for independence
Ans: (c) The Revolt of 1857
Which entity was dissolved as a result of the Government of India Act 1858?
(a) The Indian National Congress
(b) The East India Company
(c) The Board of Control
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Ans: (b) The East India Company
Who became the direct ruler of Indian territories as per the Government of India Act 1858?
(a) British Parliament
(b) The East India Company
(c) The British Queen
(d) The Indian Governor-General
Ans: (c) The British Queen
Who was the first Secretary of State for India under the Government of India Act 1858?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Stanley
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Warren Hastings
Ans: (b) Lord Stanley
What did the Government of India Act 1858 abolish apart from the East India Company?
(a) The dual government established by Pitt’s India Act
(b) The Princely States
(c) The Indian National Congress
(d) The Civil Services
Ans: (a) The dual government established by Pitt’s India Act
Who was appointed as the first Viceroy of India under the Government of India Act 1858?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Wellesley
Ans: (c) Lord Canning
Which body replaced the Board of Control and the Court of Directors after the Government of India Act 1858?
(a) The Indian Parliament
(b) The British Parliament
(c) The Council of India
(d) The Secretary of State for India
Ans: (d) The Secretary of State for India
What was the primary role of the Secretary of State for India according to the Government of India Act 1858?
(a) To represent India in the British Parliament
(b) To govern the Indian territories
(c) To act as a liaison between the British government and Indian administration
(d) To oversee the financial matters of India
Ans: (c) To act as a liaison between the British government and Indian administration
Which important principle regarding Indian princes was established by the Government of India Act 1858?
(a) All Indian princes were to be dethroned
(b) Indian princes would retain their independence only if they accepted British suzerainty
(c) Indian princes could never be deposed
(d) Indian princes were required to pay tribute to the British Crown
Ans: (b) Indian princes would retain their independence only if they accepted British suzerainty
Which system of governance was abolished by the Government of India Act 1858?
(a) The Mughal administration
(b) The doctrine of lapse
(c) The Permanent Settlement
(d) The subsidiary alliance
Ans: (b) The doctrine of lapse

Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: September-5

Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: September-5

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