ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | August 4th Week 2023

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Q1. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to?

(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.

(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.

(c) Impose censorship on the national press.

(d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States

 

S1.Ans.(d)

Sol. The Butler Committee (1927) was set up to examine the nature of the relationship between the states and the Government. Hence “D” is the fitting answer

 

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) Cotton:

1. It contains foreign genes derived from the soil-dwelling bacterium.
2. It produces insecticidal proteins referred to as Cry proteins.
3. It does not affect the survival of other caterpillar pests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S2.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: All Bt cotton plants contain one or more foreign genes derived from the soil-dwelling bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis; thus, they are transgenic plants.

Statement 2 is correct: The insertion of the genes from B. thuringiensis causes cotton plant cells to produce crystal insecticidal proteins, often referred to as Cryproteins. These insecticidal proteins are effective in killing some of the most injurious caterpillar pests of cotton, such as the larvae of tobacco budworms and bollworms.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Bt cotton also reduces survival of other caterpillar pests such as beet armyworms, cabbage loopers, cotton leafperforators, fall armyworms, southern armyworms, and soybean loopers. The protection it provides against tobacco budworms, pink bollworms, and European corn borers is greater than the protection provided by the most effective foliar insecticides. The preservation of the Bt technology is critical because

(1) bollworms, tobacco budworms, and pink bollworms continue to develop resistance to foliar applied insecticides,

(2) use of insecticides is tied to ecological concerns, and

(3) Bt genes are valuable resources.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to the Nagpur Satyagraha of 1923 :

1. It was held under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. People from different parts of the nation came to Nagpur.
3. The satyagrahis were encouraged to hoist the national flag without resisting arrest or retaliating against police.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 

S3.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Nagpur Satyagraha of 1923 is the Flag Satyagraha, also called the Jhanda Satyagraha. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel led it at Nagpur in the year 1923. Hence, it was not held under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Jamnalal Bajaj, Chakravarthi Rajagopalachari, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, and Vinoba Bhave organized the revolt thousands of people from different regions, including from south of the Princely state of Travancore, traveled to Nagpur and other parts of the Central Provinces that is the present states like Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh to participate in civil disobedience. Therefore, people from different parts of the nation came to Nagpur. So, Statement 2 is correct. The satyagrahis were encouraged to hoist the national flag without resisting arrest or retaliating against police, even though the British government deployed a heavy police force. They ignored the probable danger and they were even ready to sacrifice their lives and hoisted the flag in Victoria Town Hall, Jabalpur. And after that, flags were hoisted at several places across the country. So, Statement 3 is correct.

 

Q4. Considering the following statements with respect to H3N2 influenza

1. It is a type of influenza virus that can cause respiratory illness in humans.
2. It is also known as the Hong Kong flu and replicates the symptoms of the common cold.

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

H3N2 Influenza H3N2, a subtype of Influenza A virus, is currently on the rise across India, with hundreds of people displaying flu and viral infection symptoms.

• H3N2 influenza, also known as the “Hong Kong flu,” is a type of influenza virus that can cause respiratory illness in humans.
• It is a subtype of the Influenza A virus and has been responsible for several influenza outbreaks in the past.
• H3N2 viruses can infect birds, mammals, humans, and pigs and the virus has mutated into many strains.
• The influenza virus has many similarities to the Covid virus, as both of them have an impact on the respiratory system.
• The currently recommended drugs for the H3N2 virus are seltamivir, zanamivir, peramivir, and baloxavir.

 

Q5. Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation of the term ‘Tax Multiplier’?

1. It is a measure of the effect of government spending on the GDP of the country.
2. It is a measure of the effect of change in tax rates on the GDP of the country.
3. It is a measure of the effect of tax rates on the personal disposable income of a person.
4. It is the impact of the number of multiple taxes on the prices of goods and services.

 

S5.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Option a is incorrect A fiscal multiplier measures the effect that increases in government spending will have on a real Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

Option b is correct. Tax multiplier is a measure of the effect of tax rates on the real GDP of the country. A tax cut (increase) will cause an increase (reduction) in consumption and output. It is always less than the fiscal multiplier because an increase in government spending directly affects total spending whereas the tax multiplier enters the picture only through their impact on disposable income, which influences household consumption.

Option c is incorrect. The income tax rate will either increase or decrease the personal disposal income. The higher the tax rate, lower the personal disposable income and vice versa. Going by the definition of tax multiplier it is incorrect as it is restricted to individual income. Option d is incorrect. The impact of multiple taxes on the prices of goods and services is known as cascading of taxes.

 

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Great Indian Bustards:

1. It’s IUCN status is critically endangered
2. In India, the bustard is restricted to isolated pockets in Rajasthan and Gujarat only
3. Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary and Karera Wildlife Sanctuary are declared protected areas for GIBI

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S6.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Great Indian Bustards (GIB):

In India, the bustard is restricted to isolated pockets in Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. It is the state bird of Rajasthan. Protected areas Desert National Park Sanctuary — Rajasthan Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary – Andhra Pradesh Karera Wildlife Sanctuary– Madhya Pradesh IUCN status: critically endangered. Listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and in the CMS Convention, and in Appendix I of CITES.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Press Council of India (PCI)

1. It cannot penalize newspapers, news agencies, editors, and journalists for violation of the guidelines.
2. It has the power to review the functioning of electronic media like radio, television, and internet media

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S7.Ans.(a)

Sol.

What are the limitations on the powers of the PCI?

The powers of the PCI are restricted in two ways.

(1) The PCI has limited powers of enforcing the guidelines issued.  It cannot penalize newspapers, news agencies, editors, and journalists for violation of the guidelines.

(2) The PCI only overviews the functioning of press media.  That is, it can enforce standards upon newspapers, journals, magazines, and other forms of print media.

It does not have the power to review the functioning of electronic media like radio, television, and internet media.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)’

1. NISAR will be a Sun Synchronous Orbit observatory jointly developed by NASA and ISRO
2. NISAR will be the first satellite mission to use two different radar frequencies to measure changes in our planet’s surface

Select the correct statement(s)

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct NASA-ISRO SAR (NISAR) will be launched into a polar Sun-synchronous dawn-dusk orbit (crossing the poles, trailing Earth’s shadow to remain in a perpetual sunrise or sunset). It is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) observatory being jointly developed by NASA and ISRO. NISAR will map the entire globe in 12 days and provide spatially and temporally consistent data for understanding changes in Earth’s ecosystems, ice mass, vegetation biomass, sea level rise, ground water and natural hazards including earthquakes, tsunamis, volcanoes and landslides. This would be the first dual frequency radar imaging mission in L-Band & S-Band using an advanced Sweep SAR technique to provide L & S band space-borne SAR data with high repeat cycle, high resolution, and larger swath, with capability of full-polar metric and interferometric modes of operation. It carries L and S dual band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR), which operates with Sweep SAR technique to achieve large swath with high resolution data.

 

Q9.  Consider the following statements regarding deflation in an economy,

1. It is a period when prices of goods and services decline.
2. It harms borrowers who are bound to pay their debts in money that is worth more than the money they borrowed.
3. It can be caused due to fall in the supply of money and credit without a corresponding decrease in economic output.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Deflation is a general decline in prices for goods and services. During deflation, the purchasing power of currency rises over time. Deflation is usually associated with a contraction in the supply of money and credit, but prices can also fall due to increased productivity and technological improvements. So, statement 1 is correct.

In particular, deflation can harm borrowers (i.e debtors and not creditors), who can be bound to pay their debts in money that is worth more than the money they borrowed, as well as any financial market participants who invest or speculate on the prospect of rising prices. So, statement 2 is correct.

The major contributor to this deflationary period is when the supply of money and credit falls, without a corresponding decrease in economic output, then the prices of all goods tend to fall. Also decreased government spending and increased consumer savings are causes of the situation among others. So, statement 3 is correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

 

Q10. Consider the following pairs :

Shipping Canal Country

1. Corinth Canal : Spain
2. Mittelland Canal : Germany
3. Danube-Black Sea Canal : Romania

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Corinth Canal is an artificial canal in Greece, connecting the Gulf of Corinth in the Ionian sea

and the Saronic Gulf in the Aegean Sea, the Corinth Canal goes through the narrow Isthmus of Corinth and divides the Peloponnese from the Greek mainland. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.

Mittelland canal is the longest canal in Germany and the country’s most important transport hub. It connects the Rhine with major waterways of the state, including the Elbe, Ems, Weser and Oder rivers. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

The Danube–Black Sea Canal is a navigable canal in Romania. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.  In addition to connecting the Danube River to the Black Sea, this shipping canal also in a way interlinks the Black Sea to the North Sea through the Danube-Main-Rhine channel, offering a maritime passage to Eastern Europe by way of the Volga-Don canal.

 

Q11.  Consider the following statements regarding National Emblem

1. The constitution of India adopted the 4 lions of the Sarnath pillar as the national emblem
2. article 51A states that its the duty of every citizen of India: to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag National emblem, and the National Anthem
3. To change the national Emblem, it requires approval by both the Houses.
4. The central govt does not have the power to adopt different National Emblem.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1,2 and 4
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1,2,3 and 4

 

S11.Ans.(c)

Sol.

The State Emblem of India (Prohibition of Improper Use) Act, 2005, and the State Emblem of India (Regulation of Use) Rules, 2007, which specifically deal with our state emblem.

There is no emblem set out in the Constitution of India. The emblem design is set out in Appendix I and II of the 2005 Act. Amending the Act, the government can have a new emblem if it so desires. According to the 2005 Act, the State Emblem of India is as described and specified in the schedule to be used as an official seal of the government. The schedule of the Act states that the State Emblem of India is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Asoka which is preserved and shall conform to the designs as set out in Appendix I or Appendix II. According to this provision, the government has the power to make changes in the design of the emblem. And not a change of the state emblem itself. Though the constitution as such doesn’t have any specific provisions dealing with this, Article 51A, as well as National Honors Act, specifically defines how an Indian should respect and honor our national symbols which include the flag and national anthem as well

 

 

Q12.Consider the following statements

3. Fishes and reptiles are cold-blooded while amphibians are warm-blooded creatures.
4. Unlike amphibians, both reptiles and fishes have scales.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S12.Ans.(b)

Sol.

• Fishes, reptiles and amphibians are cold blooded creatures or Poikilothermic. It means that they cannot regulate their own body temperature. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Both reptiles and fishes have scales while amphibians don’t have them. Amphibians have moist skin. So, statement 2 is correct.

 

Q13. Consider the following statements with respect to Magellan Spacecraft

1. It is the first deep space probe launched by NASA.
2. The mission will explore Mars’ upper atmosphere and ionosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S13.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Magellan Spacecraft

• Magellan, named after the Portuguese explorer Ferdinand Magellan (1480-1521)
• Objective – To map the surface of Venus with a synthetic aperture radar (SAR) and to determine the topographic relief of the planet.
• It was the first spacecraft to image the entire surface of Venus and made several discoveries of the planet.
• Magellan found that at least 85% of the Venusian surface is covered with volcanic flows.
• The spacecraft’s data suggested that despite the high surface temperatures and high atmospheric pressures, the complete lack of water makes erosion an extremely slow process on the planet.
• As a result, surface features can persist for hundreds of millions of y ears.
• In addition, the spacecraft found that such phenomena as continental drift are not evident on the planet.
• Its imagery contributed to the best high-resolution radar maps of Venus’ surface to date.

 

Q14. Consider the following statements with respect to SEED scheme

1. It aims to improve the stock of farm saved seeds for enhancing crop productivity.
2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S14.Ans.(d)

Sol.

SEED Scheme

• It is a scheme for Economic Empowerment of Denotified Tribes (DNT) Communities (SEED) launched in 2022 for next 5 years.
• It is a Central Sector Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

o Components – To provide coaching of good quality for DNT candidates to enable them to appear in competitive examinations

o To provide Health Insurance to them o To facilitate livelihood initiative at community level

o To provide financial assistance for construction of houses for members of these communities.

• One important feature of this scheme is the online portal which has been developed by the Department.
• This portal will ensure seamless registration and will also act as a repository of the data on these communities.
• The portal is very user friendly and easily accessible on mobile phone with its mobile application.
• It will provide real time status of the application to the applicant.
• The pay ment to the beneficiaries will be made directly in to their accounts.

 

Q15. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the

Constitution of India?

1. Article 14
2. Article 28
3. Article 32
4. Article 44

S15.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Option a is the correct answer.

Article 14 of Indian Constitution says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’. This concept has the following three elements or aspects: 1) Absence of arbitrary power 2) Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens to the ordinary law of the land 3) The constitution is the result of the rights of the individual The first and the second elements are applicable to India. This means ‘equality before law’ under Article 14 connotes the absence of arbitrary power with the authorities. Thus, when a legislation confers uncontrolled discretionary powers on any authority, it tends to violate the article 14 of the constitution.

 

Q16. Consider the following statements with respect to Lightning:

1. Lightning happens when the protons in the bottom of the cloud are attracted to the neutrons in the ground.
2. Most lightning flashes are a result of negativelycharged leaders, called stepped leaders.
3. Stepped leaders start to develop when charge differences in the cloud become too less.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 only

S16.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Lightning

• Lightning happens when the negative charges (electrons) in the bottom of the cloud are attracted to the positive charges (protons) in the ground.
• Most lightning flashes are a result of negativelycharged leaders, called stepped leaders.
• These leaders develop downward in quick steps.
• Each step is typically about 50 meters (150 ft) in length.
• Stepped leaders tend to branch out as they seek a connection with the positive charge on the ground.
• Stepped leaders start to develop when charge differences in the cloud become too large.
• When this happens, the insulating capacity of the air breaks down and the negative charge starts moving downward.

 

Q17.Which of the following are part of either SAARC nations Or BIMSTEC

1. Maldives
2. Myanmar
3. Afghanistan
4. Thailand
5. Indonesia

Select the correct code from below:

1. 1,2,3
2. 2,3,4,5
3. 1,2,3,4,5
4. 1,2,3,4

 

S17.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka are part of the SAARC grouping.

The BIMSTEC member states – Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand –

 

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding is not a tribal movement?

1. Chuar Uprising0
2. Khasis’ Revolt
3. Parlakimedi Outbreak

Select the correct code from below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 3 only
3. 1and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The Chuars aboriginal tribesmen were prominent especially in the hills between Barabhum and Ghatsila. 1768, Jagannath Singh, the zamindar of Ghatsila, went up in arms, along with thousands of Chuars. In 1771, the Chuar sardars, Shyam Ganjan of Dhadka, Subla Singh of Kaliapal and Dubraj rose in rebellion.

Khasis’ Revolt (the 1830s; hilly region between Jaintia and Garo Hills); led by the Nunklow ruler, Tirath Singh; against the occupation of the hilly region.

Parlakimedi Outbreak (1813-34) was a civil uprising. Parlakimedi, situated on the western border of the Ganjam district (now in Odisha), witnessed resistance from the zamindars and rajas. Narayan Deo, supported by his son and brothers, revolted.

Q19. Which of the following states are covered under the Pennar river basin?

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Telangana
3. Karnataka
4. Tamil Nadu

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S19.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Pennar river basin is located in peninsular India, and it extends over the states of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka having an area of 55,213 Sq.km with maximum length and width of 433 km and 266 km. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

The fan-shaped basin is bounded by the Erramala range on the north, by the Nallamala and Velikonda ranges of the Eastern Ghats on the east, by the Nandidurg hills on the south, and by the narrow ridge separating it from the Vedavati valley of the Krishna Basin on the west. The other hill ranges in the basin to the south of the river are the Seshachalam and Paliconda ranges.

The Pennar (also known as Uttara Pinakini) is one of the major rivers of the peninsula. The Pennar rises in the Chenna Kasava hill of the Nandidurg range, in the Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka and flows towards the east, and eventually drains into the Bay of Bengal in the Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh.

The principal tributaries of the river joining from the left are the Jayamangali, the Kunderu, and the Sagileru whereas the Chiravati, the Papagni, and the Cheyyeru join it from the right.

 

Q20. Consider the following pairs:

Waterfalls: Rivers

1. Dhuandhar : Narmada River
2. Shivasamudram: Cauvery River

3.Kanchenjunga water falls : Tista river

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

 

S20.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Dhuandhar Falls:

The Dhuandhar Falls is located on the Narmada River in Bhedaghat and are 30 meters high. The Narmada River, making its way through the world-famous Marble Rocks, narrows down and then plunges into a waterfall known as Dhuandhar. The plunge, which creates a bouncing mass of mist, is so powerful that its roar can be heard from a far distance. The white marble rocks appear spectacular when the moonlight falls on them, rendering them a silvery appearance. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

Shivanasamudra Falls:

The Shivanasamudra Falls is on the Kaveri River after the river has found its way through the rocks and ravines of the Deccan Plateau and drops off to form waterfalls. The island town of Shivanasamudra divides the river into twin waterfalls. This creates the fourth-largest island in the course of the river. o This is a segmented waterfall. Segmented waterfalls occur where the water flow is broken into two or more channels before dropping over a cliff, resulting in multiple sides by side waterfalls. It has an average width of 305 metres and a height of 98 m. It is a perennial waterfall. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

Kanchenjunga Waterfalls:

At a distance of 10 km from Yuksom and 24 km from Pelling, Kanchenjunga Waterfalls is a stunning waterfall situated in the beautiful hill town of Pelling, Sikkim. It is one of the largest waterfalls in Sikkim and among the prime Pelling Tourist Places.

Kanchenjunga Falls is a perennial waterfall and it is believed that the pristine waterfall originates high up in the glaciers of Mount Kanchenjunga, the 3rd highest peak in the world. It gushes down from a height of 100 feet into a pool. Kanchenjunga falls was not known to people and remained untouched till the 90s. It only came into the limelight, when a local tour operator named Topjor Bhutia accidentally discovered it. Today this spot become one of the leading tourist spots in West Sikkim. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

 

Q21. Which of the following organizations designed the ‘Green Economy Initiative’?

(a) The Food and Agriculture Organisation

(b) The United Nations Environment Programme

(c) The World Bank

(d) World Resources Institute

 

S21.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) has launched a Green Economy Initiative, which seeks to respond to the global economic downturn by focusing on economic growth and job creation in environmental industries.

The initiative launched in 2008, in London, UK, is funded by the European Commission, Germany and Norway. It builds on the G8+5 study on the Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity(TEEB), which emphasized the economic implications of ecosystem degradation and biodiversity loss, as well as their link to poverty.

The US$4 million Green Economy Initiative will look to clean and rural energy and technologies, sustainable agriculture, ecosystem infrastructure, reduced emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, and sustainable cities to promote its priorities, which include valuing and mainstreaming nature’s services, generating employment through green jobs and policy, and accelerating the transition to a green economy via instruments and market signals.

Within UN Environment, the green economy initiative produces a Green Economy Report and related research materials, which will analyze the macroeconomic, sustainability, and poverty reduction implications of green investment in a range of sectors from renewable energy to sustainable agriculture and provide guidance on policies that can catalyze increased investment in these sectors.

Under the initiative UNEP also Provides advisory services on ways to move towards a green economy in specific countries and engaged in a wide range of research, non-governmental organizations, business, and UN partners in implementing the Green Economy Initiative. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

 

Q22. Consider the following statements regarding Sadar Nizamat Adalat

1. It was The highest court of appeal for civil cases
2. It was to function under an Indian judge appointed by the Governor-in-Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

 

S22.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Judicial Reforms were undertaken by warren Hastings:

To hear appeals from the district courts two appellate courts, one for civil cases and another for criminal cases, were established at Calcutta. The highest civil court of appeal was called Sadar Diwani Adalat, which was to be presided over by the Governor and two judges recruited from among the members of his council. Similarly, the highest appellate criminal court was known as Sadar Nizamat Adalat which was to function under an Indian judge appointed by the Governor-in-Council.

 

Q23. Consider the following pairs:

1. Dragonfly Mission: Jupiter’s moon Titan
2. Artemis Mission: Moon
3. New Horizons Mission : Pluto

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S23.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Dragonfly is a NASA mission to Saturn’s largest moon Titan scheduled to launch in 2027.

The Artemis program is a robotic and human Moon exploration program led by the United States’ National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) along with three partner agencies: European Space Agency (ESA), Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), and Canadian Space Agency (CSA). New Horizons is a NASA mission to study the dwarf planet Pluto, its moons, and other objects in the Kuiper Belt, a region of the solar system that extends from about 30 AU, near the orbit of Neptune, to about 50 AU from the Sun.

 

Q24. Consider the following statements regarding National Logistics Policy 2022:

1. It aims to lower the cost of logistics from the current 10% of GDP to less than 5% by the year 2050.
2. India aims to be among the top 25 countries in the LPI (Logistics Performance Index) by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S24.Ans.(b)

Sol.

The National Logistics Policy has been launched recently. It provides a comprehensive agenda to develop the entire logistics ecosystem. The policy has been formulated with two major visions. o The first is to reduce logistics cost in India by 5 percentage points of GDP over the next 5 years (from current 13-14% of GDP to 8-9% of GDP). Hence statement 1 is not correct

The three targets of NLP are:

First, to reduce the cost of logistics in India to be comparable to global benchmarks by 2030.

Second, improve the Logistics Performance Index ranking, to be among the top 25 countries by 2030. According to the World Bank Logistics Index of 2018, India is ranked 44th in logistics cost. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Third, create a data-driven decision support mechanism for an efficient logistics ecosystem

 

  Q25. Consider the following statements:

1. MPs from each party necessarily have to obey the whip.
2. A party whip serves the function of gauging the opinion of the members, and communicating it to party leaders.
3. A one-line whip directs MPs to be present during the vote.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3.

 

S25.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct

Political parties issue whips to their MPs to either vote for or against the bill, depending on their party line. Once the whip is issued, the MPs from each party will necessarily have to obey the whip or else risk losing their seat in Parliament

Statement 2 is correct

The whip is an official appointed to maintain discipline among, secure attendance of, and give necessary information to, members of his party.

• They are expected to be a channel of communication between the political party and the members of the party in the legislature.
• They also serve the function of gauging the opinion of the members, and communicating it to party leaders.

Statement 3 is not correct There can be 3 Types of Whips

• A one-line whip, underlined once, is usually issued to inform party members of a vote, and allows them to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line.
• A two-line whip directs them to be present during the vote.
• A three-line whip is the strongest, employed on important occasions such as the second reading of a Bill or a no-confidence motion, and places an obligation on members to toe the party line