Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of Weekly Current affairs.
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Q1. When does the tournament, co-hosted by Australia and New Zealand, begin?
a) July 20, 2023
b) July 15, 2023
c) August 1, 2023
d) July 25, 2023
Answer: a) July 20, 2023
Q.2 Which two countries are co-hosting the World Cup tournament?
a) Australia and South Africa
b) Australia and New Zealand
c) New Zealand and England
d) Australia and India
Answer: b) Australia and New Zealand
Q3. What is the occasion being marked by this tournament?
a) Inaugural World Cup tournament
b) First time co-hosted by Australia and New Zealand
c) Centenary celebration of the World Cup
d) Introduction of new tournament rules
Answer: b) First time co-hosted by Australia and New Zealand
Q4. Which of the following countries has NOT co-hosted a World Cup before?
a) Australia
b) New Zealand
c) England
d) India
Answer: d) India
Q5. How many countries are co-hosting the tournament?
a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) Four
Answer: c) Two
Q6. Which sport’s World Cup is being referred to in the question?
a) Soccer
b) Cricket
c) Rugby
d) Basketball
Answer: b) Cricket
Q7. The co-hosting of the tournament involves which two continents?
a) Asia and Europe
b) Australia and North America
c) Oceania and Asia
d) Australia and Europe
Answer: c) Oceania and Asia
Q8. How often is the World Cup tournament held?
a) Every year
b) Every four years
c) Every three years
d) Every two years
Answer: b) Every four years
Q9. Which team won the previous World Cup edition?
a) Australia
b) New Zealand
c) India
d) England
Answer: c) India
Q10. How many teams will participate in the tournament?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 16
Answer: b) 10
Q11. Which cities will host the opening match of the tournament?
a) Sydney and Wellington
b) Auckland and Brisbane
c) Melbourne and Christchurch
d) Perth and Hamilton
Answer: a) Sydney and Wellington
Q12. What is the name of the trophy awarded to the World Cup winners?
a) ICC Trophy
b) FIFA World Cup Trophy
c) Webb Ellis Cup
d) Cricket World Cup Trophy
Answer: d) Cricket World Cup Trophy
Q13. Which of the following teams won the Cricket World Cup most recently (before the 2023 tournament)?
a) England
b) Australia
c) India
d) New Zealand
Answer: a) England
Q14. How many matches are typically played in the group stage of the World Cup?
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
Answer: c) 40
Q15. Which team has won the most Cricket World Cup titles to date?
a) India
b) Australia
c) West Indies
d) Pakistan
Answer: b) Australia
Q16. The final match of the tournament will take place in which country?
a) Australia
b) New Zealand
c) England
d) India
Answer: b) New Zealand
Q17. What is the official format of the World Cup tournament?
a) Round-robin followed by knockout stage
b) Single elimination
c) Double round-robin
d) Best-of-three series
Answer: a) Round-robin followed by knockout stage
Q18. Which team holds the record for the highest individual score in a World Cup match?
a) Ricky Ponting
b) Sachin Tendulkar
c) Martin Guptill
d) Chris Gayle
Answer: c) Martin Guptill
Q19. In which year was the first Cricket World Cup held?
a) 1975
b) 1983
c) 1992
d) 2003
Answer: a) 1975
Q2. How many overs are bowled per side in a One-Day International (ODI) cricket match during the World Cup?
a) 20
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60
Answer: c) 50
Q21. Which team holds the record for the highest team total in a World Cup match?
a) England
b) India
c) South Africa
d) West Indies
Answer: a) England
Q22. In which year did Australia win their first Cricket World Cup?
a) 1983
b) 1987
c) 1992
d) 1996
Answer: b) 1987
Q23. Who won the “Man of the Tournament” award in the previous World Cup?
a) Virat Kohli
b) Kane Williamson
c) Mitchell Starc
d) Ben Stokes
Answer: c) Mitchell Starc
Q24. Which team was the runner-up in the previous World Cup?
a) New Zealand
b) India
c) England
d) South Africa
Answer: c) England
Q25. The World Cup is organized by which cricket governing body?
a) International Cricket Council (ICC)
b) Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)
c) Cricket Australia (CA)
d) England and Wales Cricket Board (ECB)
Answer: a) International Cricket Council (ICC)
Q26. Which cricketer has scored the most runs in World Cup history?
a) Sachin Tendulkar
b) Ricky Ponting
c) Brian Lara
d) Kumar Sangakkara
Answer: a) Sachin Tendulkar
Q27. How many innings does each team get to bat in a World Cup match?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b) Two
Q28. Who holds the record for the most wickets in World Cup history?
a) Wasim Akram
b) Glenn McGrath
c) Muttiah Muralitharan
d) Shane Warne
Answer: b) Glenn McGrath
Q29. In which city will the tournament’s closing ceremony be held?
a) Auckland
b) Melbourne
c) Sydney
d) Wellington
Answer: c) Sydney
Q30. How many World Cup titles have New Zealand won before co-hosting this tournament?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: a) 0
Q31. Who won the “Player of the Tournament” award in the previous World Cup?
a) Kane Williamson
b) Rohit Sharma
c) Jos Buttler
d) David Warner
Answer: b) Rohit Sharma
Q32. Which cricket stadium will host the most number of matches in this World Cup?
a) Eden Park, Auckland
b) MCG, Melbourne
c) Lord’s, London
d) Sydney Cricket Ground (SCG), Sydney
Answer: d) Sydney Cricket Ground (SCG), Sydney
Q33. What is the total duration of the World Cup tournament, including the group stage and knockout matches?
a) 4 weeks
b) 6 weeks
c) 8 weeks
d) 10 weeks
Answer: b) 6 weeks
Q34. Which team holds the record for the highest partnership in a World Cup match?
a) India
b) Sri Lanka
c) South Africa
d) West Indies
Answer: a) India
Q35. How many umpires officiate in a World Cup match?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c) Three
Q36. Which player has scored the fastest century in World Cup history?
a) AB de Villiers
b) Shahid Afridi
c) Corey Anderson
d) Brendon McCullum
Answer: d) Brendon McCullum
Q37. In which country will the opening ceremony of the World Cup be held?
a) Australia
b) New Zealand
c) Both Australia and New Zealand
d) England
Answer: a) Australia
Q38. What is the prize money awarded to the World Cup-winning team?
a) $1 million
b) $2 million
c) $3 million
d) $4 million
Answer: b) $2 million
Q39. Which team holds the record for the most consecutive World Cup victories?
a) Australia
b) India
c) South Africa
d) Pakistan
Answer: a) Australia
Q40. Which player has the highest batting average in World Cup history?
a) Vivian Richards
b) Steve Smith
c) AB de Villiers
d) Michael Bevan
Answer: d) Michael Bevan
Q41. How many teams will advance to the knockout stage from the group stage?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
Answer: c) 8
Q42. The tournament’s official mascot is named after which native animal of Australia or New Zealand?
a) Koala
b) Kiwi
c) Kangaroo
d) Wombat
Answer: b) Kiwi
Q43. Which team has reached the most World Cup finals without winning the title?
a) New Zealand
b) England
c) South Africa
d) Sri Lanka
Answer: c) South Africa
Q44. How many points are awarded for a win in the group stage of the World Cup?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b) 3
Q45. Which team won the first-ever Cricket World Cup held in 1975?
a) West Indies
b) Australia
c) England
d) India
Answer: c) England
Q46. Which of the following players holds the record for the most dismissals (catches + stumpings) as a wicketkeeper in World Cup history?
a) Adam Gilchrist
b) MS Dhoni
c) Mark Boucher
d) Kumar Sangakkara
Answer: a) Adam Gilchrist
Q47. How many World Cup titles has Australia won before co-hosting this tournament?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: b) 4
Q48. Which city will host the final match of the World Cup?
a) Melbourne
b) Auckland
c) Sydney
d) Wellington
Answer: a) Melbourne
Q49. What is the official hashtag for the tournament on social media platforms?
a) #WorldCup2023
b) #CricketCup2023
c) #AusNZWorldCup
d) #2023Cricket
Answer: c) #AusNZWorldCup
Q50. Who is the official broadcaster for the World Cup tournament?
a) ESPN
b) Sky Sports
c) Star Sports
d) BBC Sports
Answer: c) Star Sports
Q51. When does the registration for Gruha Lakshmi scheme start?
a) 15th July 2023
b) 19th July 2023
c) 21st July 2023
d) 25th July 2023
Answer: b) 19th July 2023
Q52. What is the purpose of the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) To provide financial assistance to elderly citizens
b) To support women entrepreneurs
c) To offer financial aid to women heads of households
d) To provide housing loans to low-income families
Answer: c) To offer financial aid to women heads of households
Q53. Who is eligible to apply for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Men above 50 years of age
b) Women who are not heads of households
c) Women above 60 years of age
d) Women who are heads of households
Answer: d) Women who are heads of households
Q54. Which government launched the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Tamil Nadu Government
b) Maharashtra Government
c) Karnataka Government
d) Kerala Government
Answer: c) Karnataka Government
Q55. What type of financial assistance does the Gruha Lakshmi scheme provide?
a) Education scholarships
b) Monthly pension
c) Housing grants
d) Interest-free loans
Answer: c) Housing grants
Q56. How often is the Gruha Lakshmi scheme open for registration?
a) Once a year
b) Twice a year
c) Every six months
d) Quarterly
Answer: a) Once a year
Q57. Can women from other states apply for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Yes, but only from neighboring states
b) Yes, as long as they are Indian citizens
c) No, only Karnataka residents are eligible
d) Yes, but only with special permission
Answer: b) Yes, as long as they are Indian citizens
Q58. What documents are required for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme application?
a) Aadhar card, PAN card, and Voter ID
b) Birth certificate and passport
c) Income certificate and bank statements
d) Address proof and utility bills
Answer: c) Income certificate and bank statements
Q59. How much financial assistance does the Gruha Lakshmi scheme provide to eligible applicants?
a) Rs. 50,000
b) Rs. 1,00,000
c) Rs. 2,00,000
d) Rs. 5,00,000
Answer: c) Rs. 2,00,000
Q60. What is the mode of application for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Offline only
b) Online only
c) Both online and offline
d) Through authorized agents only
Answer: c) Both online and offline
Q61. What is the age criterion for women to apply for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Above 18 years
b) Above 25 years
c) Above 30 years
d) Above 35 years
Answer: a) Above 18 years
Q62. Can widows apply for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) No, widows are not eligible
b) Yes, but only if remarried
c) Yes, widows are eligible
d) Yes, but only if they have no children
Answer: c) Yes, widows are eligible
Q63. How will the financial assistance be provided under the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Cash payment at the registration center
b) Direct bank transfer to the applicant’s account
c) Cheque payment to the applicant’s address
d) Through demand draft issued in the applicant’s name
Answer: b) Direct bank transfer to the applicant’s account
Q64. Is there any registration fee for applying to the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Yes, a nominal fee of Rs. 100
b) Yes, a fee of Rs. 500
c) No, there is no registration fee
d) It varies based on the applicant’s income
Answer: c) No, there is no registration fee
Q65. What is the last date for registration for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme in 2023?
a) 31st July 2023
b) 15th August 2023
c) 30th September 2023
d) 31st October 2023
Answer: d) 31st October 2023
Q66. Can an applicant apply for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme more than once?
a) Yes, once every two years
b) Yes, but only after five years
c) No, only one-time registration is allowed
d) Yes, as long as the applicant is eligible
Answer: c) No, only one-time registration is allowed
Q67. What is the maximum annual income limit for eligibility under the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Rs. 1,00,000
b) Rs. 2,50,000
c) Rs. 4,00,000
d) Rs. 5,00,000
Answer: c) Rs. 4,00,000
Q68. Can applicants who already own a house apply for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Yes, but they will receive a reduced grant
b) Yes, they are eligible for the full grant amount
c) No, owning a house disqualifies them from the scheme
d) Yes, only if the house is in a dilapidated condition
Answer: c) No, owning a house disqualifies them from the scheme
Q69. How will the beneficiaries be selected for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Through a lottery system
b) First come, first served basis
c) Based on academic qualifications
d) Based on the number of dependents in the household
Answer: a) Through a lottery system
Q70. Can applicants appeal if their Gruha Lakshmi scheme application is rejected?
a) No, appeals are not allowed
b) Yes, but only within 7 days of rejection
c) Yes, within 30 days of rejection
d) Yes, but only if there is new evidence
Answer: c) Yes, within 30 days of rejection
Q71. Are transgender individuals eligible for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Yes, they are eligible without any restrictions
b) No, they are not eligible
c) Yes, but only if they are heads of households
d) Yes, but only if they are above 30 years of age
Answer: a) Yes, they are eligible without any restrictions
Q72. Can the Gruha Lakshmi scheme be availed for home renovation purposes?
a) Yes, but only for minor repairs
b) Yes, for any kind of renovation
c) No, it is strictly for new home purchase
d) Yes, only for eco-friendly renovations
Answer: c) No, it is strictly for new home purchase
Q7.3 What is the maximum number of beneficiaries the Gruha Lakshmi scheme aims to support in 2023?
a) 10,000
b) 25,000
c) 50,000
d) 100,000
Answer: b) 25,000
Q74. Can the Gruha Lakshmi scheme assistance be used for the purchase of land?
a) Yes, for any land purchase
b) Yes, but only agricultural land
c) No, it can only be used for the house purchase
d) Yes, but only for commercial land
Answer: c) No, it can only be used for the house purchase
Q75. What is the minimum percentage of reservation for women from rural areas in the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) 25%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 75%
Answer: b) 40%
Q76. Can women from urban areas apply for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Yes, but only if they belong to the economically weaker section
b) Yes, they are eligible regardless of their economic status
c) No, it is exclusively for rural women
d) Yes, but only if they have dependent children
Answer: b) Yes, they are eligible regardless of their economic status
Q77. What is the duration of the Gruha Lakshmi scheme registration process?
a) One day only
b) One week
c) One month
d) Two months
Answer: d) Two months
Q78. Can applicants submit physical copies of their documents for Gruha Lakshmi registration?
a) No, only digital documents are accepted
b) Yes, but only in special cases
c) Yes, physical copies are acceptable
d) No, applications without digital documents will be rejected
Answer: c) Yes, physical copies are acceptable
Q79. Can the Gruha Lakshmi scheme application be canceled once submitted?
a) Yes, anytime before the draw of lots
b) No, once submitted, it cannot be canceled
c) Yes, but only with a valid reason and approval from the authority
d) Yes, but a cancellation fee will be charged
Answer: b) No, once submitted, it cannot be canceled
Q80. Is the Gruha Lakshmi scheme available for women who are not Indian citizens but reside in Karnataka?
a) Yes, they are eligible
b) No, only Indian citizens can apply
c) Yes, but only if they have a valid visa
d) Yes, but only if they have lived in Karnataka for at least 5 years
Answer: b) No, only Indian citizens can apply
Q81. Can applicants choose the location of the house they wish to purchase under the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Yes, any location of their choice
b) Yes, but only within the district of their residence
c) No, the location will be assigned based on availability
d) Yes, but only in government-approved layouts
Answer: c) No, the location will be assigned based on availability
Q82. What is the process for receiving the Gruha Lakshmi scheme benefits after selection?
a) Applicants receive a cheque on the day of selection
b) Applicants need to submit additional documents for verification
c) The grant amount is directly transferred to the builder/seller’s account
d) Applicants need to pay the full house cost and then claim reimbursement
Answer: c) The grant amount is directly transferred to the builder/seller’s account
Q83. Can applicants apply for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme if they already have a house but wish to buy another one?
a) Yes, but only if they sell the existing house first
b) Yes, as long as the existing house is not in Karnataka
c) No, applicants with existing houses are ineligible
d) Yes, if the existing house is not in the name of the applicant
Answer: c) No, applicants with existing houses are ineligible
Q84. How will the Karnataka Government fund the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Through public donations
b) By diverting funds from other welfare schemes
c) Through a special tax on luxury goods
d) From the state budget allocation
Answer: d) From the state budget allocation
Q85. Can a woman apply for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme if she is a permanent government employee?
a) Yes, as long as her income meets the eligibility criteria
b) No, government employees are not eligible
c) Yes, but only if she is on the verge of retirement
d) Yes, if she works for a government agency other than Karnataka Government
Answer: a) Yes, as long as her income meets the eligibility criteria
Q86 What is the maximum loan amount that can be availed under the Gruha Lakshmi scheme for house purchase?
a) Rs. 2,00,000
b) Rs. 3,00,000
c) Rs. 4,00,000
d) Rs. 5,00,000
Answer: c) Rs. 4,00,000
Q87. Are single mothers eligible to apply for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Yes, but only if they have no other family support
b) No, only married women can apply
c) Yes, single mothers are eligible
d) Yes, but only if they have more than two children
Answer: c) Yes, single mothers are eligible
Q88. Is there an age restriction for the house being purchased under the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Yes, the house should be less than 10 years old
b) Yes, the house should be less than 5 years old
c) No, there is no age restriction for the house
d) Yes, the house should be newly constructed
Answer: c) No, there is no age restriction for the house
Q89. Can applicants get a refund of the Gruha Lakshmi scheme grant if they decide not to proceed with the house purchase?
a) Yes, but only 50% of the grant amount will be refunded
b) No, the grant amount is non-refundable
c) Yes, but only if the applicant withdraws the application before the lottery
d) Yes, if the applicant can provide a valid reason for not proceeding with the purchase
Answer: b) No, the grant amount is non-refundable
Q90. Can the Gruha Lakshmi scheme be availed for the construction of a new house?
a) Yes, for new house construction
b) No, it is only for purchasing an existing house
c) Yes, but only for renovation purposes
d) Yes, for new house construction, but only in rural areas
Answer: b) No, it is only for purchasing an existing house
Q91. Can the Gruha Lakshmi scheme grant be used to cover registration and stamp duty charges?
a) Yes, up to 50% of the grant amount
b) No, these charges are not covered
c) Yes, up to 25% of the grant amount
d) Yes, but only for women from the economically weaker section
Answer: b) No, these charges are not covered
Q92. Can the Gruha Lakshmi scheme application be submitted through a third-party representative?
a) No, applications must be submitted in person
b) Yes, authorized agents can submit applications on behalf of applicants
c) Yes, but only for women with disabilities
d) Yes, for rural applicants, but not for urban applicants
Answer: b) Yes, authorized agents can submit applications on behalf of applicants
Q93. is there any penalty for providing false information in the Gruha Lakshmi scheme application?
a) Yes, a penalty of double the grant amount
b) Yes, applicants may be blacklisted from future schemes
c) No, there is no penalty for false information
d) Yes, a penalty of Rs. 10,000
Answer: b) Yes, applicants may be blacklisted from future schemes
Q94. Can the Gruha Lakshmi scheme benefit be transferred to another person?
a) Yes, but only within the same family
b) No, the benefit is non-transferable
c) Yes, with special permission from the government
d) Yes, if the applicant is not eligible
Answer: b) No, the benefit is non-transferable
Q95. What is the role of the local self-government bodies in the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) To conduct the lottery for beneficiary selection
b) To approve the list of selected beneficiaries
c) To determine the grant amount for each beneficiary
d) To assist in the document verification process
Answer: a) To conduct the lottery for beneficiary selection
Q96. Can the Gruha Lakshmi scheme grant be used for buying commercial property or shops?
a) Yes, for any type of property purchase
b) No, it is exclusively for residential property purchase
c) Yes, but only in designated commercial areas
d) Yes, but only for women who have prior business experience
Answer: b) No, it is exclusively for residential property purchase
Q97. Are women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) families eligible for the Gruha Lakshmi scheme?
a) Yes, but they will receive a reduced grant amount
b) Yes, but only if they have more than two children
c) Yes, women from BPL families are eligible
d) No, BPL families are excluded from the scheme
Answer: c) Yes, women from BPL families are eligible
Q98. Can the Gruha Lakshmi scheme be availed for the purchase of a second-hand house?
a) Yes, but only if the house is not more than 10 years old
b) No, it is only for new houses
c) Yes, there is no restriction on the age of the house
d) Yes, but only if the seller is a Karnataka resident
Answer: b) No, it is only for new houses
Q99. Can applicants change their preferred house location after submitting the Gruha Lakshmi scheme application?
a) Yes, they can make changes until the lottery is conducted
b) No, the preferred location cannot be changed
c) Yes, but only with the approval of the Karnataka Government
d) Yes, but only if there are no other eligible applicants in that location
Answer: b) No, the preferred location cannot be changed
Q100. Is there any provision for reconsideration of the Gruha Lakshmi scheme application after the lottery results are declared?
a) No, lottery results are final and cannot be changed
b) Yes, but only if there is a technical glitch in the lottery process
c) Yes, applicants can appeal if they believe there was an error in the selection
d) Yes, but reconsideration requests are accepted only within 7 days of the lottery
Answer: a) No, lottery results are final and cannot be changed
Q101. When does India commemorate National Broadcasting Day?
a) July 23rd
b) June 23rd
c) August 15th
d) October 2nd
Answer: a) July 23rd
Q102. National Broadcasting Day in India is celebrated to honor which medium of communication?
a) Television
b) Internet
c) Radio
d) Newspapers
Answer: c) Radio
Q103. In which year was the first-ever radio broadcast made in India?
a) 1927
b) 1947
c) 1950
d) 1962
Answer: a) 1927
Q104. Who made the first historic radio broadcast in India?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Rabindranath Tagore
d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer: c) Rabindranath Tagore
Q105. National Broadcasting Day is observed on the birth anniversary of whom?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer: a) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q106. Which radio station made the first broadcast in India?
a) All India Radio (AIR)
b) Radio Mirchi
c) Red FM
d) Radio City
Answer: a) All India Radio (AIR)
Q107. All India Radio (AIR) was formerly known as:
a) Indian Broadcasting Service
b) Radio India
c) Indian Radio Network
d) Indian Broadcasting Network
Answer: a) Indian Broadcasting Service
Q108. What was the theme of the first-ever radio broadcast in India?
a) Independence Struggle and Non-violence
b) National Unity and Harmony
c) Poetry and Literature
d) Music and Arts
Answer: b) National Unity and Harmony
Q109. Which city in India witnessed the first radio broadcast?
a) Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkata
d) Chennai
Answer: c) Kolkata
Q110. Who regulates broadcasting in India?
a) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
b) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)
c) Press Council of India (PCI)
d) Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC)
Answer: a) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Q111. Which year did India allow private FM radio stations to operate?
a) 1990
b) 1995
c) 2000
d) 2005
Answer: d) 2005
Q112. Which is the official broadcasting agency of the Indian government?
a) Doordarshan
b) All India Radio (AIR)
c) Prasar Bharati
d) Indian Broadcasting Corporation (IBC)
Answer: c) Prasar Bharati
Q113. What is the primary language used for radio broadcasts in India?
a) Hindi
b) English
c) Bengali
d) Tamil
Answer: a) Hindi
Q114. Who was the first Director-General of All India Radio (AIR)?
a) Zohra Sehgal
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Ameen Sayani
Answer: b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q115. Which technology is commonly used for AM radio broadcasting in India?
a) Amplitude Modulation
b) Frequency Modulation
c) Phase Modulation
d) Digital Audio Broadcasting
Answer: a) Amplitude Modulation
Q116. Which of the following programs became popular on All India Radio?
a) “Binaca Geetmala”
b) “Yeh Hai Youngistan Meri Jaan”
c) “Radio City Top 20”
d) “Radio Mirchi Murga”
Answer: a) “Binaca Geetmala”
Q117. Which famous personality is associated with the program “Binaca Geetmala”?
a) Ameen Sayani
b) Javed Akhtar
c) Lata Mangeshkar
d) Anu Malik
Answer: a) Ameen Sayani
Q118. In which year did India witness the first community radio station?
a) 1995
b) 2002
c) 2010
d) 2015
Answer: b) 2002
Q119. Community radio stations in India cater to the interests of:
a) Local Communities
b) Urban Youth
c) Political Parties
d) Foreign Audiences
Answer: a) Local Communities
Q120. Which Indian state launched the first community radio station?
a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Rajasthan
d) Gujarat
Answer: a) Kerala
Q121. What was the main purpose behind the establishment of community radio stations in India?
a) Political Propaganda
b) Entertainment for Urban Youth
c) Empowerment of Local Communities
d) Promoting Foreign Culture
Answer: c) Empowerment of Local Communities
Q12.2 All India Radio (AIR) broadcasts programs in how many languages/dialects?
a) 15
b) 22
c) 36
d) 50
Answer: c) 36
Q123. Who is regarded as the “Father of Indian Radio”?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) B. V. Keskar
c) Rabindranath Tagore
d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: b) B. V. Keskar
Q124. What is the primary source of revenue for public service broadcasters like All India Radio?
a) Government Grants
b) Advertising
c) License Fees
d) Donations
Answer: a) Government Grants
Q125. In which year did India witness the first 24-hour radio station?
a) 1985
b) 1990
c) 1995
d) 2000
Answer: a) 1985
Q126. Who was the first voice of Radio Ceylon (SLBC)?
a) Ameen Sayani
b) Melville de Mellow
c) Hamid Sayani
d) K.L. Saigal
Answer: d) K.L. Saigal
Q127. Which popular radio show, hosted by Ameen Sayani, presented the best songs of the week?
a) “Binaca Geetmala”
b) “Top 20 Countdown”
c) “Radio City Super Singer”
d) “Mirchi Music Awards”
Answer: a) “Binaca Geetmala”
Q128. Which radio station is known for its famous tagline “Hulchul Machega”?
a) All India Radio (AIR)
b) Radio Mirchi
c) Big FM
d) Radio City
Answer: c) Big FM
Q129. Which FM radio station is associated with the tagline “City of Smiles”?
a) Radio City
b) Red FM
c) Radio Mirchi
d) Fever FM
Answer: b) Red FM
Q130. Which Indian state has a radio station named “Radio Kashmir”?
a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Rajasthan
c) Kerala
d) Maharashtra
Answer: a) Jammu and Kashmir
Q131. What is the range of FM broadcasting in India?
a) 88.0 to 90.0 MHz
b) 87.5 to 108.0 MHz
c) 92.0 to 94.0 MHz
d) 96.0 to 100.0 MHz
Answer: b) 87.5 to 108.0 MHz
Q132. Which Indian city is known as the “Radio City”?
a) Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkata
d) Chennai
Answer: b) Mumbai
Q133. Which radio station is associated with the tagline “Bajate Raho!”?
a) Radio City
b) Red FM
c) Big FM
d) Radio Mirchi
Answer: b) Red FM
Q134. In which year did India witness the first private FM radio station?
a) 1999
b) 2001
c) 2003
d) 2005
Answer: b) 2001
Q135. Which city in India had the first private FM radio station?
a) Bengaluru
b) Chennai
c) Delhi
d) Mumbai
Answer: a) Bengaluru
Q136. Which famous Indian poet had his own radio show called “Geetmala” on Radio Ceylon?
a) Harivansh Rai Bachchan
b) Javed Akhtar
c) Gulzar
d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Answer: a) Harivansh Rai Bachchan
Q137. Which radio station is associated with the tagline “It’s Hot!”?
a) Radio City
b) Red FM
c) Fever FM
d) Radio Mirchi
Answer: c) Fever FM
Q138. Which of the following radio stations is famous for its humor-driven “Mirchi Murga” segments?
a) All India Radio (AIR)
b) Radio City
c) Red FM
d) Radio Mirchi
Answer: d) Radio Mirchi
Q139. Which Indian city is known for having the oldest radio station?
a) Mumbai
b) Chennai
c) Kolkata
d) Delhi
Answer: c) Kolkata
Q140. Which radio station has a show called “Suhana Safar with Annu Kapoor”?
a) All India Radio (AIR)
b) Big FM
c) Radio Mirchi
d) Red FM
Answer: b) Big FM
Q141. Which of the following is not a famous Indian radio jockey (RJ)?
a) Malishka Mendonsa
b) Naved Khan
c) Amitabh Bachchan
d) Annu Kapoor
Answer: c) Amitabh Bachchan
Q142. What is the full form of AIR in the context of Indian broadcasting?
a) All Indian Radio
b) Association of Indian Radio
c) All India Radio
d) Asian Indian Radio
Answer: c) All India Radio
Q143. Which radio station is associated with the tagline “Dil Se”?
a) Red FM
b) Big FM
c) Radio Mirchi
d) Fever FM
Answer: c) Radio Mirchi
Q144. Who was the first voice of the popular radio show “Hawa Mahal” on Radio Ceylon?
a) Ameen Sayani
b) Roshan Kumari
c) Hamid Sayani
d) K.L. Saigal
Answer: c) Hamid Sayani
Q145. What is the main advantage of radio broadcasting over other mediums?
a) Visual Appeal
b) Real-time Interactivity
c) Global Reach
d) High Fidelity Audio
Answer: c) Global Reach
Q146. Which radio station is associated with the tagline “Filmy Rhythms”?
a) Radio City
b) Red FM
c) Fever FM
d) Radio Mirchi
Answer: d) Radio Mirchi
Q147. Which radio station is known for its iconic “Bajaate Raho!” campaign?
a) Big FM
b) Radio City
c) Red FM
d) Radio Mirchi
Answer: c) Red FM
Q148. Which Indian state has a radio station named “Radio Dhamaal”?
a) Punjab
b) Maharashtra
c) Rajasthan
d) Goa
Answer: c) Rajasthan
Q149. Which radio station is associated with the tagline “Bajaate Raho!”?
a) Radio City
b) Red FM
c) Big FM
d) Radio Mirchi
Answer: b) Red FM
Q150. In which city did the first FM radio station in India start its operations?
a) Delhi
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkata
d) Chennai
Answer: a) Delhi
Q151. What is the initiative launched by the Indian Navy and NWWA, with the support of the G20 Secretariat, called?
a) G20 THINK
b) G20 THOUGHTS
c) G20 THOUGHTFUL
d) G20 THINQ
Answer: d) G20 THINQ
Q152. G20 THINQ is a collaborative effort between which organizations?
a) Indian Navy and NWWA
b) Indian Navy and G20 Secretariat
c) NWWA and G20 Secretariat
d) Indian Navy, NWWA, and G20 Secretariat
Answer: d) Indian Navy, NWWA, and G20 Secretariat
Q153. G20 THINQ initiative aims to address challenges related to which sector?
a) Healthcare
b) Education
c) Maritime Security
d) Information Technology
Answer: c) Maritime Security
Q154. The G20 THINQ initiative promotes collaboration in which area?
a) Climate Change
b) Gender Equality
c) Cybersecurity
d) Space Exploration
Answer: c) Cybersecurity
Q155. Which global forum is providing support to the G20 THINQ initiative?
a) G7
b) United Nations
c) G20
d) European Union
Answer: c) G20
Q156. G20 THINQ aims to enhance cooperation among navies to combat challenges in which regions?
a) Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
b) Mediterranean and Indian Oceans
c) Indian and Pacific Oceans
d) Indian and Southern Oceans
Answer: c) Indian and Pacific Oceans
Q157. The G20 THINQ initiative is focused on strengthening which aspect of maritime security?
a) Counter-piracy operations
b) Environmental protection
c) Disaster relief efforts
d) Trade facilitation
Answer: a) Counter-piracy operations
Q158. Which organization within India’s Navy is actively involved in the G20 THINQ initiative?
a) Indian Naval Academy
b) Indian Naval Air Arm
c) Indian Naval Special Forces
d) Indian Maritime Security Force
Answer: c) Indian Naval Special Forces
Q159. G20 THINQ encourages the sharing of which type of intelligence among participating nations?
a) Economic forecasts
b) Military strategies
c) Technological innovations
d) Maritime threat assessments
Answer: d) Maritime threat assessments
Q160. The G20 THINQ initiative promotes mutual understanding and trust through which means?
a) Joint military exercises
b) Cultural exchanges
c) Trade agreements
d) Sports tournaments
Answer: b) Cultural exchanges
Q161. Which continent will be the primary focus of the G20 THINQ initiative’s operations?
a) Africa
b) Asia
c) Europe
d) Australia
Answer: b) Asia
Q162. The G20 THINQ initiative aims to combat illegal activities in which maritime domain?
a) Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs)
b) Territorial Waters
c) High Seas
d) International Waters
Answer: c) High Seas
Q163. Which of the following is NOT a core objective of the G20 THINQ initiative?
a) Promoting regional stability
b) Enhancing disaster response capabilities
c) Facilitating humanitarian aid
d) Ensuring unrestricted navigation
Answer: c) Facilitating humanitarian aid
Q164. The G20 THINQ initiative emphasizes the importance of which international law for maritime security?
a) International Law of the Sea
b) International Humanitarian Law
c) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
d) Convention on Biological Diversity
Answer: a) International Law of the Sea
Q165. Which nation will host the inaugural meeting of the G20 THINQ initiative?
a) India
b) United States
c) China
d) Japan
Answer: a) India
Q166. The G20 THINQ initiative encourages the development and sharing of best practices in which domain?
a) Space Technology
b) Maritime Infrastructure
c) Counterterrorism
d) Public Health
Answer: b) Maritime Infrastructure
Q167. G20 THINQ envisions the creation of a secure and stable maritime environment to facilitate what?
a) International trade
b) Deep-sea exploration
c) Ecotourism
d) Transcontinental shipping
Answer: a) International trade
Q168. In addition to naval forces, G20 THINQ aims to involve which other stakeholders in its activities?
a) Environmental NGOs
b) Private corporations
c) International media organizations
d) Local governments
Answer: b) Private corporations
Q169. The G20 THINQ initiative supports research and development in which maritime-related area?
a) Alternative energy sources
b) Aquaculture
c) Oceanography
d) Air transportation
Answer: c) Oceanography
Q170. What is the overall vision of the G20 THINQ initiative?
a) Creating a conflict-free maritime world
b) Ensuring equal access to marine resources
c) Promoting sustainable maritime development
d) Establishing a global navy alliance
Answer: c) Promoting sustainable maritime development
Q171. The G20 THINQ initiative emphasizes the role of women in which aspect of maritime security?
a) Peacekeeping missions
b) Humanitarian aid distribution
c) Diplomatic negotiations
d) Leadership and decision-making
Answer: d) Leadership and decision-making
Q172. The G20 THINQ initiative will foster maritime security cooperation through which type of engagements?
a) Annual summits
b) Virtual conferences
c) Biennial exercises
d) Weekly webinars
Answer: b) Virtual conferences
Q173. The G20 THINQ initiative aligns with which United Nations Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)?
a) SDG 4: Quality Education
b) SDG 5: Gender Equality
c) SDG 13: Climate Action
d) SDG 16: Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions
Answer: d) SDG 16: Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions
Q174. G20 THINQ envisions the establishment of which communication platform for participating nations?
a) Maritime Hotline
b) Naval Messaging System
c) Cybersecurity Network
d) Digital Information Exchange
Answer: a) Maritime Hotline
Q175. The G20 THINQ initiative will conduct joint exercises to enhance proficiency in which aspect of naval operations?
a) Anti-submarine warfare
b) Satellite communication
c) Port management
d) Marine pollution control
Answer: a) Anti-submarine warfare
Q176. G20 THINQ aims to promote responsible maritime behavior through which means?
a) Trade sanctions
b) Legal enforcement
c) Multilateral treaties
d) Public awareness campaigns
Answer: d) Public awareness campaigns
Q177. The G20 THINQ initiative encourages the development of which type of technological capabilities?
a) Stealth technology
b) Renewable energy
c) Marine robotics
d) Nuclear propulsion
Answer: c) Marine robotics
Q178. What is the primary objective of G20 THINQ’s information-sharing initiatives?
a) Counterterrorism intelligence
b) Cyber threat monitoring
c) Maritime domain awareness
d) Economic espionage prevention
Answer: c) Maritime domain awareness
Q179. The G20 THINQ initiative aims to address challenges posed by which illegal maritime activity?
a) Drug trafficking
b) Oil drilling
c) Deep-sea mining
d) Shark finning
Answer: a) Drug trafficking
Q180. G20 THINQ will conduct joint exercises to strengthen cooperation against which maritime security threats?
a) Human trafficking
b) Biological warfare
c) Smuggling of cultural artifacts
d) Illegal fishing
Answer: d) Illegal fishing
Q181. The G20 THINQ initiative encourages which form of international maritime cooperation?
a) Research and development partnerships
b) Joint patrolling of territorial waters
c) Surveillance of marine ecosystems
d) Sharing of classified intelligence
Answer: a) Research and development partnerships
Q182. G20 THINQ envisions the establishment of which type of centers for capacity building?
a) Marine biodiversity centers
b) Maritime law enforcement centers
c) Environmental protection centers
d) Cultural heritage preservation centers
Answer: b) Maritime law enforcement centers
Q183. The G20 THINQ initiative will emphasize the use of advanced technology for which purpose?
a) Border control
b) Maritime surveillance
c) Oil exploration
d) Space exploration
Answer: b) Maritime surveillance
Q184. What is the significance of the “THINQ” in the initiative’s name?
a) It represents intelligence and knowledge-sharing.
b) It stands for “Technology and Innovations for Naval Quest.”
c) It refers to the Think Tanks supporting the initiative.
d) It symbolizes the quest for global peace and stability.
Answer: a) It represents intelligence and knowledge-sharing.
Q185. G20 THINQ aims to facilitate regional stability through cooperation in which area?
a) Energy security
b) Nuclear disarmament
c) Wildlife conservation
d) Border demarcation
Answer: a) Energy security
Q186. Which international organization will serve as a knowledge-sharing platform for the G20 THINQ initiative?
a) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
b) World Health Organization (WHO)
c) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
Answer: c) International Maritime Organization (IMO)
Q187. G20 THINQ’s focus on counter-piracy operations aims to ensure the safety of which stakeholders?
a) Cargo ships
b) Passenger ferries
c) Fishermen at sea
d) Offshore oil rigs
Answer: a) Cargo ships
Q188. The G20 THINQ initiative aims to enhance which maritime capability among participating nations?
a) Naval diplomacy
b) Marine tourism
c) Offshore mining
d) Maritime law enforcement
Answer: d) Maritime law enforcement
Q189. What role does NWWA play in the G20 THINQ initiative?
a) Technology development
b) Humanitarian assistance
c) Gender equality promotion
d) Cybersecurity monitoring
Answer: c) Gender equality promotion
Q190. G20 THINQ aims to prevent the proliferation of which illegal maritime activity?
a) Human smuggling
b) Whale hunting
c) Coral reef destruction
d) Gold smuggling
Answer: a) Human smuggling
Q191. The G20 THINQ initiative seeks to ensure the unhindered passage of ships through which strategic waterway?
a) Panama Canal
b) Suez Canal
c) Strait of Hormuz
d) English Channel
Answer: c) Strait of Hormuz
Q192. Which of the following regions will NOT be directly impacted by the G20 THINQ initiative’s activities?
a) Arabian Sea
b) South China Sea
c) Baltic Sea
d) Mediterranean Sea
Answer: c) Baltic Sea
Q193. G20 THINQ aims to enhance coordination between navies for which purpose?
a) Antarctic exploration
b) Disaster relief operations
c) Humanitarian corridors
d) Arctic sovereignty
Answer: b) Disaster relief operations
Q194. The G20 THINQ initiative will emphasize which principle for addressing maritime challenges?
a) Inclusivity
b) Isolationism
c) Exclusivity
d) Exceptionalism
Answer: a) Inclusivity
Q195. G20 THINQ will encourage the sharing of best practices in which aspect of maritime security?
a) Naval warfare
b) Maritime law enforcement
c) Commercial shipping
d) Maritime archaeology
Answer: b) Maritime law enforcement
Q196. The G20 THINQ initiative aims to foster mutual trust through which form of exchange?
a) Information exchange
b) People-to-people exchanges
c) Nuclear disarmament
d) Counterterrorism intelligence
Answer: b) People-to-people exchanges
Q197. G20 THINQ promotes the importance of which technological aspect for maritime domain awareness?
a) Satellite communication
b) Underwater acoustics
c) Solar energy
d) Artificial intelligence
Answer: d) Artificial intelligence
Q198. The G20 THINQ initiative will focus on enhancing which capability of participating navies?
a) Naval aviation
b) Amphibious warfare
c) Mine countermeasures
d) Submarine warfare
Answer: c) Mine countermeasures
Q199. G20 THINQ will foster collaboration between navies to combat threats posed by which non-state actors?
a) Pirate gangs
b) Environmental activists
c) Drug cartels
d) Territorial separatists
Answer: a) Pirate gangs
Q200. How does the G20 THINQ initiative aim to contribute to global security?
a) By establishing a naval blockade
b) By promoting international cooperation
c) By initiating preemptive military strikes
d) By enforcing trade embargoes
Answer: b) By promoting international cooperation
Q201. What has the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced for auction?
a) Corporate Bonds
b) Treasury Bills and State Development Loans (SDLs)
c) Equity Shares
d) Municipal Bonds
Answer: b) Treasury Bills and State Development Loans (SDLs)
Q202. The announced T-bill yield for a three-month maturity is:
a) 6.71%
b) 6.83%
c) 6.86%
d) 6.94%
Answer: a) 6.71%
Q203. What are the maturities for which the T-bill yields are announced?
a) One-month, three-month, and six-month
b) Three-month, six-month, and 364-day
c) Six-month, nine-month, and 12-month
d) 364-day, 1-year, and 2-year
Answer: b) Three-month, six-month, and 364-day
Q204. The yield for the 364-day T-bill maturity is:
a) 6.71%
b) 6.83%
c) 6.86%
d) 6.94%
Answer: c) 6.86%
Q205. How many states are expected to participate in the auction?
a) 5
b) 8
c) 11
d) 15
Answer: c) 11
Q206. Which of the following states is NOT mentioned as a participant in the auction?
a) Punjab
b) Rajasthan
c) Gujarat
d) West Bengal
Answer: c) Gujarat
Q207. The T-bill with the highest yield is for what maturity?
a) Three-month
b) Six-month
c) 364-day
d) 12-month
Answer: c) 364-day
Q208. The T-bill yield for a six-month maturity is:
a) 6.71%
b) 6.83%
c) 6.86%
d) 6.94%
Answer: b) 6.83%
Q209. Which institution is conducting the auction of T-bills and SDLs?
a) Ministry of Finance, India
b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
d) World Bank
Answer: b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Q210. What are SDLs?
a) Securities Depository Licenses
b) State Development Loans
c) Structured Debt Liabilities
d) Savings and Deposits Liabilities
Answer: b) State Development Loans
Q211. What is the purpose of conducting the auction?
a) To promote foreign investments
b) To reduce inflation
c) To raise funds for the government
d) To regulate exchange rates
Answer: c) To raise funds for the government
Q212. The T-bill with the lowest yield is for what maturity?
a) Three-month
b) Six-month
c) 364-day
d) One-year
Answer: a) Three-month
Q213. What is the total number of T-bill maturities mentioned in the announcement?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b) 3
Q214. Which of the following is NOT a maturity option for T-bills in the auction?
a) One-month
b) Three-month
c) Six-month
d) One-year
Answer: d) One-year
Q215. What are the investment options available in the auction?
a) Only T-bills
b) Only SDLs
c) T-bills and SDLs
d) T-bills, SDLs, and corporate bonds
Answer: c) T-bills and SDLs
Q216. The announced yield for a three-month T-bill is:
a) 6.71%
b) 6.83%
c) 6.86%
d) 6.94%
Answer: a) 6.71%
Q217. Which district in Odisha is Naveen Patnaik’s home constituency from where he contests elections?
a) Bhubaneswar
b) Cuttack
c) Puri
d) Kendrapara
Answer: d) Kendrapara
Q218. What are the investment options available in the auction?
a) Only T-bills
b) Only SDLs
c) T-bills and SDLs
d) T-bills, SDLs, and corporate bonds
Answer: c) T-bills and SDLs
Q219. Before entering politics, what profession was Naveen Patnaik primarily involved in?
a) Journalism
b) Business
c) Medicine
d) Law
Answer: b) Business
Q220. What is the tenure of the longest T-bill maturity?
a) Three months
b) Six months
c) Nine months
d) 364 days
Answer: d) 364 days
Q221. Which of the following institutions regulates the functioning of RBI in India?
a) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
b) Ministry of Finance
c) World Bank
d) Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)
Answer: b) Ministry of Finance
Q222. The T-bill with the highest yield belongs to which maturity?
a) Three months
b) Six months
c) Nine months
d) 364 days
Answer: d) 364 days
Q223. The Reserve Bank of India is responsible for the issuance and management of which currency in India?
a) Euro
b) US Dollar
c) Indian Rupee
d) British Pound
Answer: c) Indian Rupee
Q224. Who sets the T-bill yields in India?
a) Ministry of Finance
b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Answer: b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Q225. Which of the following states is NOT mentioned as a participant in the auction?
a) Punjab
b) Rajasthan
c) Kerala
d) West Bengal
Answer: c) Kerala
Q226. Which of the following states is NOT mentioned as a participant in the auction?
a) Punjab
b) Rajasthan
c) Kerala
d) West Bengal
Answer: c) Kerala
Q227. On which day did Naveen Patnaik break the record of Jyoti Basu as the second longest-serving Chief Minister?
a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Sunday
Answer: d) Sunday
Q228. What is the total number of maturities available for SDLs in the auction?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b) 3
Q229. The T-bill with the lowest yield is for which maturity?
a) Three months
b) Six months
c) 364 days
d) 12 months
Answer: a) Three months
Q230. Naveen Patnaik has been the Chief Minister of Odisha for how many years and days as of the record-breaking event?
a) 20 years and 72 days
b) 21 years and 109 days
c) 23 years and 139 days
d) 22 years and 185 days
Answer: c) 23 years and 139 days
| Daily Current Affairs 2023 | Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2023 |
| Weekly Current Affairs 2023 | Monthly Current Affairs 2023 |
