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Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August-5

The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.

Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August-5 Download PDF

Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August-5

  1. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
    (a) Mars
    (b) Venus
    (c) Jupiter
    (d) SaturnAns:  Mars
  2.  The Indian National Congress was founded in which year?
    (a) 1857
    (b) 1885
    (c) 1905
    (d) 1947Ans:  1885
  3. Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
    (a) Mahatma Gandhi
    (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (c) (b)R. Ambedkar
    (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai PatelAns:  (b)R. Ambedkar
  4. The longest river in India is?
    (a) Yamuna
    (b) Ganga
    (c) Godavari
    (d) BrahmaputraAns:  Ganga
  5. Who was the first woman Prime Minister of India?
    (a) Indira Gandhi
    (b) Sonia Gandhi
    (c) Pratibha Patil
    (d) Mamata BanerjeeAns:  Indira Gandhi
  6. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
    (a) Carbon Dioxide
    (b) Methane
    (c) Nitrogen
    (d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)Ans:  Nitrogen
  7. The book ‘The God of Small Things’ is written by?
    (a) Salman Rushdie
    (b) Arundhati Roy
    (c) Jhumpa Lahiri
    (d) Vikram SethAns:  Arundhati Roy
  8. Who discovered the electron?
    (a) Ernest Rutherford
    (b) J.J. Thomson
    (c) Isaac Newton
    (d) Albert EinsteinAns:  J.J. Thomson
  9. The headquarters of the United Nations is located in which city?
    (a) Paris
    (b) New York City
    (c) Geneva
    (d) LondonAns:  New York City
  10. Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?
    (a) Liver
    (b) Pancreas
    (c) Kidney
    (d) SpleenAns:  Liver
  11. The capital of Japan is?
    (a) Beijing
    (b) Tokyo
    (c) Seoul
    (d) BangkokAns:  Tokyo
  12. Who wrote the famous play ‘Hamlet’?
    (a) William Shakespeare
    (b) George Bernard Shaw
    (c) Anton Chekhov
    (d) Henrik IbsenAns:  William Shakespeare
  13. The concept of ‘Survival of the Fittest’ is associated with which theory?
    (a) Theory of Relativity
    (b) Theory of Evolution
    (c) Theory of Gravity
    (d) Theory of ElectromagnetismAns:  Theory of Evolution
  14. The currency of China is?
    (a) Yen
    (b) Yuan
    (c) Won
    (d) RupeeAns:  Yuan
  15. Who was the first woman to win a Nobel Prize?
    (a) Marie Curie
    (b) Mother Teresa
    (c) Malala Yousafzai
    (d) Rosalind FranklinAns:  Marie Curie
  16. Who is known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India?
    (a) M.S. Swaminathan
    (b) (c) Subramaniam
    (c) Verghese Kurien
    (d) Norman BorlaugAns:  M.S. Swaminathan
  17. The study of earthquakes is called?
    (a) Seismology
    (b) Meteorology
    (c) Geology
    (d) PaleontologyAns:  Seismology
  18. The ozone layer protects the Earth from?
    (a) Ultraviolet radiation
    (b) Infrared radiation
    (c) Gamma radiation
    (d) X-raysAns:  Ultraviolet radiation
  19. Who is the author of the book ‘The Theory of Everything’?
    (a) Stephen Hawking
    (b) Richard Dawkins
    (c) Neil deGrasse Tyson
    (d) Michio KakuAns:  Stephen Hawking
  20. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called?
    (a) Barometer
    (b) Thermometer
    (c) Hygrometer
    (d) AltimeterAns:  Barometer
  21. The first battle of Panipat was fought in which year?
    (a) 1526
    (b) 1658
    (c) 1761
    (d) 1857Ans: 1526
  22. Which currency is used in Australia ?
    (a) Euro
    (b) Pound Sterling
    (c) Australian Dollar
    (d) RandAns:  Australian Dollar
  23. The process of conversion of sugar into alcohol is called?
    (a) Fermentation
    (b) Photosynthesis
    (c) Oxidation
    (d) CombustionAns:  Fermentation
  24. Who discovered the laws of planetary motion?
    (a) Isaac Newton
    (b) Johannes Kepler
    (c) Galileo Galilei
    (d) Nicolaus CopernicusAns:  Johannes Kepler
  25. The longest bone in the human body is?
    (a) Femur
    (b) Tibia
    (c) Fibula
    (d) HumerusAns:  Femur
  26. The headquarters of UNESCO is located in which city?
    (a) Paris
    (b) New York City
    (c) Geneva
    (d) RomeAns:  Paris
  27. Who was the first Indian to win the Nobel Prize in Literature?
    (a) Rabindranath Tagore
    (b) Sarojini Naidu
    (c) R.K. Narayan
    (d) Amartya SenAns:  Rabindranath Tagore
  28. What is the currency of Brazil ?
    (a) Real
    (b) Rupiah
    (c) Ringgit
    (d) PesoAns:  Real
  29. The largest moon in the solar system is?
    (a) Titan
    (b) Ganymede
    (c) Callisto
    (d) EuropaAns:  (b) Ganymede
  30. Who invented the telephone?
    (a) Alexander Graham Bell
    (b) Thomas Edison
    (c) Guglielmo Marconi
    (d) Nikola TeslaAns:  Alexander Graham Bell
  31. Which dynasty was the first to establish a strong empire in Odisha during the Medieval era?
    (a) Gajapati Dynasty
    (b) Bhoi Dynasty
    (c) Ganga or Eastern Ganga Dynasty
    (d) Karrani Dynasty
    Ans: (c) Ganga or Eastern Ganga Dynasty
  32. Which renowned temples were built by the Ganga rulers during their reign in Odisha?
    (a) Sun Temple and Lingaraja Temple
    (b) Meenakshi Temple and Brihadeeswarar Temple
    (c) Konark Temple and Jagannath Temple
    (d) Kailasanathar Temple and Hoysaleswara Temple
    Ans: (c) Konark Temple and Jagannath Temple
  33. Who established the Gajapati dynasty in Odisha?
    (a) Emperor Kapilendra Deva
    (b) Marathas
    (c) Mughals
    (d) Karrani Dynasty
    Ans: (a) Emperor Kapilendra Deva
  34. Which dynasty was the first Muslim empire in Odisha?
    (a) Karrani Dynasty
    (b) Gajapati Dynasty
    (c) Bhoi Dynasty
    (d) Marathas
    Ans: (a) Karrani Dynasty
  35. Who took over Odisha after the Karrani Dynasty, making it a part of their empire?
    (a) Marathas
    (b) British
    (c) Mughals
    (d) Naib Nazims of Bengal
    Ans: (d) Naib Nazims of Bengal
  36. Who was the founder of the Ganga dynasty?
    (a) Anantavarman Vajrahasta V
    (b) Chodagangadeva
    (c) Konkani Varma
    (d) Narasimhadeva I
    Ans: (c) Konkani Varma
  37. Which of the following rulers of the Ganga dynasty is credited with ruling over the region extending from the Ganga to the Godavari?
    (a) Chodagangadeva
    (b) Rajaraja II
    (c) Anangabhimadeva III
    (d) Narasimhadeva I
    Ans: (a) Chodagangadeva
  38. During the rule of the Ganga dynasty, which of the following temple architectures reached its zenith?
    (a) Mukhlingam
    (b) Shri Kurman
    (c) Simhachalam
    (d) Sun temple at Konark
    Ans: (d) Sun temple at Konark
  39. Who among the following rulers of the Ganga dynasty is associated with the construction of the famous Sun temple at Konark?
    (a) Rajaraja II
    (b) Anangabhimadeva III
    (c) Narasimhadeva I
    (d) Bhanudeva IV
    Ans: (c) Narasimhadeva I
  40. Which poet flourished during the reign of Rajaraja II of the Ganga dynasty?
    (a) Kalidasa
    (b) Tulsidas
    (c) Kabir
    (d) Jayadeva
    Ans: (d) Jayadeva
  41. Who founded the Gajapati dynasty and is also known as Kapilendra Routray?
    (a) Purushottam Deva
    (b) Prataparudra Deva
    (c) Kapilendra Deva
    (d) Kakharua Deva
    Ans: (c) Kapilendra Deva
  42. Which Odia poet wrote the Mahabharata in the Odia language during the Gajapati period?
    (a) Sarala Dasa
    (b) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
    (c) Kabir Das
    (d) Tulsidas
    Ans: (a) Sarala Dasa
  43. Who was the most powerful Hindu king of his time and expanded the Odisha empire from the lower Ganga to the Cauvery?
    (a) Purushottam Deva
    (b) Prataparudra Deva
    (c) Kapilendra Deva
    (d) Kakharua Deva
    Ans: (c) Kapilendra Deva
  44. Who was the last ruler of the Gajapati dynasty, and who killed him?
    (a) Prataparudra Deva, killed by Kakharua Deva
    (b) Kakharua Deva, killed by Govinda Vidyadhara
    (c) Kapilendra Deva, killed by Purushottam Deva
    (d) Purushottam Deva, killed by Prataparudra Deva
    Ans: (b) Kakharua Deva, killed by Govinda Vidyadhara
  45. During whose reign did Sri Chaitanya, the famous Vaishnav saint of Bengal, come to Odisha?
    (a) Purushottam Deva
    (b) Prataparudra Deva
    (c) Kapilendra Deva
    (d) Kakharua Deva
    Ans: (b) Prataparudra Deva
  46. Who was the first Muslim ruler to establish control over Odisha in 1568?
    (a) Sulaiman Khan Karrani
    (b) Daud Khan Karrani
    (c) Lodi Khan
    (d) Qutlu Khan Lohani
    Ans: (a) Sulaiman Khan Karrani
  47. Where did Sulaiman Khan Karrani transfer his capital to?
    (a) Gaur
    (b) Tandah
    (c) Puri
    (d) RajMahal
    Ans: (b) Tandah
  48. Who were the appointed governors of Odisha and Puri by Sulaiman Khan Karrani?
    (a) Daud Khan Karrani and Kalapahar
    (b) Lodi Khan and Qutlu Khan Lohani
    (c) RajMahal and Gaur
    (d) Tukario and Katak
    Ans: (b) Lodi Khan and Qutlu Khan Lohani
  49. What was the outcome of the Battle of Tukario in 1575?
    (a) Sulaiman Khan Karrani’s victory
    (b) Mughal victory
    (c) Treaty of Katak
    (d) Transfer of power to Daud Khan Karrani
    Ans: (b) Mughal victory
  50. Who was the Hindu general known for bringing large-scale destruction to temples and facilitating the victory of the Karrani dynasty?
    (a) Daud Khan Karrani
    (b) Sulaiman Khan Karrani
    (c) Kalapahar
    (d) Lodi Khan
    Ans: (c) Kalapahar
  51. Who was the Mughal general responsible for the beginning of Mughal rule in Odisha?
    (a) Qutlu Khan Lohani
    (b) Nasir Khan
    (c) Raja Mansingh
    (d) Daud Khan Karrani
    Ans: (c) Raja Mansingh
  52. When did Qutlu Khan Lohani declare himself independent and assume the title of ‘Qutlu Shah’?
    (a) 1590
    (b) 1592
    (c) 1593
    (d) 1595
    Ans: (a) 1590
  53. Who was appointed as the Governor of Odisha by Qutlu Shah?
    (a) Daud Khan Karrani
    (b) Nasir Khan
    (c) Raja Mansingh
    (d) Qutlu Khan Lohani
    Ans: (b) Nasir Khan
  54. Which region of Odisha was surrendered by Nasir Khan during his governance?
    (a) Cuttack
    (b) Bhubaneswar
    (c) Puri
    (d) Balasore
    Ans: (c) Puri
  55. When did Mansingh, the Governor of Bihar, defeat Nasir Khan and bring Odisha under Mughal rule?
    (a) 18th April, 1590
    (b) 18th April, 1592
    (c) 18th April, 1593
    (d) 18th April, 1595
    Ans: (b) 18th April, 1592
  56. Who was appointed as the Subahdar of Odisha during Aurangzeb’s reign?
    (a) Murshid Quli Khan-I
    (b) Suja-ud-din Muhammad Khan
    (c) Muhammad Taqi Khan
    (d) Alivardi Khan
    Ans: (a) Murshid Quli Khan-I
  57. Which Naib Nazim of Bengal sent a large amount of revenue from Odisha to the Delhi Court for securing his position?
    (a) Murshid Quli Khan-I
    (b) Suja-ud-din Muhammad Khan
    (c) Muhammad Taqi Khan
    (d) Alivardi Khan
    Ans: (b) Suja-ud-din Muhammad Khan
  58. Who attacked the Jagannath temple at Puri during their tenure as the deputy Governor of Odisha?
    (a) Murshid Quli Khan-I
    (b) Suja-ud-din Muhammad Khan
    (c) Muhammad Taqi Khan
    (d) Alivardi Khan
    Ans: (c) Muhammad Taqi Khan
  59. Who revived the worship of lords in the grand temple at Puri during their administration of Odisha?
    (a) Murshid Quli Khan-II
    (b) Suja-ud-din Muhammad Khan
    (c) Muhammad Taqi Khan
    (d) Alivardi Khan
    Ans: (a) Murshid Quli Khan-II
  60. Who defeated Sarfarag Khan in the Battle of Giria and became the ruler of Odisha?
    (a) Murshid Quli Khan-I
    (b) Suja-ud-din Muhammad Khan
    (c) Muhammad Taqi Khan
    (d) Alivardi Khan
    Ans: (d) Alivardi Khan
  61. What is the total population of Odisha as per the 2011 Census?
    (a) 4,19,74,218
    (b) 4,12,19,346
    (c) 4,19,72,318
    (d) 4,27,56,901
    Ans: (a) 4,19,74,218
  62. What percentage of the Indian population does Odisha account for according to the Census 2011?
    (a) 2.64%
    (b) 3.47%
    (c) 5.21%
    (d) 6.83%
    Ans: (b) 3.47%
  63. In which position does Odisha rank in terms of population among the states and union territories of India?
    (a) 9th
    (b) 10th
    (c) 11th
    (d) 12th
    Ans: (c) 11th
  64. What is the number of male population in Odisha according to the Census 2011?
    (a) 2,12,12,136
    (b) 2,07,62,082
    (c) 2,19,35,790
    (d) 2,25,84,931
    Ans: (a) 2,12,12,136
  65. Which district of Odisha has the highest population according to the Census 2011?
    (a) Ganjam
    (b) Deogarh
    (c) Jajpur
    (d) Cuttack
    Ans: (a) Ganjam
  66. What was the total population growth rate of Odisha as per the Census 2011 data?
    (a) 11.8%
    (b) 14.05%
    (c) 23.32%
    (d) 26.9%
    Ans: (b) 14.05%
  67. Which area experienced the highest growth rate according to Census 2011 data?
    (a) Rural areas
    (b) Urban areas
    (c) Both rural and urban areas had the same growth rate
    (d) Growth rate was not specified for any particular area
    Ans: (b) Urban areas (26.9%)
  68. What was the population growth rate of rural areas in Odisha as per Census 2011?
    (a) 7.50%
    (b) 11.8%
    (c) 14.05%
    (d) 23.32%
    Ans: (b) 11.8%
  69. Which district in Odisha had the highest population growth rate according to Census 2011?
    (a) Jagatsinghpur
    (b) Balangir
    (c) Cuttack
    (d) Puri
    Ans: (b) Balangir (23.32%)
  70. What was the population growth rate of Jagatsinghpur district in Odisha as per Census 2011?
    (a) 7.50%
    (b) 11.8%
    (c) 14.05%
    (d) 23.32%
    Ans: (a) 7.50%
  71. What is the total population density of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    (a) 270 persons per sq km
    (b) 800 persons per sq km
    (c) 91 persons per sq km
    (d) 979 persons per sq km
    Ans: (a) 270 persons per sq km
  72. Which district in Odisha has the highest population density?
    (a) Khordha
    (b) Kandhamal
    (c) Rayagada
    (d) Nayagarh
    Ans: (a) Khordha
  73. What is the sex ratio of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    (a) 979 females per 1000 males
    (b) 1051 females per 1000 males
    (c) 915 females per 1000 males
    (d) 987 females per 1000 males
    Ans: (a) 979 females per 1000 males
  74. Which district in Odisha has the highest sex ratio?
    (a) Rayagada
    (b) Khordha
    (c) Nayagarh
    (d) Kandhamal
    Ans: (a) Rayagada
  75. What is the sex ratio among the SC population in Odisha?
    (a) 987 females per 1000 males
    (b) 1029 females per 1000 males
    (c) 932 females per 1000 males
    (d) 941 females per 1000 males
    Ans: (b) 1029 females per 1000 males
  76. What percentage of the population in Odisha follows Hinduism?
    (a) 93.63%
    (b) 2.77%
    (c) 2.17%
    (d) 1.43%
    Ans: (a) 93.63%
  77. What is the literacy rate of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    (a) 72.97%
    (b) 86.88%
    (c) 46.43%
    (d) 81.59%
    Ans: (a) 72.9%
  78. Which district in Odisha has the highest literacy rate?
    (a) Khordha
    (b) Nabarangpur
    (c) Rayagada
    (d) Kandhamal
    Ans: (a) Khordha
  79. What is the male literacy rate of Odisha?
    (a) 81.59%
    (b) 69.02%
    (c) 52.24%
    (d) 70.22%
    Ans: (a) 81.59%
  80. What is the rural literacy rate of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    (a) 70.22%
    (b) 85.75%
    (c) 69.02%
    (d) 52.24%
    Ans: (a) 70.22%
  81. What is the total child population (0-6 years) of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    (a) 53,73,194
    (b) 52,73,194
    (c) 54,73,194
    (d) 51,73,194
    Ans: (b) 52,73,194
  82. Which district in Odisha has the highest child population (0-6 years) as per Census 2011?
    (a) Deogarh
    (b) Ganjam
    (c) Khordha
    (d) Boudh
    Ans: (b) Ganjam
  83. What is the child population (0-6 years) in Deogarh district as per Census 2011?
    (a) 39,917
    (b) 42,158
    (c) 48,165
    (d) 56,271
    Ans: (a) 39,917
  84. What percentage of the total population of Odisha is classified as rural as per Census 2011?
    (a) 81.67%
    (b) 83.31%
    (c) 84.92%
    (d) 79.15%
    Ans: (b) 83.31%
  85. Which district in Odisha has the highest rural population percentage as per Census 2011?
    (a) Boudh
    (b) Khordha
    (c) Ganjam
    (d) Deogarh
    Ans: (a) Boudh
  86. What is the percentage of urban population in Odisha as per Census 2011?
    (a) 18.45%
    (b) 16.69%
    (c) 14.23%
    (d) 20.11%
    Ans: (b) 16.69%
  87. Which district in Odisha has the highest urban population percentage as per Census 2011?
    (a) Khordha
    (b) Boudh
    (c) Ganjam
    (d) Deogarh
    Ans: (a) Khordha
  88. What is the urban population percentage in Boudh district as per Census 2011?
    (a) 4.63%
    (b) 8.25%
    (c) 12.47%
    (d) 15.93%
    Ans: (a) 4.63%
  89. In terms of Scheduled Caste population, what rank does Odisha hold among all states as per Census 2011?
    (a) 9th
    (b) 11th
    (c) 13th
    (d) 15th
    Ans: (b) 11th
  90. What percentage of the total population of Odisha is constituted by the Scheduled Caste population as per Census 2011?
    (a) 15.2%
    (b) 17.1%
    (c) 19.5%
    (d) 21.8%
    Ans: (b) 17.1%
  91. What is the primary purpose of a national park?
    (a) To promote urban development
    (b) To conserve natural ecosystems
    (c) To facilitate industrial expansion
    (d) To encourage hunting and fishing activities
    Ans: (b) To conserve natural ecosystems
  92. When was Bhitarkanika National Park established?
    (a) 1985
    (b) 1998
    (c) 2005
    (d) 2010
    Ans: (b) 1998
  93. What is the total area covered by Bhitarkanika National Park?
    (a) 100 sq km
    (b) 200 sq km
    (c) 145 sq km
    (d) 50 sq km
    Ans: (c) 145 sq km
  94. Which district is Bhitarkanika National Park located in?
    (a) Cuttack
    (b) Kendrapara
    (c) Puri
    (d) Bhubaneswar
    Ans: (b) Kendrapara
  95. What are some of the important fauna species found in Bhitarkanika National Park?
    (a) Lion, Tiger, Elephant
    (b) Crocodile, King Cobra, Indian Python
    (c) Deer, Rabbit, Squirrel
    (d) Peacock, Parrot, Sparrow
    Ans: (b) Crocodile, King Cobra, Indian Python
  96. Where is the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve located?
    (a) Mayurbhanj district
    (b) Angul district
    (c) Sundergarh district
    (d) Puri district
    Ans: (b) Angul district
  97. When did the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve come into existence?
    (a) 1994
    (b) 2002
    (c) 2007
    (d) 2010
    Ans: (b) 2002
  98. Which of the following districts does Mahanadi Elephant Reserve border?
    (a) Angul, Cuttack, Nayagarh, Kandhamal, and Dhenkanal
    (b) Mayurbhanj, Balangir, Kendujhar, Jharsuguda, and Bhadrak
    (c) Ganjam, Puri, Jagatsinghpur, Kendrapara, and Khordha
    (d) Sambalpur, Sundargarh, and Jharsuguda
    Ans: (a) Angul, Cuttack, Nayagarh, Kandhamal, and Dhenkanal
  99. What is the total area covered by the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve?
    (a) 427 sq km
    (b) 963.87 sq km
    (c) 1,038 sq km
    (d) 4,374 sq km
    Ans: (c) 1,038 sq km
  100. Which of the following wildlife divisions is not part of the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve?
    (a) Satkosi Wildlife Division
    (b) Mahanadi Wildlife Division
    (c) Simlipal Wildlife Division
    (d) Athamalik Forest Division
    Ans: (c) Simlipal Wildlife Division
  101. How many elephant reserves are there in Odisha?
    (a) 1
    (b) 2
    (c) 3
    (d) 4
    Ans: (b) 2
  102. Which river does the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve derive its name from?
    (a) Brahmaputra
    (b) Ganges
    (c) Mahanadi
    (d) Godavari
    Ans: (c) Mahanadi
  103. What endangered species can be found in the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve?
    (a) Bengal Tiger
    (b) Gharial
    (c) Snow Leopard
    (d) Red Panda
    Ans: (b) Gharial
  104. What type of forests are predominant in the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve?
    (a) Rainforests
    (b) Desert Scrub
    (c) Moist Deciduous Forests
    (d) Coniferous Forests
    Ans: (c) Moist Deciduous Forests
  105. Which of the following bird species is not found in the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve?
    (a) Hornbills
    (b) Peafowl
    (c) Penguins
    (d) River Tern
    Ans: (c) Penguins
  106. In which district is Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary located?
    (a) Kendrapara
    (b) Puri
    (c) Cuttack
    (d) Khordha
    Ans: (b) Puri
  107. When was Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary established?
    (a) 1972
    (b) 1984
    (c) 1990
    (d) 2001
    Ans: (b) 1984
  108. What is the approximate area covered by Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary?
    (a) 45.32 sq km
    (b) 61.84 sq km
    (c) 71.72 sq km
    (d) 83.96 sq km
    Ans: (c) 71.72 sq km
  109. Which animal is considered the ideal habitat of the Chousingha in Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary?
    (a) Black Buck
    (b) Spotted Deer
    (c) Monkey
    (d) Hyena
    Ans: (a) Black Buck
  110. What are some important features of Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary?
    (a) Dense tropical rainforests
    (b) Arid desert landscape
    (c) Dry deciduous mixed forests with rich wildlife
    (d) Snow-capped mountains
    Ans: (c) Dry deciduous mixed forests with rich wildlife
  111. Which famous dam reservoir is located in the Western region of Odisha?
    (a) Rourkela Dam
    (b) Hirakud Dam
    (c) Sambalpur Dam
    (d) Bargarh Dam
    Ans: (b) Hirakud Dam
  112. What type of forest tree vegetation is predominant in the Western region of Odisha?
    (a) Teak Forests
    (b) Sal Forests
    (c) Pine Forests
    (d) Tropical Dry Deciduous forests
    Ans: (d) Tropical Dry Deciduous forests
  113. Which hill range in the Western region of Odisha is renowned for its rich medicinal flora?
    (a) Similipal Hill Range
    (b) Mahendragiri Hill Range
    (c) Gandhamardan Hill Range
    (d) Niyamgiri Hill Range
    Ans: (c) Gandhamardan Hill Range
  114. What type of forest cover can be found in the Western region of Odisha?
    (a) Evergreen Forests
    (b) Mangrove Forests
    (c) Semi-Evergreen Forests
    (d) Tropical Rainforests
    Ans: (c) Semi-Evergreen Forests
  115. Which forest range is famous for its large wildlife population in the Western region of Odisha?
    (a) Badarama Forest Range
    (b) Similipal Forest Range
    (c) Lakhari Valley Sanctuary
    (d) Chandaka Forest Range
    Ans: (c) Lakhari Valley Sanctuary
  116. When did Simlipal Tiger Reserve come into existence?
    (a) 1956
    (b) 1966
    (c) 1976
    (d) 1986
    Ans: (a) 1956
  117. Which district of Odisha is Simlipal Tiger Reserve located in?
    (a) Sundargarh
    (b) Mayurbhanj
    (c) Keonjhar
    (d) Balasore
    Ans: (b) Mayurbhanj
  118. What is the approximate area covered by Simlipal Tiger Reserve?
    (a) 1,500 sq km
    (b) 2,250 sq km
    (c) 2,750 sq km
    (d) 3,000 sq km
    Ans: (c) 2,750 sq km
  119. In which year was Simlipal Tiger Reserve selected for implementation of the first phase of Project Tiger?
    (a) 1963
    (b) 1973
    (c) 1983
    (d) 1993
    Ans: (b) 1973
  120. Which of the following species is NOT found in Simlipal Tiger Reserve according to the passage?
    (a) Leopard
    (b) Elephant
    (c) Tiger
    (d) Rhino
    Ans: (d) Rhino
  121. Which state in India is the largest producer of bauxite?
    (a) Gujarat
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Odisha
    (d) Rajasthan
    Ans: (c) Odisha
  122. Approximately what percentage of India’s bauxite production does Odisha contribute?
    (a) 25%
    (b) 35%
    (c) 50%
    (d) 65%
    Ans: (c) 50%
  123. In which districts of Odisha is the major bauxite belt located?
    (a) Keonjhar and Sundargarh
    (b) Balasore and Mayurbhanj
    (c) Kalahandi and Koraput
    (d) Cuttack and Puri
    Ans: (c) Kalahandi and Koraput
  124. What is the nickname given to the city known for its aluminum industry in Odisha?
    (a) Bhubaneswar
    (b) Cuttack
    (c) Angul
    (d) Rourkela
    Ans: (c) Angul
  125. Which company is a significant player in the aluminum industry in Odisha?
    (a) Tata Steel
    (b) National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO)
    (c) Vedanta Limited
    (d) Hindalco Industries Limited
    Ans: (b) National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO)
  126. What is the major application of bauxite in the aluminum industry?
    (a) Refining into steel
    (b) Manufacturing of cement
    (c) Extraction of gold
    (d) Production of aluminum metal
    Ans: (d) Production of aluminum metal
  127. What role does Kalahandi play in Odisha’s aluminum production?
    (a) It is the largest consumer of aluminum products.
    (b) It hosts major aluminum manufacturing plants.
    (c) It is the primary source of bauxite mining.
    (d) It is the leading exporter of aluminum goods.
    Ans: (c) It is the primary source of bauxite mining.
  128. What mineral does Odisha produce the most of?
    (a) Coal
    (b) Iron Ore
    (c) Manganese
    (d) Bauxite
    Ans: (c) Manganese
  129. Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India?
    (a) Maharashtra
    (b) Karnataka
    (c) Odisha
    (d) Gujarat
    Ans: (c) Odisha
  130. What is manganese primarily used for in Odisha?
    (a) Cement Production
    (b) Steel Production
    (c) Aluminum Production
    (d) Fertilizer Manufacturing
    Ans: (b) Steel Production
  131. Which mineral resource contributes significantly to Odisha’s aluminum production?
    (a) Iron Ore
    (b) Bauxite
    (c) Coal
    (d) Chromite
    Ans: (b) Bauxite
  132. Which company is a major player in aluminum production in Odisha?
    (a) Tata Steel
    (b) Reliance Industries
    (c) National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO)
    (d) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
    Ans: (c) National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO)
  133. What percentage of India’s iron reserves does Odisha possess?
    (a) 10%
    (b) 15%
    (c) 20%
    (d) 25%
    Ans: (d) 25%
  134. What portion of India’s steel production capacity is contributed by Odisha?
    (a) 5%
    (b) 8%
    (c) 10%
    (d) 12%
    Ans: (c) 10%
  135. Which state leads in aluminium production within India?
    (a) Gujarat
    (b) Maharashtra
    (c) Odisha
    (d) Karnataka
    Ans: (c) Odisha
  136. What percentage of India’s manganese resources does Odisha account for?
    (a) 30%
    (b) 35%
    (c) 44%
    (d) 50%
    Ans: (c) 44%
  137. What is the primary industrial use of manganese in Odisha?
    (a) Aluminum production
    (b) Cement manufacturing
    (c) Fertilizer production
    (d) Steel manufacture
    Ans: (d) Steel manufacture
  138. Why has the government of Odisha geared up exploration efforts for manganese?
    (a) To enhance agricultural production
    (b) To promote tourism
    (c) To cater to the steel industry’s needs
    (d) To support the pharmaceutical industry
    Ans: (c) To cater to the steel industry’s needs
  139. What is the significance of manganese in the steel manufacturing process?
    (a) It improves electrical conductivity
    (b) It increases resistance to corrosion
    (c) It enhances tensile strength and hardness
    (d) It improves heat resistance
    Ans: (c) It enhances tensile strength and hardness
  140. Apart from steel, where else is manganese widely used?
    (a) Glass manufacturing
    (b) Paper production
    (c) Plastic industry
    (d) Textile manufacturing
    Ans: (a) Glass manufacturing
  141. Which three countries are among the world’s top producers of aluminum?
    (a) China, India, Japan
    (b) India, Russia, Brazil
    (c) China, India, Russia
    (d) Russia, Australia, United States
    Ans: (c) China, India, Russia
  142. Which mineral resource is primarily mined in Odisha?
    (a) Coal
    (b) Bauxite
    (c) Iron Ore
    (d) Gold
    Ans: (c) Iron Ore
  143. Which Indian state is the largest producer of bauxite?
    (a) Gujarat
    (b) Jharkhand
    (c) Odisha
    (d) Maharashtra
    Ans: (c) Odisha
  144. What percentage of India’s total bauxite production is contributed by Odisha?
    (a) 24%
    (b) 49%
    (c) 8%
    (d) 9%
    Ans: (b) 49%
  145. After Odisha, which state is the next largest producer of bauxite in India?
    (a) Gujarat
    (b) Jharkhand
    (c) Maharashtra
    (d) Chhattisgarh
    Ans: (a) Gujarat
  146. Which mineral is the largest contributor to Odisha’s economy?
    (a) Coal
    (b) Iron Ore
    (c) Bauxite
    (d) Chromite
    Ans: (b) Iron Ore
  147. What is the primary use of chromite in Odisha?
    (a) Steel Production
    (b) Aluminum Production
    (c) Cement Manufacturing
    (d) Fertilizer Industry
    Ans: (a) Steel Production
  148. What percentage of India’s iron ore production does Odisha account for?
    (a) 35%
    (b) 47%
    (c) 57%
    (d) 62%
    Ans: (c) 57%
  149. Over what period has iron ore production in Odisha seen a significant increase?
    (a) 2000-2010
    (b) 2010-2020
    (c) 1990-2000
    (d) 1980-1990
    Ans: (b) 2010-2020
  150. In which districts of Odisha were gold reserves found?
    (a) Cuttack and Puri
    (b) Deogarh, Keonjhar, and Mayurbhanj
    (c) Koraput and Sundargarh
    (d) Balasore and Bhadrak
    Ans: (b) Deogarh, Keonjhar, and Mayurbhanj
  151. When were the first surveys conducted to identify gold reserves in Odisha?
    (a) 1950s and 1960s
    (b) 1970s and 1980s
    (c) 1990s and 2000s
    (d) 2010s and 2020s
    Ans: (b) 1970s and 1980s
  152. When did Odisha become a separate province?
    (a) 1935
    (b) 1936
    (c) 1947
    (d) 1950
    Ans: (b) 1936
  153. Who led the movement against the abolition of Odia as the court language of Sambalpur in 1895?
    (a) Madan Mohan Mishra
    (b) Brajamohan Patnaik
    (c) Mahant Bihari Das
    (d) All of the above
    Ans: (d) All of the above
  154. Which act regulated the formation and functioning of the Odisha Legislative Assembly in its pre-independent phase?
    (a) Government of India Act, 1919
    (b) Government of India Act, 1935
    (c) Indian Independence Act, 1947
    (d) Constitution of India, 1950
    Ans: (b) Government of India Act, 1935
  155. Who was the first Chief Minister of Odisha?
    (a) Harekrushna Mahatab
    (b) Nabakrushna Choudhuri
    (c) Biju Patnaik
    (d) Giridhar Gamang
    Ans: (a) Harekrushna Mahatab
  156. Who succeeded Harekrushna Mahatab as the Chief Minister of Odisha?
    (a) Nabakrushna Choudhuri
    (b) Biju Patnaik
    (c) Giridhar Gamang
    (d) None of the above
    Ans: (b) Nabakrushna Choudhuri
  157. How many Lok Sabha constituencies does Odisha have?
    (a) 15
    (b) 18
    (c) 21
    (d) 24
    Ans: (c) 21
  158. How many Rajya Sabha members are elected from Odisha by Members of the Odisha State Legislature?
    (a) 5
    (b) 7
    (c) 10
    (d) 12
    Ans: (c) 10
  159. How many members comprise the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    (a) 100
    (b) 120
    (c) 147
    (d) 200
    Ans: (c) 147
  160. How many Assembly Constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    (a) 24
    (b) 33
    (c) 50
    (d) 60
    Ans: (b) 33
  161. How many Assembly Constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Castes (S(c) in the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    (a) 24
    (b) 33
    (c) 50
    (d) 60
    Ans: (a) 24
  162. Which circular directed the abolition of Odia as the court language of Sambalpur in 1895?
    (a) Risley Circular
    (b) Andrew Fraser Circular
    (c) Curzon Circular
    (d) None of the above
    Ans: (b) Andrew Fraser Circular
  163. Who founded the Utkal Sammilani in 1903 to ventilate the grievances of the Odia-speaking people?
    (a) Madan Mohan Mishra
    (b) Brajamohan Patnaik
    (c) Mahant Bihari Das
    (d) Madhusudan Das
    Ans: (d) Madhusudan Das
  164. Which organization played a significant role in restoring the nationalism of Odisha?
    (a) Ganjam Jatiya Samity
    (b) Utkal Sammilani
    (c) Indian National Congress
    (d) None of the above
    Ans: (b) Utkal Sammilani
  165. In which year was the Ganjam National Conference held, expressing the desire for a united Odisha?
    (a) 1895
    (b) 1903
    (c) 1907
    (d) 1911
    Ans: (c) 1907
  166. Who criticized the creation of Bihar and Odisha in the House of Lords in February 1912?
    (a) Madan Mohan Mishra
    (b) Brajamohan Patnaik
    (c) Lord Curzon
    (d) Mahant Bihari Das
    Ans: (c) Lord Curzon
  167. When was the province of Bihar and Odisha inaugurated?
    (a) 1901
    (b) 1911
    (c) 1912
    (d) 1920
    Ans: (c) 1912
  168. Which publication strongly denounced Telugu ascendancy over Ganjam and pleaded for the fulfillment of the Odia demand for ‘Odian Odisha’?
    (a) Utkal Sammilani
    (b) Asha
    (c) Utkala Dipika
    (d) None of the above
    Ans: (b) Asha
  169. Who pleaded for the unification of Odia areas of Ganjam, Jayapore, Medinapur, Singhbhum, and Phulajhar with Odisha for Odia Mulaka in 1924?
    (a) Madhusudan Das
    (b) Krupasindhu Hota
    (c) Mahant Bihari Das
    (d) Madan Mohan Mishra
    Ans: (b) Krupasindhu Hota
  170. Which group of Odias demanded the placement of all Odia-speaking tracts under one government for moral, material, and intellectual improvement?
    (a) Odias of Vizianagaram
    (b) Odias of Berhampur Taluk
    (c) Odias of Cuttack
    (d) Odias of Puri
    Ans: (a) Odias of Vizianagaram
  171. Which legislative council was constituted under the Government of India Act 1909?
    (a) Odisha Legislative Council
    (b) Indian Legislative Council
    (c) Central Legislative Council
    (d) None of the above
    Ans: (c) Central Legislative Council
  172. How many additional members did Odisha have in the legislative council under the Government of India Act 1909?
    (a) Two
    (b) Three
    (c) Four
    (d) One
    Ans: (d) One
  173. Who proposed separate representation of Odisha in the Imperial Legislative Council to safeguard the interests of Odias in different areas?
    (a) Mahant Bihari Das
    (b) Balabhadra Suar
    (c) Madhusudan Das
    (d) Brajamohan Patnaik
    Ans: (c) Madhusudan Das
  174. In which year did the Indian National Congress mainly engage itself in the freedom movement of India, diverting its focus from the issue of Odisha union?
    (a) 1911
    (b) 1920
    (c) 1903
    (d) 1901
    Ans: (b) 1920
  175. What was the legislative status of Odisha after the province of Bihar and Odisha was inaugurated in 1912?
    (a) It became a separate province with its own legislative council.
    (b) It remained only a commissioner’s division under Bihar.
    (c) It became a part of Bengal province.
    (d) None of the above
    Ans: (b) It remained only a commissioner’s division under Bihar.
  176. In which year did Odia become the official language of Odisha according to the Odisha Official Language Act?
    (a) 1954
    (b) 2011
    (c) 2000
    (d) 1975
    Ans: (a) 1954
  177. What legislative body passed the Odisha Official Language Act, 1954?
    (a) Odisha Legislative Assembly
    (b) Indian Parliament
    (c) Supreme Court of India
    (d) President of India
    Ans: (a) Odisha Legislative Assembly
  178. In which year was the English rendering of ଓଡ଼ିଶା changed from “Orissa” to “Odisha”?
    (a) 1954
    (b) 2011
    (c) 2000
    (d) 1975
    Ans: (b) 2011
  179. What legislation led to the change of name from “Orissa” to “Odisha” and the language from “Oriya” to “Odia”?
    (a) Orissa (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2010
    (b) Constitution (113th Amendment) Bill, 2010
    (c) Both a and b
    (d) None of the above
    Ans: (c) Both a and b
  180. Which legislative body passed the Orissa (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2010?
    (a) Odisha Legislative Assembly
    (b) Indian Parliament
    (c) Supreme Court of India
    (d) President of India
    Ans: (b) Indian Parliament
  181. What was the language name changed to after the passage of the Orissa (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2010?
    (a) Oriya
    (b) Odia
    (c) Odiya
    (d) Orissan
    Ans: (b) Odia
  182. What disease did a recent study using ‘Semi-supervised Machine Learning’ suggest may affect over 10 million older adults in India?
    (a) Dementia
    (b) Alzheimer’s disease
    (c) Parkinson’s disease
    (d) Epilepsy
    Ans: A [Dementia]
  183. From which asteroid did researchers discover building blocks of RNA in materials?
    (a) Asteroid Bennu
    (b) Asteroid Chariklo
    (c) Asteroid Eros
    (d) Asteroid Ryugu
    Ans: D [Asteroid Ryugu]
  184. As of 2023, what is the heaviest payload rocket of the Indian Space Research Organisation?
    (a) LVM1
    (b) LVM2
    (c) LVM3
    (d) PSLV-XL
    Ans: C [LVM3]
  185. What sub-type of the Influenza A virus is also known as ‘Equine influenza Virus’?
    (a) H3N1
    (b) H3N2
    (c) H3N8
    (d) H2N1
    Ans: C [H3N8]
  186. The ‘Juice Mission’, which was in the news, is associated with which space agency?
    (a) NASA
    (b) ISRO
    (c) ESA
    (d) JAXA
    Ans: C [ESA]
  187. What is “Colistin”, which has recently been in the news?
    (a) Antibiotic drug
    (b) Ayurvedic Medicine
    (c) Covid variant
    (d) Fungi
    Ans: A [Antibiotic drug]
  188. In which country is the ‘Atacama Cosmology Telescope (ACT)’ located?
    (a) Russia
    (b) Chile
    (c) USA
    (d) Canada
    Ans: B [Chile]
  189. Which company has built ‘Starship’, the most powerful rocket ever built to take humans to the Moon?
    (a) NASA
    (b) ISRO
    (c) SpaceX
    (d) Blue Virgin
    Ans: C [SpaceX]
  190. What is ‘RAMBAAN’, which was recently seen in the news?
    (a) Elephant Species
    (b) Mobile Clinic
    (c) COVID vaccine
    (d) Launch Vehicle
    Ans: B [Mobile Clinic]
  191. What is the name for the hybrid solar eclipse that will transit from an annular eclipse to a total eclipse?
    (a) Ningaloo Eclipse
    (b) Partial Eclipse
    (c) Helcos Eclipse
    (d) Lumbar Eclipse
    Ans: A [Ningaloo Eclipse]
  192. Emirates launched the world’s first robotic check-in assistant. What is its name?
    (a) Sara
    (b) Kiwi
    (c) Siri
    (d) Rini
    Ans: A [Sara]
  193. Which institution inaugurated the Renewable Grid Integration Laboratory and Green Hydrogen Laboratory?
    (a) IIT Madras
    (b) IIT Roorkee
    (c) NIT Warangal
    (d) NIT Tiruchirappalli
    Ans: B [IIT Roorkee]
  194. ‘Husky –Ichor’, the world’s first integrated machine for manufacturing blood collection tubes, was established in which state?
    (a) Maharashtra
    (b) Gujarat
    (c) Kerala
    (d) West Bengal
    Ans: C [Kerala]
  195. India’s first polarimetry mission, XPoSat, is under development by which institution?
    (a) HAL
    (b) DRDO
    (c) ISRO
    (d) BARC
    Ans: C [ISRO]
  196. What disease can be detected by the Galleri test, recently in the news?
    (a) Cancer
    (b) COVID 19
    (c) Diabetes
    (d) Hypertension
    Ans: A [Cancer]
  197. ISRO, along with which country, hosted the International Conference on Spacecraft Mission Operations (SMOPS-2023)?
    (a) USA
    (b) Italy
    (c) Israel
    (d) France
    Ans: B [Italy]
  198. Which country-based company launched the maiden satellite ABA First Runner (AFR)?
    (a) Russia
    (b) India
    (c) Israel
    (d) UAE
    Ans: B [India]
  199. In which plant species is ‘Geraniol’, a naturally occurring substance, found?
    (a) Onion
    (b) Turmeric
    (c) Eggplant
    (d) Tomato
    Ans: C [Eggplant]
  200. Which space agency’s researchers conducted the ‘Fried space food experiment’?
    (a) NASA
    (b) ISRO
    (c) ESA
    (d) JAXA
    Ans: C [ESA]
  201. ‘MOVEit’, recently in the news, refers to what?
    (a) File transfer application
    (b) Fitness App
    (c) Technology hackathon
    (d) Electric vehicle technology
    Ans: A [File transfer application]
  202. On the far side of which celestial body is the Compton-Belkovich volcanic complex located?
    (a) Earth
    (b) Moon
    (c) Sun
    (d) Venus
    Ans: B [Moon]
  203. A recent study suggests that human-induced climate change has caused a substantial change in the color of what?
    (a) Earth’s Trees
    (b) Earth’s Oceans
    (c) Earth’s Moon
    (d) Earth’s Soil
    Ans: B [Earth’s Oceans]
  204. India’s first indigenous e-Tractor, Prima ET11, is developed by which institution?
    (a) L&T
    (b) DRDO
    (c) CSIR
    (d) IIT Madras
    Ans: C [CSIR]
  205. Scientists have issued a warning about the spread of a parasitic brain worm, ‘Rat lungworm,’ in which country?
    (a) India
    (b) China
    (c) USA
    (d) Indonesia
    Ans: C [USA]
  206. Which institution recently revealed ‘Antimatter’s Response to Gravity’?
    (a) European Center for Nuclear Research (CERN)
    (b) Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS)
    (c) Harvard University
    (d) Max Planck Society
    Ans: A [European Center for Nuclear Research (CERN)]
  207. Project Kuiper, aiming to provide fast, affordable broadband internet service, belongs to which company?
    (a) SpaceX
    (b) Amazon
    (c) BlueOrigin
    (d) Google
    Ans: B [Amazon]
  208. ‘Singing Plasma Waves’ have been identified for the first time around which planet recently?
    (a) Mercury
    (b) Venus
    (c) Mars
    (d) Uranus
    Ans: A [Mercury]
  209. Scientists have produced an infant ‘chimera’ of which species?
    (a) Monkey
    (b) Squirrel
    (c) Rabbit
    (d) Dog
    Ans: A [Monkey]
  210. The Ariane 6 rocket was developed by which space agency?
    (a) NASA
    (b) ESA
    (c) JAXA
    (d) ISRO
    Ans: B [ESA]
  211. Ingenuity is an autonomous helicopter operating on which celestial body?
    (a) Moon
    (b) Mars
    (c) Venus
    (d) Jupiter
    Ans: B [Mars]
  212. What triggers the declaration of a National Emergency in India?
    (a) Economic instability
    (b) War, external aggression, or armed rebellion
    (c) Political unrest
    (d) Natural disasters
    Ans: (b) War, external aggression, or armed rebellion
  213. Who has the authority to declare a National Emergency in India?
    (a) Prime Minister
    (b) Parliament
    (c) President
    (d) Supreme Court
    Ans: (c) President
  214. Under which article of the Indian Constitution is the provision for National Emergency found?
    (a) Article 356
    (b) Article 360
    (c) Article 352
    (d) Article 370
    Ans: (c) Article 352
  215. During a National Emergency, the President can suspend fundamental rights under which article of the Constitution?
    (a) Article 356
    (b) Article 359
    (c) Article 360
    (d) Article 370
    Ans: (b) Article 359
  216. Which of the following fundamental rights cannot be suspended during a National Emergency?
    (a) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
    (b) Right to Equality
    (c) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
    (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
    Ans: (c) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
  217. Who advises the President of India in the declaration of a National Emergency?
    (a) Supreme Court
    (b) Governor of the concerned state
    (c) Council of Ministers
    (d) Chief Justice of India
    Ans: (c) Council of Ministers
  218. How long does a proclamation of National Emergency initially last?
    (a) 1 month
    (b) 3 months
    (c) 6 months
    (d) 1 year
    Ans: (c) 6 months
  219. Can a proclamation of National Emergency be extended beyond the initial period without parliamentary approval?
    (a) Yes
    (b) No
    Ans: (b) No
  220. What action does the government typically take during a National Emergency?
    (a) Enforcing curfews nationwide
    (b) Restricting civil liberties
    (c) Imposing martial law
    (d) Allowing free speech and dissent
    Ans: (b) Restricting civil liberties
  221. Who can challenge the validity of a National Emergency proclamation in the courts?
    (a) Any citizen of India
    (b) Only the Prime Minister
    (c) Only the opposition party
    (d) The President
    Ans: (a) Any citizen of India
  222. What is another term for State Emergency as per Article 356 of the Indian Constitution?(a) National Emergency
    (b) Governor’s Rule
    (c) President’s Rule
    (d) Legislative Emergency
    Ans: (c) President’s Rule
  223. Under what circumstances can President’s Rule be imposed in a state?
    (a) Economic instability
    (b) Political instability or failure of constitutional machinery
    (c) Natural disasters
    (d) External aggression
    Ans: (b) Political instability or failure of constitutional machinery
  224. Who typically sends a report to the President signaling the need for President’s Rule in a state?
    (a) Chief Minister
    (b) State Legislative Assembly
    (c) State Governor
    (d) Union Home Minister
    Ans: (c) State Governor
  225. Who has the authority to declare President’s Rule in a state?
    (a) State Governor
    (b) Prime Minister
    (c) President of India
    (d) Chief Minister
    Ans: (c) President of India
  226. How long can President’s Rule initially last in a state before it needs parliamentary approval for extension?
    (a) 3 months
    (b) 6 months
    (c) 1 year
    (d) 2 years
    Ans: (b) 6 months
  227. Which of the following statements is true regarding the powers of the President during President’s Rule?
    (a) The President can dissolve the State Legislative Assembly.
    (b) The President can appoint a new Chief Minister.
    (c) The President can take direct control over the administration of the state.
    (d) The President can declare emergency rule in neighboring states.
    Ans: (c) The President can take direct control over the administration of the state.
  228. Who assumes the role of the executive head of the state government during President’s Rule?
    (a) Chief Minister
    (b) Governor
    (c) President
    (d) Lieutenant Governor
    Ans: (b) Governor
  229. What action does the President usually take after the imposition of President’s Rule in a state?
    (a) Dissolve the State Legislative Assembly
    (b) Call for fresh elections within 1 month
    (c) Appoint a new Chief Minister
    (d) Issue an ordinance to restore normalcy
    Ans: (a) Dissolve the State Legislative Assembly
  230. In the absence of President’s Rule, which entity is responsible for the governance of a state?
    (a) Union Government
    (b) President of India
    (c) State Legislative Assembly
    (d) State Governor
    Ans: (c) State Legislative Assembly
  231. Under what circumstances can a Financial Emergency be declared in India?
    (a) Economic recession
    (b) Financial instability or threat to India’s financial stability or credit
    (c) Currency devaluation
    (d) Budget deficit
    Ans: (b) Financial instability or threat to India’s financial stability or credit
  232. Who has the authority to declare a Financial Emergency in India?
    (a) Prime Minister
    (b) Finance Minister
    (c) President of India
    (d) Reserve Bank of India
    Ans: (c) President of India
  233. How long can a proclamation of Financial Emergency initially last?
    (a) 3 months
    (b) 6 months
    (c) 1 year
    (d) 2 years
    Ans: (b) 6 months
  234. Which of the following statements regarding Financial Emergency is true?
    (a) It leads to the suspension of the President’s Rule in states.
    (b) It primarily affects the functioning of the judiciary.
    (c) It empowers the President to control the financial resources of the country.
    (d) It can be declared by the Prime Minister.
    Ans: (c) It empowers the President to control the financial resources of the country.
  235. What action can the President take to address the financial crisis during a Financial Emergency?
    (a) Increase taxes nationwide
    (b) Borrow funds from international organizations
    (c) Issue directives to states to follow financial guidelines
    (d) Impose tariffs on imports
    Ans: (c) Issue directives to states to follow financial guidelines
  236. How many times has a Financial Emergency been declared in India since independence?
    (a) Once
    (b) Twice
    (c) Thrice
    (d) Never
    Ans: (d) Never
  237. How long can a national emergency be in force without parliamentary approval?
    (a) 1 month
    (b) 3 months
    (c) 6 months
    (d) 1 year
    Ans: (c) 6 months
  238. During a state of emergency, which branch of government continues to function?
    (a) Executive
    (b) Legislative
    (c) Judicial
    (d) Administrative
    Ans: (b) Legislative
  239. What role does the Supreme Court of India play during emergencies?
    (a) It enforces emergency declarations.
    (b) It checks the validity of emergency declarations and protects citizens’ rights.
    (c) It suspends its functions.
    (d) It advises the President on emergency matters.
    Ans: (b) It checks the validity of emergency declarations and protects citizens’ rights.
  240. Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during a national emergency?
    (a) Right to Freedom of Speech
    (b) Right to Equality
    (c) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
    (d) Right to Property
    Ans: (c) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
  241. What is the main characteristic of a direct tax?
    (a) It is paid indirectly through an intermediary.
    (b) It is collected by an organization on behalf of the government.
    (c) It cannot be shifted to another individual or entity.
    (d) It is imposed only on goods and services.
    Ans: (c) It cannot be shifted to another individual or entity.
  242. Which government body in India deals with matters related to levying and collecting Direct Taxes?
    (a) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBI(c)
    (b) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
    (c) Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN)
    (d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
    Ans: (b) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
  243. Which of the following is an example of a direct tax?
    (a) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
    (b) Sales Tax
    (c) Income Tax
    (d) Value Added Tax (VAT)
    Ans: (c) Income Tax
  244. What is the ultimate economic burden of an indirect tax?
    (a) Government
    (b) Taxpayer
    (c) Intermediary
    (d) Consumer
    Ans: (d) Consumer
  245. Who bears the ultimate economic burden of an indirect tax?
    (a) Government
    (b) Intermediary
    (c) Taxpayer
    (d) Consumer
    Ans: (d) Consumer
  246. What is the purpose of Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT) in India?
    (a) To tax individuals directly on their income.
    (b) To tax companies on the benefits provided to their employees.
    (c) To tax goods and services sold in retail stores.
    (d) To tax imports and exports.
    Ans: (b) To tax companies on the benefits provided to their employees.
  247. When was Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT) introduced in India?
    (a) 2005
    (b) 2009
    (c) 2010
    (d) 2015
    Ans: (a) 2005
  248. What was the rate of Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT) in India?
    (a) 10%
    (b) 20%
    (c) 30%
    (d) 40%
    Ans: (c) 30%
  249. Who was liable to pay Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT) in India?
    (a) Employees
    (b) Consumers
    (c) Employers
    (d) Government
    Ans: (c) Employers
  250. What types of benefits were subject to Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT) in India?
    (a) Only monetary benefits
    (b) Only non-monetary benefits
    (c) Both monetary and non-monetary benefits
    (d) None of the above
    Ans: (c) Both monetary and non-monetary benefits
  251. When was Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT) abolished in India?
    (a) 2005
    (b) 2009
    (c) 2010
    (d) 2015
    Ans: (b) 2009
  252. What was the reason for abolishing Fringe Benefit Tax (FBT) in India?
    (a) To simplify the tax structure
    (b) To encourage companies to provide more benefits to employees
    (c) To reduce the tax burden on employers
    (d) All of the above
    Ans: (d) All of the above
  253. Which of the following is NOT an example of a direct tax?
    (a) Property Tax
    (b) Wealth Tax
    (c) Excise Duty
    (d) Corporate Tax
    Ans: (c) Excise Duty
  254. Which entity is responsible for collecting Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?
    (a) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
    (b) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBI(c)
    (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
    (d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
    Ans: (b) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBI(c)
  255. Which type of tax is typically paid directly by an individual or organization to the government?
    (a) Indirect Tax
    (b) Direct Tax
    (c) Progressive Tax
    (d) Regressive Tax
    Ans: (b) Direct Tax
  256. Which of the following taxes is considered a direct tax in India?
    (a) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
    (b) Excise Duty
    (c) Corporate Tax
    (d) Customs Duty
    Ans: (c) Corporate Tax
  257. Which category of taxes includes taxes like Value Added Tax (VAT) and Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
    (a) Direct Taxes
    (b) Indirect Taxes
    (c) Progressive Taxes
    (d) Regressive Taxes
    Ans: (b) Indirect Taxes
  258. When was the Fringe Benefits Tax (FBT) abolished in India?
    (a) 2005
    (b) 2009
    (c) 2010
    (d) 2015
    Ans: (b) 2009
  259. What was the purpose of introducing the Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) in India?
    (a) To discourage companies from making profits
    (b) To ensure companies pay a fixed percentage of book profit as tax
    (c) To encourage companies to maximize profits
    (d) To exempt profitable companies from paying taxes
    Ans: (b) To ensure companies pay a fixed percentage of book profit as tax
  260. What is the current rate of Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) in India?
    (a) 15%
    (b) 18.5%
    (c) 20%
    (d) 25%
    Ans: (b) 18.5%
  261. Who is liable to pay Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) in India?
    (a) Companies
    (b) Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs)
    (c) Other forms of business organizations excluding companies and LLPs
    (d) Individuals
    Ans: (c) Other forms of business organizations excluding companies and LLPs
  262. What is the proposed rate of tax for Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT) in India?
    (a) 15%
    (b) 18.5%
    (c) 20%
    (d) 25%
    Ans: (b) 18.5%
  263. What is the main objective of introducing Alternate Minimum Tax (AMT)?
    (a) To discourage profit-linked deductions
    (b) To encourage more companies to convert to LLPs
    (c) To exempt certain business organizations from paying taxes
    (d) To simplify the tax system for companies
    Ans: (a) To discourage profit-linked deductions
  264. Which form of tax is Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT)?
    (a) Direct Tax
    (b) Indirect Tax
    (c) Progressive Tax
    (d) Regressive Tax
    Ans: (a) Direct Tax
  265. Which organization deals with matters related to levying and collecting Direct Taxes in India?
    (a) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
    (b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
    (c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
    (d) Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN)
    Ans: (a) Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
  266. Which tax cannot be shifted to another individual or entity?
    (a) Indirect Tax
    (b) Direct Tax
    (c) Progressive Tax
    (d) Regressive Tax
    Ans: (b) Direct Tax
  267. What is the purpose of levying Fringe Benefits Tax (FBT)?
    (a) To tax employee salaries directly
    (b) To tax company profits
    (c) To tax benefits provided by employers to employees
    (d) To tax investments made by companies
    Ans: (c) To tax benefits provided by employers to employees
  268. What is the duration for which a National Emergency can be in force without parliamentary approval?
    (a) 3 months
    (b) 6 months
    (c) 1 year
    (d) 2 years
    Ans: (b) 6 months
  269. Which branch of government continues to function during a State of Emergency?
    (a) Executive
    (b) Legislative
    (c) Judicial
    (d) Administrative
    Ans: (b) Legislative
  270. Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency?
    (a) Right to Freedom of Speech
    (b) Right to Equality
    (c) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
    (d) Right to Property
    Ans: (c) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
  271. Who was appointed as the first woman officer to lead a frontline combat unit in the Indian Air Force (IAF)?
    (a) Shaliza Dhami
    (b) Avani Chaturvedi
    (c) Mohana Singh
    (d) Bhawana Kanth
    Ans: A [Shaliza Dhami]
  272. Which state achieved a Guinness World Record for the highest number of essays written about a single person?
    (a) Assam
    (b) Gujarat
    (c) West Bengal
    (d) Jharkhand
    Ans: A [Assam]
  273. ‘Foundation of SAARC Writers and Literature (FOSWAL)’ conferred a special literary award on which personality?
    (a) Rabindranath Tagore
    (b) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
    (c) Amartya Sen
    (d) Subramanya Bharati
    Ans: B [Sheikh Mujibur Rahman]
  274. Which Indian state/UT announced the ‘Dr. B R Ambedkar Award’ for recognizing people involved in the welfare of Dalits?
    (a) Tamil Nadu
    (b) Telangana
    (c) Madhya Pradesh
    (d) West Bengal
    Ans: B [Telangana]
  275. Virginia Norwood, who recently passed away, was associated with which field?
    (a) Politics
    (b) Aerospace
    (c) Business
    (d) Sports
    Ans: B [Aerospace]
  276. Who became the first Indian to complete the Golden Globe Race?
    (a) Avani Chaturvedi
    (b) Abhilash Tomy
    (c) Bhawana Kanth
    (d) Mohana Singh Jitarwal
    Ans: B [Abhilash Tomy]
  277. Pablo Picasso, the renowned painter, hailed from which country?
    (a) USA
    (b) France
    (c) Spain
    (d) UAE
    Ans: C [Spain]
  278. Who became the first Indian scientist to be named Fellow of the Royal Society this year?
    (a) Rajeev Varshney
    (b) Ranjit Kher
    (c) Rajendra Singh
    (d) Ratna Sagar
    Ans: A [Rajeev Varshney]
  279. Which state road transport corporation was honored with the UITP Award?
    (a) Tamil Nadu
    (b) Karnataka
    (c) Kerala
    (d) Andhra Pradesh
    Ans: C [Kerala]
  280. Kamala Sohonie, celebrated in a Google Doodle, was the first Indian woman to achieve what distinction?
    (a) Obtain a PhD in a scientific discipline.
    (b) Become an astronaut
    (c) Win the first sports medal
    (d) Receive an Academy Award
    Ans: A [Obtain a PhD in a scientific discipline.]
  281. Who was awarded the prestigious German peace prize?
    (a) Narendra Modi
    (b) Salman Rushdie
    (c) Kamala Harris
    (d) Venus Williams
    Ans: B [Salman Rushdie]
  282. Egypt honored which personality with the ‘Order of the Nile’?
    (a) Ratan Tata
    (b) Narendra Modi
    (c) Droupadi Murmu
    (d) Rajnath Singh
    Ans: B [Narendra Modi]
  283. Who was presented with the ‘Elephant Family environmental award’?
    (a) Kartiki Gonsalves
    (b) A R Rahman
    (c) Resul Pookutty
    (d) Gulzar
    Ans: A [Kartiki Gonsalves]
  284. Who is the recipient of the 41st Lokmanya Tilak Award?
    (a) Narendra Modi
    (b) Amit Shah
    (c) Dr K.Sivan
    (d) Dr.Mayilsamy Annadurai
    Ans: A [Narendra Modi]
  285. Which leader was honored with the ‘Grand Cross of the Legion of Honour’?
    (a) Xi Jinping
    (b) Vladimir Putin
    (c) Narendra Modi
    (d) Volodymyr Zelenskyy
    Ans: C [Narendra Modi]
  286. What is Eunice Newton Foote associated with?
    (a) Nuclear Reactors
    (b) Green House Effect
    (c) Smart Phone
    (d) Artificial Intelligence
    Ans: B [Green House Effect]
  287. The book titled ‘Memories Never Die’ was launched as a tribute to whom?
    (a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
    (b) Abdul Kalam
    (c) Pranab Mukherjee
    (d) Manmohan Singh
    Ans: B [Abdul Kalam]
  288. Which institution developed the ‘Bhartiya Vastra evam Shilp Kosh’ portal?
    (a) TRAI
    (b) NIFT
    (c) National Jute Board
    (d) Central Silk Board
    Ans: B [NIFT]
  289. Who was conferred with the first-ever ‘Udyog Ratna’ award instituted by Maharashtra?
    (a) Ratan Tata
    (b) Lakshmi Mittal
    (c) Mukesh Ambani
    (d) Gautam Adani
    Ans: A [Ratan Tata]
  290. ‘Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awards’ are presented to individuals associated with which profession?
    (a) Sports person
    (b) Scientist
    (c) Social Worker
    (d) Politician
    Ans: B [Scientist]
  291. In which state is Kongthong located, which received the ‘Best Tourism Village (Bronze) Award 2023’?
    (a) Assam
    (b) Meghalaya
    (c) Arunachal Pradesh
    (d) Manipur
    Ans: B [Meghalaya]
  292. Who is known as the ‘Father of Green Revolution’ in India?
    (a) Verghese Kurien
    (b) M S Swaminathan
    (c) Dhyan Chand
    (d) Vikram Sarabhai
    Ans: B [M S Swaminathan]
  293. Namira Salim, recently in the news, hails from which country?
    (a) Malaysia
    (b) Indonesia
    (c) Pakistan
    (d) Bangladesh
    Ans: C [Pakistan]
  294. Which Nobel Prize was awarded in 2023 for the creation of ‘Quantum dots’?
    (a) Physics
    (b) Chemistry
    (c) Physiology
    (d) None of the above
    Ans: B [Chemistry]
  295. Jon Fosse, recipient of the 2023 Nobel Prize in Literature, is from which country?
    (a) USA
    (b) Germany
    (c) Norway
    (d) Australia
    Ans: C [Norway]
  296. Which Union Ministry confers the National Intellectual Property Awards in India?
    (a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
    (b) Ministry of MSME
    (c) Ministry of Finance
    (d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
    Ans: A [Ministry of Commerce and Industry]
  297. Which actor was honored with the ‘Satyajit Ray Excellence in Film Lifetime Award’ of India?
    (a) Michael Douglas
    (b) Morgan Freeman
    (c) Tom Hanks
    (d) Will Smith
    Ans: A [Michael Douglas]
  298. Who was conferred the 53rd Dada Saheb Phalke Award in 2023?
    (a) Kamal Haasan
    (b) Mohan Laal
    (c) Waheeda Rehman
    (d) Manorama
    Ans: C [Waheeda Rehman]
  299. Which metro rail company won the ‘City with Best Green Transport Initiative’ in Urban Mobility India (UMI) Conference?
    (a) Kolkata Metro
    (b) Kochi Metro
    (c) Chennai Metro
    (d) Bengaluru Metro
    Ans: B [Kochi Metro]
  300. Which Indian city has been added to the ‘UNESCO Creative Cities Network’, in the ‘Literature’ category?
    (a) Madurai
    (b) Kozhikode
    (c) Mysuru
    (d) Kurnool
    Ans: B [Kozhikode]

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