The Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission (OSSSC) exams for Revenue Inspector (RI), Assistant Revenue Inspector (ARI), and Amin are pivotal in determining a candidate’s placement in Odisha’s governmental framework. Preparing for these exams requires diligence, strategic study, and consistent practice. To aid in your preparation, we bring you a comprehensive Weekly Practice Quiz tailored for the OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin exams, focusing on August thematic areas.
Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August-1
Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August
- What were the earliest Indian coins called?
(a) Casted coins
(b) Die-struck coins
(c) Punch marked coins
(d) Stamped coins
Answer: (c) Punch marked coins - During which period were punch marked coins first minted?
(a) 6th century AD
(b) 2nd century AD
(c) 6th century BC
(d) 2nd century BC
Answer: (c) 6th century BC - Which Indian text mentions the process of making punch marked coins?
(a) Arthashastra
(b) Manusmriti
(c) Ashtadhyayi
(d) Jataka stories
Answer: (c) Ashtadhyayi - Which region’s punch marked coins featured a humped bull symbol?
(a) Saurashtra
(b) Dakshin Panchala
(c) Magadha
(d) Gandhara
Answer: (a) Saurashtra - During which dynasty were punch marked coins known as Karshapanas minted?
(a) Mauryan
(b) Gupta
(c) Kushan
(d) Satavahana
Answer: (a) Mauryan - Which symbols were most consistent on Mauryan Karshapanas?
(a) Bull and Swastika
(b) Elephant and Wheel
(c) Sun and Six-armed Wheel
(d) Lion and Lotus
Answer: (c) Sun and Six-armed Wheel - During which period did the Indo-Greeks rule in India?
(a) 500 BC – 200 AD
(b) 180 BC – 10 AD
(c) 200 BC – 300 AD
(d) 300 BC – 500 AD
Answer: (b) 180 BC – 10 AD - What was significant about Indo-Greek coins?
(a) Bilingual legends in Greek and Latin
(b) Images of Indian deities only
(c) Use of lead as the primary metal
(d) Detailed information about issuing monarchs
Answer: (d) Detailed information about issuing monarchs - Which Indian dynasty introduced portrait heads on coins?
(a) Mauryan
(b) Gupta
(c) Kushan
(d) Satavahana
Answer: (c) Kushan - Which material did the Satavahana kings predominantly use for their coins?
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Potin (silver-copper alloy)
(d) Lead
Answer: (d) Lead - Which metal was primarily used for Gupta coins?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Bronze
Ans: a) Gold - Who introduced silver coins in the Gupta period?
a) Samudragupta
b) Chandragupta I
c) Chandragupta II
d) Skandagupta
Ans: c) Chandragupta II - What was depicted on one side of Gupta gold coins?
a) Goddess Lakshmi
b) King performing rituals
c) Images of deities
d) All of the above
Ans: b) King performing rituals - Which script was used for inscriptions on Gupta coins?
a) Kharosthi
b) Brahmi
c) Devanagari
d) Pali
Ans: b) Brahmi - Gupta coins are noted for depicting rulers in which activities?
a) Martial and leisure activities
b) Religious ceremonies
c) Administrative duties
d) Agricultural practices
Ans: a) Martial and leisure activities - Q6. What led to the decline of Gupta coinage?
a) Roman invasion
b) Hun invasion
c) Persian conquest
d) Chinese intervention
Ans: b) Hun invasion - Which dynasty succeeded the Guptas in Northern India?
a) Vardhanas
b) Cholas
c) Rashtrakutas
d) Pallavas
Ans: a) Vardhanas - What was depicted on the reverse side of Vardhana silver coins?
a) King’s head
b) Peacock
c) Lotus
d) Bull
Ans: b) Peacock - Which dynasty’s coins featured a temple or lion image?
a) Chalukyas
b) Rashtrakutas
c) Pandyas
d) Pallavas
Ans: a) Chalukyas - Rajput coins often depicted:
a) Goddess Saraswati
b) Seated bull
c) Dancing Shiva
d) Buddha
Ans: b) Seated bull - Pandyas’ early coins featured which animal?
a) Elephant
b) Horse
c) Lion
d) Fish
Ans: a) Elephant - What was inscribed on Chola coins in Sanskrit?
a) King’s name
b) Queen’s name
c) Prime Minister’s name
d) None of the above
Ans: a) King’s name - Turkish and Delhi Sultanate coins avoided depicting:
a) Animals
b) Monarchs
c) Weapons
d) Deities
Ans: b) Monarchs - Who introduced the silver Tanka and copper Jital?
a) Iltutmish
b) Alauddin Khilji
c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
d) Sher Shah Suri
Ans: a) Iltutmish - Which emperor introduced the rupee and dam currency?
a) Akbar
b) Babur
c) Sher Shah Suri
d) Humayun
Ans: c) Sher Shah Suri - Vijayanagara Empire coins were predominantly made of:
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Iron
Ans: a) Gold - Mughal coins under Akbar included which new religious creed?
a) Jainism
b) Buddhism
c) Christianity
d) Din-i-Illahi
Ans: d) Din-i-Illahi - Jahangir’s coins are famous for featuring:
a) Zodiac signs
b) Floral patterns
c) Geometric shapes
d) Islamic calligraphy
Ans: a) Zodiac signs - Sher Shah Suri’s coinage introduced which weight standards?
a) 100 grains for silver, 200 grains for copper
b) 150 grains for silver, 300 grains for copper
c) 178 grains for silver, 330 grains for copper
d) 200 grains for silver, 400 grains for copper
Ans: c) 178 grains for silver, 330 grains for copper - The Coinage Act of 2011 replaced which earlier legislation?
a) Coinage Act, 1906
b) Coinage Act, 1952
c) Coinage Act, 1985
d) Coinage Act, 2000
Ans: a) Coinage Act, 1906 - When was the idea of cleaning the Ganga river initiated by the Government of India?
(a) 1986
(b) 1979
(c) 1985
(d) 1993
Answer: (b) 1979 - Who directed the Ganga Action Plan when it was launched?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Arun Jaitley
(d) Narendra Modi
Answer: (b) Rajiv Gandhi - Which authority was established under the Ganga Action Plan to oversee its implementation?
(a) Central Pollution Control Board
(b) National River Conservation Directorate
(c) Central Ganga Authority
(d) National Ganga Council
Answer: (c) Central Ganga Authority - Under which act was the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) established as a registered society?
(a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
(b) Societies Registration Act, 1860
(c) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(d) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
Answer: (b) Societies Registration Act, 1860 - What was the primary objective of the Ganga Action Plan when it was launched in 1985?
(a) Increase fish population in Ganga
(b) Improve the water quality of Ganga to acceptable standards
(c) Promote tourism along Ganga
(d) Build dams on the Ganga
Answer: (b) Improve the water quality of Ganga to acceptable standards - Which of the following is an example of an exogenic geomorphic process?
(a) Volcanism
(b) Diastrophism
(c) Erosion
(d) Earthquake
Ans. (c) Erosion - The process by which the earth’s surface is reshaped through rock movements and displacement is termed as:
(a) Weathering
(b) Erosion
(c) Diastrophism
(d) Deposition
Ans. (c) Diastrophism - What is the main source of energy responsible for endogenic geomorphic processes?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Radioactivity
(d) Ocean currents
Ans. (c) Radioactivity - Which of the following processes is not included under mass wasting?
(a) Rock falls
(b) Rock slides
(c) Frost wedging
(d) Slump
Ans. (c) Frost wedging - The alternate expansion and contraction of minerals in the rocks due to temperature variations lead to:
(a) Carbonation
(b) Oxidation
(c) Granular disintegration
(d) Hydration
Ans. (c) Granular disintegration - Which geomorphic agent is most responsible for the formation of caves?
(a) Wind
(b) Running water
(c) Ocean currents
(d) Glaciers
Ans. (b) Running water - What is the primary driver behind exogenic geomorphic processes like weathering and erosion?
(a) Internal heat of the Earth
(b) Gravitational stresses
(c) Biological activities
(d) Human activities
Ans. (b) Gravitational stresses - The formation of a dome-shaped monolith through the breaking away of curved layers of rock is known as:
(a) Frost wedging
(b) Block disintegration
(c) Exfoliation
(d) Solution
Ans. (c) Exfoliation - Which of the following factors is not directly involved in soil formation?
(a) Parent material
(b) Topography
(c) Ocean currents
(d) Climate
Ans. (c) Ocean currents - What type of weathering occurs when oxygen combines with water and iron, causing rock disintegration?
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Carbonation
(c) Oxidation
(d) Hydration
Ans. (c) Oxidation - Which of the following river systems is the longest in India?
(a) Indus River System
(b) Ganga River System
(c) Brahmaputra River System
(d) Yamuna River System
Ans. (a) Indus River System - What is the length of the Brahmaputra River System within India?
(a) 2900 km
(b) 1114 km
(c) 916 km
(d) 2510 km
Ans. (c) 916 km - Which river system has a total length equal to its length within India?
(a) Ganga River System
(b) Yamuna River System
(c) Narmada River System
(d) Tapi River System
Ans. (a) Ganga River System - The Yamuna River System is a major tributary of which river?
(a) Brahmaputra River System
(b) Godavari River System
(c) Indus River System
(d) Ganga River System
Ans. (d) Ganga River System - What is the total length of the Narmada River System?
(a) 1376 km
(b) 1312 km
(c) 1400 km
(d) 1465 km
Ans. (b) 1312 km - The Tapi River System flows through which of the following states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(c) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(d) Punjab and Haryana
Ans. (a) Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra - The Godavari River System is often referred to as the ‘Dakshina Ganga’. What is its length?
(a) 724 km
(b) 1400 km
(c) 805 km
(d) 1465 km
Ans. (d) 1465 km - Which of the following river systems is the shortest in length?
(a) Krishna River System
(b) Cauvery River System
(c) Mahanadi River System
(d) Tapi River System
Ans. (d) Tapi River System - The Krishna River System is crucial for which two Indian states?
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
(b) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(c) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(d) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (d) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh - What is the length of the Cauvery River System within India?
(a) 851 km
(b) 805 km
(c) 724 km
(d) 1376 km
Ans. (b) 805 km - What is the definition of climate change?
(a) The periodic modification of Earth’s climate due to interactions between the atmosphere and geological factors.
(b) Sudden changes in weather patterns caused by human activities.
(c) The seasonal variation in temperature and precipitation.
(d) A phenomenon exclusive to tropical regions.
Answer: (a) The periodic modification of Earth’s climate due to interactions between the atmosphere and geological factors. - Which of the following is NOT a natural factor affecting climate change?
(a) Continental Drift
(b) Volcanism
(c) Changes in Earth’s Orbit
(d) Greenhouse Gas emissions
Answer: (d) Greenhouse Gas emissions - How does volcanic activity influence climate change?
(a) By emitting greenhouse gases that trap heat in the atmosphere.
(b) By releasing aerosols that reflect sunlight, cooling the Earth.
(c) By causing deforestation and land use changes.
(d) By increasing global ocean temperatures.
Answer: (b) By releasing aerosols that reflect sunlight, cooling the Earth. - What is the primary cause of anthropogenic climate change?
(a) Changes in Earth’s Orbit
(b) Solar radiation management
(c) Greenhouse gas emissions
(d) Continental drift
Answer: (c) Greenhouse gas emissions - How does a shift in land-use pattern contribute to climate change?
(a) By reducing solar energy absorption.
(b) By increasing forest cover.
(c) By reducing aerosol emissions.
(d) By increasing solar energy absorption and altering atmospheric moisture levels.
Answer: (d) By increasing solar energy absorption and altering atmospheric moisture levels. - Great Blue Hole is located in which country?
(a) The Bahamas
(b) Barbados
(c) Argentina
(d) Belize
Ans: (d) Belize - Which of the following statements about Primary producers are correct?
1. Primary producers are basically green plants.
2 They synthesize carbohydrates from simple inorganic raw materials.
3. Primary producers are absent in Aquatic Ecosystems.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) Only 3
Ans: (b) Only 1 & 2 - Which of the following is not a factor affecting climate?
(a) Distance from the sea
(b) Ocean currents
(c) Soil fertility
(d) Elevation
Ans: (c) Soil fertility - Which of the following factors contributes to the formation of local winds?
(a) Latitude
(b) Elevation
(c) Vegetation
(d) Ocean currents
Ans: (b) Elevation - Which of the following refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time (more than thirty years).
(a) Weather
(b) Climate
(c) Season
(d) Temperature
Ans: (b) Climate - Due to the curvature of the earth, the amount of solar energy received varies according to ______________?
(a) Longitude
(b) Latitude
(c) Climatic Zones
(d) Altitude
Ans: (b) Latitude - Which is considered as the wettest place on the earth?
(a) Mawsynram
(b) Amazon
(c) Antarctica
(d) West Bengal
Ans: (a) Mawsynram - Which of the following statements are correct?
1.The pyramid of biomass may assume an inverted form in many aquatic ecosystems.
2.Producers in the aquatic ecosystems are tiny phytoplanktons that grow and reproduce rapidly.
3. The pyramid of biomass (inverted) has a small base, with the consumer biomass at any instant actually exceeding the producer biomass.
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: (d) 1, 2 & 3 - The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in which year?
(a) 2008
(b) 2010
(c) 2012
(d) 2014
Ans: (b) 2010 - Who appoints the Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT)?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Central Government
Ans: (d) Central Government - Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?
(a) Solar
(b) Wind
(c) Nuclear
(d) Hydropower
Ans: (c) Nuclear - Which of the following is a biotic component of the ecosystem?
(a) Temperature
(b) Light
(c) Soil
(d) Plants
Ans: (d) Plants - The ozone layer is found in which layer of the atmosphere?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Ans: (b) Stratosphere - Which gas is primarily responsible for the greenhouse effect?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen
Ans: (c) Carbon dioxide - What is the process by which plants lose water through their leaves?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Transpiration
(d) Evaporation
Ans: (c) Transpiration - Which of the following best describes an ecosystem?
(a) A group of organisms of the same species living in the same area
(b) The physical and biological components of an environment interacting
(c) A community of different species living together in an area
(d) The genetic variation within a population
Ans: (b) The physical and biological components of an environment interacting - Which of the following is an example of a primary consumer?
(a) Lion
(b) Hawk
(c) Grasshopper
(d) Mushroom
Ans: (c) Grasshopper - Which of the following is an abiotic factor in an ecosystem?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Temperature
(d) Plants
Ans: (c) Temperature - What term describes the maximum population size that an environment can support?
(a) Carrying capacity
(b) Limiting factor
(c) Ecological footprint
(d) Population density
Ans: (a) Carrying capacity - In which of the following biomes would you find the greatest biodiversity?
(a) Desert
(b) Tundra
(c) Tropical rainforest
(d) Grassland
Ans: (c) Tropical rainforest - Which of the following is not a method of soil conservation?
(a) Crop rotation
(b) Contour plowing
(c) Deforestation
(d) Terracing
Ans: (c) Deforestation - Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Coal
(d) Geothermal energy
Ans: (c) Coal - What is the main cause of soil erosion?
(a) Planting trees
(b) Water and wind
(c) Use of fertilizers
(d) Overgrazing by livestock
Ans: (b) Water and wind - Which type of pollution is caused by excessive nutrients in water bodies?
(a) Thermal pollution
(b) Radioactive pollution
(c) Eutrophication
(d) Noise pollution
Ans: (c) Eutrophication - Which of the following is the most significant contributor to acid rain?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Sulfur dioxide
(c) Methane
(d) Ozone
Ans: (b) Sulfur dioxide - Which gas is produced by the decomposition of organic matter in the absence of oxygen?
(a) Methane
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Argon
Ans: (a) Methane - What is the primary cause of deforestation in the Amazon rainforest?
(a) Urbanization
(b) Agriculture
(c) Mining
(d) Road construction
Ans: (b) Agriculture - Which of the following is a factor influencing the distribution of vegetation and wildlife in India?
(a) Temperature
(b) Altitude
(c) Rainfall
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - The climate of the northeastern states of India is influenced by:
(a) Bay of Bengal
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Himalayan mountains
Ans: (d) Himalayan mountains - highest annual range of temperature is found in which type of climate?
(a) Tropical rainforest
(b) Desert
(c) Mediterranean
(d) Steppe
Ans: (b) Desert - Which of the following types of laser is used in laser printers?
(a) Semiconductor laser
(b) Excimer laser
(c) Dye laser
(d) Gas laser
Ans. (a) Semiconductor laser - Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?
(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electron
(d) Nucleus
Ans. (c) Electron - What medication has the FDA approved for treating Alzheimer’s disease recently?
(a) Lecanemab
(b) COVID-19 variant
(c) Plant-based nutrient
(d) Bio Ethanol variant
Ans. (a) Lecanemab - In which country were the fossils of the smallest known extinct penguin species discovered?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) New Zealand
(d) Philippines
Ans. (c) New Zealand - What is unique about the exoplanet LTT9779b discovered by astronomers?
(a) It is the most reflective planet
(b) It is the farthest planet
(c) It is the biggest planet
(d) It is the heaviest planet
Ans. (a) It is the most reflective planet - Which institution has developed a flexible composite semiconductor material using inkjet printing?
(a) IISc Bengaluru
(b) IIT Guwahati
(c) IIT Bombay
(d) IIT Madras
Ans. (a) IISc Bengaluru - Which company launched the ChatGPT rival Bard in the European Union, Brazil, and other nations?
(a) Google
(b) Microsoft
(c) Apple
(d) Nokia
Ans. (a) Google - Which internet ransomware virus prompted CERT-In to issue an advisory?
(a) Agata
(b) Akira
(c) Aira
(d) Alima
Ans. (b) Akira - What is the name of the new forum created by OpenAI, Microsoft, Google, and Anthropic?
(a) Frontier Model Forum
(b) Learning Model Forum
(c) Knowledge Model Forum
(d) Public Model Forum
Ans. (a) Frontier Model Forum - Which part of the human body stores Glycogen?
(a) Liver
(b) Intestine
(c) Pancreas
(d) Skin
Ans. (a) Liver - What is Blood Plasma called when fibrinogen is removed?
(a) Fibrin
(b) Thrombin
(c) Serum
(d) Collagen
Ans. (c) Serum - Who is known as the father of Botany?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Greco-Roman
(c) Theophrastus
(d) Carl Linnaeus
Ans. (c) Theophrastus - Which acid is predominantly found in grapes, bananas, and tamarind?
(a) Lactic Acid
(b) Oxalic Acid
(c) Salicylic Acid
(d) Tartaric Acid
Ans. (d) Tartaric Acid - Which cells have the ability to develop into any type of cell?
(a) Endothelial
(b) Endodermal
(c) Stem
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) Stem - What are the building blocks of the human body?
(a) Muscles
(b) Cells
(c) Neurons
(d) Proteins
Ans. (b) Cells - Which salt in water causes “Blue Baby Syndrome”?
(a) Sulphates
(b) Chlorides
(c) Carbonates
(d) Nitrates
Ans. (d) Nitrates - Which type of coal has the highest carbon content?
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Anthracite
(d) Bituminous
Ans. (c) Anthracite - What are Vitamins A, D, and C also known as respectively?
(a) Retinol, Ascorbic Acid, Calciferol
(b) Retinol, Calciferol, Ascorbic Acid
(c) Pyridoxal, Calciferol, Ascorbic Acid
(d) Ascorbic Acid, Pyridoxal, Calciferol
Ans. (b) Retinol, Calciferol, Ascorbic Acid - What is a chloroplast without a cell wall called?
(a) Aleuroplast
(b) Amyloplast
(c) Protoplast
(d) Photoplast
Ans. (c) Protoplast - Which virus is known as the “Hit & Hide” virus?
(a) RSV Virus
(b) Dengue virus
(c) Influenza virus
(d) HIV virus
Ans. (a) RSV Virus - Which of the following are chemical agents used in war?
(a) Mustard Gas, Phosgene
(b) Sarin, VX
(c) Mustard Gas, Sarin
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above - Which vitamin is essential for good vision and a healthy immune system?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin B
Ans. (a) Vitamin A - What is the main source of antioxidants in wine?
(a) Tartaric Acid
(b) Oxalic Acid
(c) Salicylic Acid
(d) Lactic Acid
Ans. (a) Tartaric Acid - Which element is critical for maintaining the color, taste, and texture of wine?
(a) Lactic Acid
(b) Oxalic Acid
(c) Tartaric Acid
(d) Salicylic Acid
Ans. (c) Tartaric Acid - What is the main cause of “Blue Baby Syndrome” in infants?
(a) Sulphates in water
(b) Chlorides in water
(c) Carbonates in water
(d) Nitrates in water
Ans. (d) Nitrates - What is the smallest unit of life in the human body?
(a) Muscle
(b) Cell
(c) Neuron
(d) Protein
Ans. (b) Cell - Which coal type has the fewest impurities?
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Anthracite
(d) Bituminous
Ans. (c) Anthracite - What is the scientific name for Vitamin C?
(a) Retinol
(b) Calciferol
(c) Ascorbic Acid
(d) Pyridoxal
Ans. (c) Ascorbic Acid - Which virus causes infections in the lungs and respiratory tract and is also known as “Hit & Hide”?
(a) RSV Virus
(b) Dengue virus
(c) Influenza virus
(d) HIV virus
Ans. (a) RSV Virus - What type of cell can replace damaged or lost cells and tissues?
(a) Endothelial
(b) Endodermal
(c) Stem
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) Stem - Since independence, India has been known as a ‘mixed economy’. Which sector has been primarily responsible for providing employment and revenue to the economy?
(a) Private Sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Agriculture Sector
(d) Service Sector
Ans. (b) Public Sector - India’s share in global exports and imports increased from 0.7% and 0.8% respectively in 2000 to which of the following percentages in 2012 according to WTO estimates?
(a) 1.7% and 2.0%
(b) 1.5% and 2.2%
(c) 1.7% and 2.5%
(d) 1.8% and 2.3%
Ans. (c) 1.7% and 2.5% - Post-independence, Indian economy was highly inspired by which country’s practices, leading to a growth rate termed as ‘Hindu Growth Rate’?
(a) USA
(b) Soviet Union
(c) China
(d) Japan
Ans. (b) Soviet Union - In which year did India usher into the liberalization regime, leading to a new upward trend in the economy referred to as ‘New Hindu Growth Rate’?
(a) 1982
(b) 1985
(c) 1991
(d) 1992
Ans. (d) 1992 - Which sector is the major source of economic growth in India, accounting for more than half of its output with less than one third of its labour force?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Services
(d) Handicrafts
Ans. (c) Services - As of 2013-14, what was India’s per capita income at current prices?
(a) Rs. 64920
(b) Rs. 69920
(c) Rs. 74920
(d) Rs. 79920
Ans. (c) Rs. 74920 - What percentage of India’s GDP was contributed by the tertiary sector in 2012-13?
(a) 54%
(b) 56%
(c) 58%
(d) 60%
Ans. (b) 56% - In the first half of calendar year 2015, which country saw the highest FDI inflow for new projects, surpassing America and China?
(a) Brazil
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) Japan
Ans. (c) India - What was the total size of India’s foreign exchange reserve in 2015?
(a) $300 billion
(b) $320 billion
(c) $330 billion
(d) $340 billion
Ans. (c) $330 billion - According to the Rangarajan panel, what percentage of India’s population was estimated to live below the poverty line in 2011-12?
(a) 21.9%
(b) 25.5%
(c) 29.5%
(d) 35.0%
Ans. (c) 29.5% - The Balance of Payments (BOP) is a systematic statement of all economic transactions of a country with the rest of the world during a specific period. Which accounting method is used for BOP?
(a) Single-entry book-keeping
(b) Double-entry book-keeping
(c) Cash accounting
(d) Accrual accounting
Ans. (b) Double-entry book-keeping
The Balance of Payments (BOP) is calculated to understand the strength and weaknesses of the economy in international relations. - Which of the following is NOT a purpose of calculating BOP?
(a) Analyzing overall gains and losses from international trade
(b) Giving warning signals for future policy formation
(c) Determining internal budget allocations
(d) Knowing the composition and direction of international trade
Ans. (c) Determining internal budget allocations - Which of the following accounts is NOT a part of the Balance of Payments?
(a) Current Account
(b) Capital Account
(c) Financial Account
(d) Savings Account
Ans. (d) Savings Account - What is recorded in the Current Account of the BOP?
(a) Inflows and outflows of capital
(b) International capital transfers
(c) Export and import of goods and services
(d) Government-owned assets
Ans. (c) Export and import of goods and services - In the BOP, if a country has received money, this transaction is known as:
(a) Debit
(b) Credit
(c) Deficit
(d) Surplus
Ans. (b) Credit - Which component of the Current Account includes worker’s remittances and foreign aids?
(a) Merchandise trade
(b) Services
(c) Receipts from income-generating assets
(d) Unilateral transfers
Ans. (d) Unilateral transfers - The Capital Account of the BOP deals with:
(a) Export and import of goods
(b) Monetary flows related to business investments
(c) Inflows and outflows of capital
(d) Government-owned assets
Ans. (c) Inflows and outflows of capital - What does the Financial Account in the BOP include?
(a) Acquisition or disposal of non-financial assets
(b) Government-owned assets such as foreign reserves
(c) Transfers of ownership on fixed assets
(d) All international capital transfers
Ans. (b) Government-owned assets such as foreign reserves - When a country’s exports exceed its imports, the BOP is referred to as:
(a) Balanced BOP
(b) Unfavorable BOP
(c) Surplus BOP
(d) Deficit BOP
Ans. (c) Surplus BOP - A country experiencing a current account deficit that is financed by the capital account is:
(a) Foregoing goods and services for more capital assets
(b) Foregoing capital assets for more goods and services
(c) Increasing its foreign reserves
(d) Reducing its international investments
Ans. (b) Foregoing capital assets for more goods and services - In which year was the concept of MSP introduced in India?
(a) 1966
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 2000
Ans. a
Explanation: The concept of Minimum Support Price was first introduced for wheat in 1966-67. - How much is the MSP for wheat in 2021?
(a) Rs 2000 per quintal
(b) Rs 2015 per quintal
(c) Rs 1000 per quintal
(d) Rs 4000 per quintal
Ans. b
Explanation: The Government of India has recently hiked the minimum support price for wheat by Rs 40 making it INR 2015 per quintal now. - For how many crops does the Government fix the MSP for in India currently?
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 25
Ans. c
Explanation: Currently, the government fixes MSPs for 23 crops grown in both kharif and rabi seasons. - The minimum support price is
(a) The price at which farmers sell their crops to the food business companies
(b) The price at which the people of the place can buy crops from farmers
(c) The price at which the Government buys grains from the farmers
(d) The price at which the crops can be exported
Ans. c
Explanation: MSP is the rate at which the government buys the grain from farmers. - Which month does the Rabi season begin?
(a) January
(b) June
(c) October
(d) March
Ans. c
Explanation: The Rabi crops are sown in the month of October. - What is the recent MSP of the mustard crop fixed by the Government of India?
(a) ₹ 2000 per quintal
(b) ₹ 5050 per quintal
(c) ₹ 5000 per quintal
(d) ₹ 2980 per quintal
Ans. b
Explanation: The Government has hiked the mustard price by INR 400 to make it ₹5,050 per quintal.
Who fixes the Minimum Support Price for the crops? - (a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
(b) Parliament of India
(c) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(d) NITI Ayog
Ans. a
Explanation: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs based on the recommendations of CACP fixes the MSP. - Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop?
(a) Guar
(b) Jowar
(c) Mustard
(d) Paddy
Ans. c
Explanation: Mustard is a Rabi crop and not a Kharif crop. - Which among the following is a Rabi crop?
(a) Barley
(b) Gram
(c) Masoor
(d) All of the above
Ans. d
Explanation: Rabi crops include crops like barley, wheat, gram, safflower, lentils including masoor etc. - In which of the following months is the Kharif crop harvested?
(a) August
(b) June
(c) October
(d) January
Ans. c - Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee for the Indian Constitution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Ans: (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar - Which committee was responsible for drafting the provisions related to the central government in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Drafting Committee
(b) Union Power Committee
(c) Provincial Constitution Committee
(d) States Committee
Ans: (b) Union Power Committee - Who chaired the Provincial Constitution Committee?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
Ans: (c) Vallabhbhai Patel - Why was Congress leader Rahul Gandhi recently in the news?
(a) He was elected as the Prime Minister of India.
(b) He was appointed as the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
(c) He launched a new political party.
(d) He was nominated for the Nobel Peace Prize.
Ans. (b) He was appointed as the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha. - What is the minimum eligibility for a party to have its leader recognized as the Leader of Opposition (LoP) in the Lok Sabha?
(a) The party must have at least 5% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha.
(b) The party must have at least 10% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha.
(c) The party must have at least 15% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha.
(d) The party must have at least 20% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha.
Ans. (b) The party must have at least 10% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha. - What significant event related to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha occurred on June 24, 2024?
(a) The Speaker resigned from the position.
(b) A new Speaker was elected.
(c) Bhartruhari Mahtab was appointed as the ‘Speaker pro tem’.
(d) The Lok Sabha was dissolved.
Ans. (c) Bhartruhari Mahtab was appointed as the ‘Speaker pro tem’. - Under which Article of the Constitution is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha elected?
(a) Article 75
(b) Article 80
(c) Article 93
(d) Article 100
Ans. (c) Article 93 - What is the term of office for the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) Until the dissolution of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (d) Until the dissolution of the Lok Sabha - What is the primary objective of the Krishi Sakhi Convergence Programme (KSCP)?
(a) To promote urban farming practices.
(b) To empower rural women as Krishi Sakhi for transforming rural India.
(c) To distribute free seeds to farmers.
(d) To provide loans to rural women for starting businesses.
Ans. (b) To empower rural women as Krishi Sakhi for transforming rural India. - Which of the following is a training area under the Krishi Sakhi Convergence Programme (KSCP)?
(a) Urban development
(b) Agro-Ecological Practices
(c) IT and Software Development
(d) Marine Biology
Ans. (b) Agro-Ecological Practices - On what date was the current Union Council of Ministers (COM) sworn in?
(a) January 26, 2024
(b) April 1, 2024
(c) June 9, 2024
(d) December 25, 2024
Ans. (c) June 9, 2024 - What is the constitutional basis for the formation of the Council of Ministers in India?
(a) Article 53 and Article 54
(b) Article 73 and Article 74
(c) Article 74 and Article 75
(d) Article 76 and Article 77
Ans. (c) Article 74 and Article 75 - Which type of minister is NOT part of the Union Council of Ministers (COM)?
(a) Cabinet Ministers
(b) Ministers of State (Independent Charge)
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Regional Ministers
Ans. (d) Regional Ministers - Which committee was responsible for drafting provisions related to fundamental rights, minorities, and tribal areas?
(a) Finance and Staff Committee
(b) Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas
(c) House Committee
(d) Rules of Procedure Committee
Ans: (b) Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas - Who was the chairman of the Rules of Procedure Committee?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans: (b) Rajendra Prasad - Which committee was tasked with the day-to-day administration of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) House Committee
(b) Drafting Committee
(c) Hindi Translation Committee
(d) Finance and Staff Committee
Ans: (a) House Committee - Who led the Hindi Translation Committee for the Indian Constitution?
(a) Muhammad Saadullah
(b) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
(c) B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Ans: (b) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar - Which year did M.N. Roy propose the idea of a Constituent Assembly?
(a) 1934
(b) 1935
(c) 1938
(d) 1940
Ans: (a) 1934 - When did the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly take place?
(a) 9th December 1946
(b) 11th December 1946
(c) 13th December 1946
(d) 26th November 1949
Ans: (a) 9th December 1946 - Who was the first President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha
(c) H. C. Mukherjee
(d) G.V. Malvankar
Ans: (b) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha - The Right to Equality in the Indian Constitution is guaranteed under which articles?
(a) Articles 12 – 16
(b) Articles 14 – 18
(c) Articles 15 – 19
(d) Articles 16 – 20
Ans. (b) - Which fundamental right prohibits the employment of children under 14 years in hazardous conditions?
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans. (b) - The freedom to practise any profession is part of which fundamental right?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans. (b) - The abolition of untouchability is associated with which fundamental right?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans. (a) - The Right to Freedom of Religion is covered under which articles?
(a) Articles 21 – 24
(b) Articles 25 – 28
(c) Articles 29 – 32
(d) Articles 30 – 33
Ans. (b) - Which fundamental right allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court directly in case of a violation?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Ans. (c) - Cultural and Educational Rights are intended to protect the interests of which groups?
(a) All citizens
(b) Minority groups
(c) Government employees
(d) Children under 14 years
Ans. (b) - During a national emergency, which fundamental rights cannot be suspended?
(a) Articles 20 and 21
(b) Articles 21 and 22
(c) Articles 22 and 23
(d) Articles 23 and 24
Ans. (a) - The concept of ‘Basic Structure’ of the Constitution was established in which landmark case?
(a) Golaknath case
(b) Kesavananda Bharati case
(c) Sajjan Singh case
(d) Minerva Mills case
Ans. (b) - Fundamental rights can be amended by which entity?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The Prime Minister Ans. (b) - What type of forests are predominant in the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve?
(a) Rainforests
(b) Desert Scrub
(c) Moist Deciduous Forests
(d) Coniferous Forests
Ans: (c) Moist Deciduous Forests - In which district is Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary located?
(a) Kendrapara
(b) Puri
(c) Cuttack
(d) Khordha
Ans: (b) Puri - What type of forest tree vegetation is predominant in the Western region of Odisha?
(a) Teak Forests
(b) Sal Forests
(c) Pine Forests
(d) Tropical Dry Deciduous forests
Ans: (d) Tropical Dry Deciduous forests - When did Odisha become a separate province?
(a) 1935
(b) 1936
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Ans: (b) 1936 - Which court ruled that women who become mothers through surrogacy are entitled to the same maternity leave rights as natural and adoptive mothers?
(a) Delhi High Court
(b) Orissa High Court
(c) Bombay High Court
(d) Karnataka High Court
Ans: (b) Orissa High Court - Who was denied maternity leave as an OFS officer after surrogacy, leading to the landmark ruling by the Orissa High Court?
(a) Supriya Jena
(b) Nandita Roy
(c) Ananya Mishra
(d) Priya Das
Ans: (a) Supriya Jena - Which article of the Indian Constitution emphasizes the right to motherhood and was referenced in the Orissa High Court ruling on surrogacy maternity leave?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 32
Ans: (c) Article 21 - In which year was Nandankanan Zoological Park established?
(a) 1960
(b) 1965
(c) 1970
(d) 1975
Ans: (a) 1960 - Which company won the Kalinga Energy Excellence Award and Kalinga Environment Excellence Award for its Lanjigarh alumina refinery?
(a) Tata Steel
(b) Vedanta Aluminium
(c) Jindal Steel
(d) Aditya Birla Group
Ans: (b) Vedanta Aluminium - What species are being relocated from Taptapani deer park to Chandaka wildlife sanctuary?
(a) Tigers
(b) Elephants
(c) Sambar and spotted deer
(d) Rhinos
Ans: (c) Sambar and spotted deer - Which two cities are the focus of the Rs 200 crore initiative to combat urban floods, supported by IIT Delhi?
(a) Bhubaneswar and Cuttack
(b) Rourkela and Sambalpur
(c) Puri and Konark
(d) Balasore and Bhadrak
Ans: (a) Bhubaneswar and Cuttack - How many saplings are aimed to be planted under the ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam’ campaign in Odisha?
(a) 3 crore
(b) 4 crore
(c) 5 crore
(d) 6 crore
Ans: (c) 5 crore - What is the main objective of the 22-member committee established by the Odisha government for medical education?
(a) To introduce new medical courses
(b) To evaluate translating MBBS course materials into Odia
(c) To increase the number of medical colleges
(d) To improve the infrastructure of existing medical colleges
Ans: (b) To evaluate translating MBBS course materials into Odia - In which year was the Orissa Official Language Act initially enacted?
(a) 1950
(b) 1954
(c) 1960
(d) 1965
Ans: (b) 1954 - Who was awarded the Shaurya Chakra gallantry award for his courageous leadership during an ONGC operational emergency?
(a) Lieutenant Bimal Ranjan Behera
(b) Major Anup Singh
(c) Captain Rakesh Sharma
(d) Lieutenant Arjun Thakur
Ans: (a) Lieutenant Bimal Ranjan BeheraWho led the movement against the abolition of - Odia as the court language of Sambalpur in 1895?
(a) Madan Mohan Mishra
(b) Brajamohan Patnaik
(c) Mahant Bihari Das
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - Who was the first Chief Minister of Odisha?
(a) Harekrushna Mahatab
(b) Nabakrushna Choudhuri
(c) Biju Patnaik
(d) Giridhar Gamang
Ans: (a) Harekrushna Mahatab - Who founded the Utkal Sammilani in 1903 to ventilate the grievances of the Odia-speaking people?
(a) Madan Mohan Mishra
(b) Brajamohan Patnaik
(c) Mahant Bihari Das
(d) Madhusudan Das
Ans: (d) Madhusudan Das - Which organization played a significant role in restoring the nationalism of Odisha?
(a) Ganjam Jatiya Samity
(b) Utkal Sammilani
(c) Indian National Congress
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Utkal Sammilani - Who criticized the creation of Bihar and Odisha in the House of Lords in February 1912?
(a) Madan Mohan Mishra
(b) Brajamohan Patnaik
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Mahant Bihari Das
Ans: (c) Lord Curzon - Who proposed separate representation of Odisha in the Imperial Legislative Council to safeguard the interests of Odias in different areas?
(a) Mahant Bihari Das
(b) Balabhadra Suar
(c) Madhusudan Das
(d) Brajamohan Patnaik
Ans: (c) Madhusudan Das - In which year did the Indian National Congress mainly engage itself in the freedom movement of India, diverting its focus from the issue of Odisha union?
(a) 1911
(b) 1920
(c) 1903
(d) 1901
Ans: (b) 1920 - What legislation led to the change of name from “Orissa” to “Odisha” and the language from “Oriya” to “Odia”?
(a) Orissa (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2010
(b) Constitution (113th Amendment) Bill, 2010
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Both a and b - Which legislative body passed the Orissa (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2010?
(a) Odisha Legislative Assembly
(b) Indian Parliament
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) President of India
Ans: (b) Indian Parliament - What was the language name changed to after the passage of the Orissa (Alteration of Name) Bill, 2010?
(a) Oriya
(b) Odia
(c) Odiya
(d) Orissan
Ans: (b) Odia - Which European power was the first to establish settlements in Odisha?
(a) Britishers
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) French
Ans: (b) Portuguese - When was the Battle of Buxar fought, leading to the firm establishment of British rule in Odisha?
(a) 1757
(b) 1765
(c) 1776
(d) 1789
Ans: (b) 1765 - What were the major rebellions faced by the British administration in Odisha during their rule?
(a) Sepoy Mutiny and Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(b) Paika Rebellion and Khurda Rebellion
(c) Salt Satyagraha and Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Quit India Movement and Civil Disobedience Movement
Ans: (b) Paika Rebellion and Khurda Rebellion - When did the freedom struggle in Odisha begin after the British occupation?
(a) 1700
(b) 1750
(c) 1803
(d) 1857
Ans: (c) 1803 - In which year did the first agitation against British rule occur in Khurda?
(a) 1799
(b) 1802
(c) 1804
(d) 1810
Ans: (c) 1804 - Which state in India is known for its Sonepur Mela, the largest animal fair?
(a) Bihar
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (a) Bihar - Which is the highest dam in India?
(a) Bhakra Dam
(b) Sardar Sarovar Dam
(c) Tehri Dam
(d) Hirakud Dam
Ans: (c) Tehri Dam - Wular Lake, the largest lake in India, is located in which state/union territory?
(a) Kerala
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) West Bengal
(d) Assam
Ans: (b) Jammu & Kashmir - The largest cave temple in India is the Kailashnath Temple. Where is it located?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (a) Maharashtra - Kangchenjunga, the highest peak in India, is located in which state?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (c) Sikkim - Jama Masjid, the largest mosque in India, is located in which city?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Ans: (c) Delhi - The largest delta in the world, Sundarbans, is located in which state?
(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (b) West Bengal - The longest railway tunnel in India, Pir Panjal Tunnel, is located in which state/union territory?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Punjab
Ans: (c) Jammu & Kashmir - What is the name of the longest sea bridge in India?
(a) Bandra-Worli Sea Link
(b) Pamban Bridge
(c) Atal Setu (Mumbai Trans Harbour Link)
(d) Mahatma Gandhi Setu
Ans: (c) Atal Setu (Mumbai Trans Harbour Link) - Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport is located in which city?
(a) Delhi
(b) Bangalore
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata
Ans: (c) Mumbai - Kachchhi Kharek, a product of date palm, is from which state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (b) Gujarat - Ramban Anardana, a type of dried pomegranate seeds, is from which state/union territory?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Punjab
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Uttarakhand
Ans: (c) Jammu & Kashmir - Which of the following is a GI-tagged product from West Bengal?
(a) Naga Mircha
(b) Tangail Saree
(c) Phulkari
(d) Kolhapuri Chappal
Ans: (b) Tangail Saree - Which traditional art form from Odisha is known for its exterior murals painted on mud walls?
(a) Pattachitra
(b) Lanjia Saura Painting
(c) Warli Painting
(d) Kalamkari
Ans: (b) Lanjia Saura Painting - The Similipal Kai Chutney from Odisha is made using which ingredient?
(a) Red weaver ants
(b) Green mangoes
(c) Tamarind
(d) Coconut
Ans: (a) Red weaver ants - Which bird sanctuary in India is located in Goa?
(a) Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary
(b) Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary
(c) Point Calimere Bird Sanctuary
(d) Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary
Ans: (b) Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary - Ghatigaon Bustard Sanctuary is located in which state?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra
Ans: (b) Madhya Pradesh - The Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary is situated in which state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Ans: (b) Kerala - Nalabana Bird Sanctuary is located in which state?
(a) Odisha
(b) West Bengal
(c) Assam
(d) Bihar
Ans: (a) Odisha - Which exercise is conducted between India and the Maldives?
(a) Mitra Shakti
(b) Vajra Prahar
(c) Ekuverin
(d) Nomadic Elephant
Ans: (c) Ekuverin - The exercise ‘Hand in Hand’ is conducted between India and which country?
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Thailand
Ans: (b) China - In which state is the Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary located?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (c) Karnataka - Which Indian state is known for the Gajapati district, famous for ‘Khajuri Guda’ jaggery?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Odisha
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (b) Odisha - The ‘Garuda’ exercise is conducted between India and which country?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Japan
(c) France
(d) Australia
Ans: (c) France - Which state in India is home to the Keoladeo National Park/Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (c) Rajasthan - Which river flows through Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Pennar
(d) Tungabhadra
Ans: (b) Krishna - Which city in Assam is situated on the banks of the Brahmaputra River?
(a) Dibrugarh
(b) Guwahati
(c) Tezpur
(d) Silchar
Ans: (a) Dibrugarh - Which river flows through Patna in Bihar?
(a) Koshi
(b) Gandak
(c) Ganges
(d) Falgu
Ans: (c) Ganges - Which city in Rajasthan is known as the “Blue City” and “Sun City”?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Jodhpur
(c) Udaipur
(d) Ajmer
Ans: (b) Jodhpur - Which city in Maharashtra is known as the “Cotton City of India”?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Pune
(c) Akola
(d) Nagpur
Ans: (c) Akola - Which major Maratha chief was diplomatically pressured to stay away from the war against the British during the Third Anglo-Maratha War?
(a) Peshwa Bajirao II
(b) Malharrao Holkar
(c) Mudhoji II Bhonsle
(d) Daulat Rao Shinde
Ans. (d) Daulat Rao Shinde - What was the main reason for the conflict between the British and the Marathas that led to the Third Anglo-Maratha War?
(a) British interference in Maratha internal matters
(b) Marathas’ attempt to retake their old possessions
(c) British conflict with the Pindaris
(d) Marathas’ desire to rebuild their old prestige
Ans. (c) British conflict with the Pindaris - What was the outcome for Peshwa Bajirao II after the Third Anglo-Maratha War?
(a) He was killed in battle
(b) He surrendered and was pensioned off to Bithur
(c) He continued to rule as a British ally
(d) He was exiled to Burma
Ans. (b) He surrendered and was pensioned off to Bithur - Which treaty was signed in 1817 between the British and Shinde, resulting in the British gaining control over Rajasthan?
(a) Treaty of Salbai
(b) Treaty of Bassein
(c) Treaty of Gwalior
(d) Treaty of Mandasor
Ans. (c) Treaty of Gwalior - What was the significance of the Third Anglo-Maratha War for the British?
(a) It led to the fall of the Mughal Empire
(b) It established British control over the Punjab
(c) It marked the end of the Maratha Empire and established British dominance over most of India
(d) It resulted in British control over the entire Indian subcontinent
Ans. (c) It marked the end of the Maratha Empire and established British dominance over most of India - Which body was created to handle political matters under the dual system of control?
(a) Court of Directors
(b) Board of Control
(c) Governor-General’s Council
(d) British Crown
Ans. (b) Board of Control - Who among the following was NOT a member of the Board of Control?
(a) Secretary of State
(b) Chancellor of the Exchequer
(c) Commander-in-Chief of the British Crown’s army in India
(d) Four Privy Councillors
Ans. (c) Commander-in-Chief of the British Crown’s army in India - What was a significant feature of the act concerning the Presidencies of Madras and Bombay?
(a) They were given independence from Bengal
(b) They became subordinate to the Bengal Presidency
(c) They were merged into a single presidency
(d) They were transferred under the Court of Directors
Ans. (b) They became subordinate to the Bengal Presidency - What did the act require of all civil and military officers within two months of their joining?
(a) To undergo military training
(b) To disclose their property in India and Britain
(c) To swear allegiance to the British Crown
(d) To travel to the British Parliament
Ans. (b) To disclose their property in India and Britain - Which term was used for the first time in this act?
(a) East India Company’s Territories
(b) Indian Subcontinent
(c) British Possessions in India
(d) Imperial Territories of India
Ans. (c) British Possessions in India - Before the British advent in Bengal, who collected revenue from the land on behalf of the Mughal Emperor or his representative, the Diwan?
(a) Farmers
(b) Zamindars
(c) Merchants
(d) Soldiers
Ans. (b) Zamindars - Which battle led to the East India Company being granted the Diwani of Bengal?
(a) Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Panipat
(d) Battle of Seringapatam
Ans. (b) Battle of Buxar - Who proposed the Permanent Settlement system in 1786?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Robert Clive
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) William Pitt
Ans. (c) Lord Cornwallis - When did the Permanent Settlement come into effect?
(a) 1786
(b) 1790
(c) 1793
(d) 1800
Ans. (c) 1793 - What was the fixed portion of revenue for the government under the Permanent Settlement?
(a) 1/11th
(b) 5/11th
(c) 9/11th
(d) 10/11th
Ans. (d) 10/11th - What document was the Zamindar required to give the tenant under the Permanent Settlement?
(a) Patta
(b) Firman
(c) Sanad
(d) Rukka
Ans. (a) Patta - Which British PM directed Lord Cornwallis to propose the Permanent Settlement?
(a) William Pitt
(b) Robert Walpole
(c) Charles Grey
(d) Benjamin Disraeli
Ans. (a) William Pitt - What was one of the main merits of the Permanent Settlement system?
(a) Increased revenue for the farmers
(b) Security for all parties involved
(c) Abolition of Zamindari system
(d) Reduction in taxes
Ans. (b) Security for all parties involved - What was a major demerit of the Permanent Settlement?
(a) It reduced the revenue for the British
(b) It created a class of absentee landlords
(c) It encouraged widespread rebellion
(d) It significantly improved agricultural practices
Ans. (b) It created a class of absentee landlords - What happened to the Zamindar’s rights if they failed to pay the fixed revenue on time?
(a) Their lands were confiscated
(b) They were imprisoned
(c) They were given a grace period
(d) Their lands were auctioned off
Ans. (d) Their lands were auctioned off - After the Battles of Plassey and Buxar, who had the real power in Bengal?
(a) The Nawab
(b) The British East India Company
(c) The local farmers
(d) The Mughal Emperor
Ans. (b) The British East India Company - What was the primary interest of the British East India Company in Bengal?
(a) Improving the plight of local farmers
(b) Maximising revenue and profits
(c) Establishing educational institutions
(d) Promoting local industries
Ans. (b) Maximising revenue and profits - Prior to the company’s rule, what was the tax rate on land revenue in Bengal?
(a) 50% of the agricultural produce
(b) 1/10th of the agricultural produce
(c) 1/3rd of the agricultural produce
(d) 75% of the agricultural produce
Ans. (b) 1/10th of the agricultural produce - What was one significant change in agricultural practices enforced by the British on Bengali farmers?
(a) Increased cultivation of food crops like paddy
(b) Harvesting of cash crops like poppy and indigo
(c) Increased storage of grain for lean seasons
(d) Implementation of modern farming techniques
Ans. (b) Harvesting of cash crops like poppy and indigo - What was the main cause of the Bengal Famine of 1770?
(a) Natural disaster
(b) The company’s tax and revenue policies
(c) War
(d) Locust invasion
Ans. (b) The company’s tax and revenue policies - How many people were estimated to have died due to the Bengal Famine?
(a) 1 million
(b) 5 million
(c) 10 million
(d) 20 million
Ans. (c) 10 million - Which event was directly influenced by the East India Company’s financial policies and led to significant historical consequences?
(a) The Sepoy Mutiny
(b) The Boston Tea Party
(c) The Opium War
(d) The Salt March
Ans. (b) The Boston Tea Party - How did the Bengal Famine impact agricultural lands in Bengal?
(a) Increased agricultural productivity
(b) Depopulated large swathes of land
(c) Reduced tax rates
(d) Introduced irrigation systems
Ans. (b) Depopulated large swathes of land - What was one of the global consequences of the Bengal Famine?
(a) Increased food exports to Europe
(b) Growth in the East India Company’s profits
(c) Abolition of the East India Company
(d) Decline in European colonialism
Ans. (b) Growth in the East India Company’s profits - What legislative act did the British Parliament pass in response to the East India Company’s financial issues?
(a) The Salt Act
(b) The Regulating Act
(c) The Tea Act
(d) The Charter Act
Ans. (c) The Tea Act - କେଉଁଟି ଚଢେଇ ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ଜୀବନ
(b) ବିହଗ
(c) ଧୂଳିଜଂଘ
(d) ଆଳୟ
Ans: (b) ବିହଗ - କେଉଁଟି ଜଳ ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ଜାମଘୋଷ
(b) ଦୁହିତା
(c) ଅମୃତ
(d) ବାୟସ
Ans: (c) ଅମୃତ - କେଉଁଟି ଗାଈ ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ?
(a) ଗୋ
(b) ଧେନୁ
(c) ରାତ୍ରିବେଦ
(d) ଗାଭୀ
Ans: (c) ରାତ୍ରିବେଦ - କେଉଁଟି କୁଆ ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) କାକ
(b) ଅମ୍ଵୁ
(c) ବିହଙ୍ଗମ
(d) ଯାମନାନ୍ଦୀ
Ans: (a) କାକ - କେଉଁଟି ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ହିମାଂଶୁ
(b) ଧୂଳିଜଂଘ
(c) ଗୃହ
(d) ଅମୃତ
Ans: (a) ହିମାଂଶୁ - କେଉଁଟି କୁକୁଡ଼ା ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ?
(a) ଚରଣାୟୁଧ
(b) ଧୂଳିଜଂଘ
(c) ଯାମଘୋଷ
(d) କାଳଜ୍ଞ
Ans: (b) ଧୂଳିଜଂଘ - କେଉଁଟି ଘର ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ନିବାସ
(b) ବାୟସ
(c) ବିହଗ
(d) କୁକୁଡ଼ା
Ans: (a) ନିବାସ - କେଉଁଟି ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ?
(a) ଶଶୀ
(b) ବିଧୁ
(c) ଜଳ
(d) ଚନ୍ଦ୍ରମା
Ans: (c) ଜଳ - କେଉଁଟି ଜଳ ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ଆୟୁ
(b) ଗୃହ
(c) କାଉ
(d) ବିହଗ
Ans: (a) ଆୟୁ - ପଦ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିରୁ କେଉଁ ଗୋଟିକ ଭିନ୍ନ ଜାତୀୟ ?
(a) ତୁମେ
(b) ଏବଂ
(c) ସେମାନେ
(d) ମୁଁ
Ans: (b) ଏବଂ - କେଉଁଟି ବିଶେଷଣ ପ୍ରଦ ?
(a) ପରମ
(b) ଧରମ
(c) କରମ
(d) ସରମ
Ans: (a) ପରମ - କେଉଁଟି ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦ ନୁହେଁ ?
(a) ଉରମ
(b) ସନ୍ତୋଷ
(c) ପରମାର୍ଥୀ
(d) ଶୁରଙ୍କର
Ans: (b) ସନ୍ତୋଷ - ସେ ଅତ୍ୟନ୍ତ ଚତୁରତାର ସହିତ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ ସଂପାଦନ କଲେ । ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ କେତୋଟି ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦ ଅଛି ?
(a) ଏକ
(b) ଦୁଇ
(c) ତିନି
(d) ଚାରି
Ans: (b) ଦୁଇ - ତାଙ୍କ ବିନା ମୁଁ ଏହା କରିପାରିବି ନାହିଁ । – ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ‘ବିନା’ କି ପଦ ?
(a) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ
(b) ବିଶେଷଣ
(c) ଅବ୍ୟୟ
(d) ସର୍ବନାମ
Ans: (c) ଅବ୍ୟୟ - ଶୋଇଲା ପୁଅର ଭାଗ ନାହିଁ । ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ ଶୋଇଲା କି ପଦ ?
(a) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ
(b) ବିଶେଷଣ
(c) କ୍ରିୟା
(d) ଅବ୍ୟୟ
Ans: (b) ବିଶେଷଣ - ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଭିନ୍ନ ଜାତୀୟ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ବାଛି ।
(a) ନଦୀ
(b) କୂଅ
(c) ପୁଷ୍କରିଣୀ’
(d) ସାଗର
Ans: (d) ସାଗର - ଭିନ୍ନ ଜାତୀୟ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ବାଛି ।
(a) ସୁନା
(b) ରୂପା
(c) ଗଙ୍ଗା
(d) ମାଟି
Ans: (c) ଗଙ୍ଗା - ନିମ୍ନରେ କେତୋଟି ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦ ଅଛି?
ଦୟା, କ୍ଷମା, ଦଦରା, ଧୈର୍ଯ୍ୟ, କନିଷ୍ଠ, କଠିନ
(a) ସବୁଗୁଡ଼ିକ
(b) ୫ଟି
(c) ୩ଟି
(d) ୪ଟି
Ans: (c) ୩ଟି - ‘କନିଷ୍ଠ’ ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦର ମୂଳରୁପଟି କ’ଣ?
(a) କୁନି
(b) ଯୁବା
(c) ସାନ
(d) କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର
Ans: (a) କୁନି - କ୍ଷଣସ୍ଥାୟୀ – କେଉଁ ସମାସ?
(a) ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟା ତତ୍ପୁରୁଷ
(b) ତୃତୀୟା ତତ୍ପୁରୁଷ
(c) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ ତତ୍ପୁରୁଷ
(d) କୌଣସି ନୁହେଁ
Ans: (a) ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟା ତତ୍ପୁରୁଷ - କୌଣସି କୌଣସି ପଦ ଗଢିବା ପାଇଁ “ଧାତୁର” ପୂର୍ବରେ ଅନ୍ୟ ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦଥାଏ, ସେହି ପଦର ନାମ _______ସମାସ?
(a) ଉପପଦ ତତ୍ପୁରୁଷ
(b) ଦ୍ଵିଗୁ
(c) ଅଲୁକ୍
(d) କୌଣସି ନୁହେଁ
Ans: (a) ଉପପଦ ତତ୍ପୁରୁଷ - ଯଶୋଧନ – କେଉଁ ସମାସ?
(a) ଅଲୁକ୍
(b) ରୂପକ କର୍ମଧାରୟ
(c) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
(d) ନିତ୍ୟ
Ans: (b) ରୂପକ କର୍ମଧାରୟ - ‘ସୟନ” ଶବ୍ଦଟିରେ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗ କରାଯାଇଛି?
(a) ଅ
(b) ଣ
(c) ୟ
(d) ଅନ
Ans: (d) ଅନ - “ପ୍ରସାଦ” ଶବ୍ଦର ସଠିକ ଅର୍ଥ ବାଛ |
(a) ଠାକୁରଙ୍କ ଭୋଗ
(b) ବଡ କୋଠା ଘର
(c) ବଡ ମନ୍ଦିର
(d) ଭୋଗ ରନ୍ଧା ହେଉଥିବା ଘର
Ans: (a) ଠାକୁରଙ୍କ ଭୋଗ - “ଅପ ସଂସ୍କୃତି” ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
(a) ଅପ ଅଟେ ସଂସ୍କୃତି
(b) ଅପର ସଂସ୍କୃତି
(c) ଅପ ଓ ସଂସ୍କୃତି
(d) ସଂସ୍କୃତିର ସମାହାର
Ans: (a) ଅପ ଅଟେ ସଂସ୍କୃତି - କେଉଁଟି ପଦ୍ମର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ?
(a) ସରିତ
(b) ଅମ୍ବୁଜ
(c) ସାରସ
(d) ପଙ୍କେରୁହ
Ans: (a) ସରିତ - “ଦେଶକେ ଫାଙ୍କ୍ ନଈକେ ବାଙ୍କ୍” ଲୋକବାଣୀ ର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ ଣ?
(a) ବାହାର ସୌନ୍ଦର୍ଯ୍ୟ ଭିତରେ ନଥିବା
(b) ଭିନ୍ନ ସ୍ଥାନରେ ଭିନ୍ନ ଚଳଣି
(c) ସବୁସ୍ଥାନରେ ଖାପଖୁଆଇ ଚଳିବା
(d) ପ୍ରକୃତି ବଦଳେ ନାହିଁ
Ans: (b) ଭିନ୍ନ ସ୍ଥାନରେ ଭିନ୍ନ ଚଳଣି - କେଉଁଟି ଗୁଣବାଚକ ବିଶେଷଣ?
(a) ସରଳ ଲୋକ
(b) ଦରିଦ୍ର ବାଳକ
(c) ସାମାନ୍ୟ କଥା
(d) ତେର ମିଟର
Ans: (a) ସରଳ ଲୋକ - ମା ଦରଜିକୁ କନା ଦେଲେ ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ ଦରଜି ପଦରେ କେଉଁ କାରକ ହୋଇଛି?
(a) କର୍ତ୍ତାକାରକ
(b) ସଂପ୍ରଦାନ କାରକ
(c) ଅପାଦାନ କାରକ
(d) କର୍ମ କାରକ
Ans. (d) କର୍ମ କାରକ - ଛାତ୍ରଟି କଲମରେ ଲେଖୁଛି ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଅଂଶଟି କେଉଁ କାରକ ?
(a) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ
(b) କରଣ କାରକ
(c) ଅପାଦାନ କାରକ
(d) କର୍ମ କାରକ
Ans. (b) କରଣ କାରକ - Which of the following statements is correct about achieving sustainable development?
(a) Sustainable development can be achieved by restricting the usage of renewable resources
(b) Sustainable development can be achieved by controlling the growth rate of the world’s population
(c) Sustainable development can be achieved by controlling the menace of pollution
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) - Which of the following statements is true about global warming?
(a) Global warming has led to large scale deforestation
(b) Global warming has led to a rise in the sea levels
(c) Global warming has led to a rapid increase in the population across several countries
(d) Global warming has led to a huge amount of waste generation
Answer: (b) - Which of the following was the main purpose behind setting up the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
(a) The main purpose of the Central Pollution Control Board was to regulate air pollution
(b) The main purpose of the Central Pollution Control Board was to regulate water pollution
(c) The main purpose of the Central Pollution Control Board was to regulate noise pollution
(d) The main purpose of the Central Pollution Control Board was to regulate deforestation
Answer: (a) - Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Tides are a conventional source of energy
(b) The Sun is a conventional source of energy
(c) Wind is a conventional source of energy
(d) Dried dung is a conventional source of energy
Answer: (d) - Which of the following statements about the ozone shield is accurate?
(a) Ozone shield is found in the troposphere
(b) Ozone shield is found in the stratosphere
(c) Ozone shield is found in the exosphere
(d) Ozone shield is found in the mesosphere
Answer: (b) - Which of the following statements is true about ozone layer depletion?
(a) Ozone layer depletion leads to the problem of skin cancer within humans
(b) Ozone layer depletion results in a lower amount of production of phytoplankton
(c) Ozone layer depletion hampers the growth of terrestrial plants
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) - Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Ozone depletion is one of the main reasons for soil erosion
(b) Deforestation is one of the main reasons for soil erosion
(c) Air pollution is one of the main reasons for soil erosion
(d) Global warming is one of the main reasons for soil erosion
Answer: (b) - Which of the following statements is true?
(a) The Central Pollution Control Board has identified twenty-five industrial categories as significantly polluting
(b) The Central Pollution Control Board has identified thirty-five industrial categories as significantly polluting
(c) The Central Pollution Control Board has identified forty-five industrial categories as significantly polluting
(d) The Central Pollution Control Board has identified seventeen industrial categories as significantly polluting
Answer: (d) - Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Economic growth is the modern concept for development
(b) Political growth is the modern concept for development
(c) Sustainable growth is the modern concept for development
(d) Social growth is the modern concept for development
Answer: (c) - Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Global warming is a result of ozone layer depletion
(b) Global warming is a natural phenomenon
(c) Global warming is defined as the rise in the average temperature of the surface of the Earth
(d) Global warming is simply another term that scientists use to describe the greenhouse effect
Answer: (c) - Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Chipko movement was about banning the use of chlorofluorocarbon, bromine, and chlorine compounds
(b) The Kyoto Protocol was about banning the use of chlorofluorocarbon, bromine, and chlorine compounds
(c) The Appiko movement was about banning the use of chlorofluorocarbon, bromine, and chlorine compounds
(d) The Montreal Protocol was about banning the use of chlorofluorocarbon, bromine, and chlorine compounds
Answer: (d) - Which of the following statements about climate change is true?
(a) Plantation can be a preventive measure to tackle climate change
(b) The usage of cycles instead of bikes or cars for transportation can be a preventive measure to tackle climate change
(c) The usage of organic products can be a preventive measure to tackle climate change
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) - Which of the following statements gives the correct meaning of absorptive capacity?
(a) Absorptive capacity is defined as the ability of our environment to absorb degradation
(b) Absorptive capacity is defined as the method of resource generation that is within the assimilating capacity of our environment
(c) Absorptive capacity is defined as the average number of organisms that are living within a given environment
(d) Absorptive capacity is defined as the minimum population that is currently surviving in the world
Answer: (a) - Which of the following is true about the environment?
(a) The environment includes only biotic factors
(b) The environment includes only abiotic factors
(c) The environment includes both biotic and abiotic factors
(d) The environment includes neither biotic nor abiotic factors
Answer: (c) - Which of the following statements is true?
(a) The United Nations Conference on Climate Change was held in India in the year 1997
(b) The United Nations Conference on Climate Change was held in Japan in the year 1997
(c) The United Nations Conference on Climate Change was held in China in the year 1997
(d) The United Nations Conference on Climate Change was held in Canada in the year 1997
Answer: (b) - Which one of the following causes global warming?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a
Explanation: About 75% of the solar energy reaching the earth is absorbed by the earth’s surface, and the rest radiates back to the atmosphere. Some of the heat is trapped by greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, which is released by various human activities. - How many percent of carbon dioxide has increased in the atmosphere since pre-industrial times?
a) About 10%
b) About 20%
c) About 30%
d) About 40%
Answer: c
Explanation: The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased by about 30% since pre-industrial times, causing more heat to be trapped in the lower atmosphere. Human activities, industrialization, and population growth are the main reasons. - What is the full form of UNFCC with respect to the global warming convention?
a) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
b) United Nations Federation Convention on Climate Change
c) United Nations Framework Center on Climate Change
d) United Nations Federation Center on Climate Change
Answer: a
Explanation: In order to control the continuous increase in the carbon dioxide level, many countries have signed a convention to reduce greenhouse gases under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC). - Who measures the global warming rate?
a) Astrologers
b) Physicist
c) Philosopher
d) Climatologist
Answer: d
Explanation: Global warming is usually calculated by climatologists. Global warming is accelerating faster than that calculated by climatologists. It was predicted in 1995 that in the 21st century, there would be a rise in temperature by 3.5 to 10 degrees Celsius. - Which one of the following results takes place due to global warming?
a) Maintaining steady temperature
b) Changes in the rainfall
c) Pleasant environment
d) Causing less pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: Global warming leads to changes in temperature and also changes the amount of rainfall, causing various problems. These fluctuations in rainfall can lead to either floods or droughts. - Human activities cause global warming.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Human activities during the last few decades of industrialization and population growth have seriously polluted the atmosphere to the extent that it has begun to seriously affect vegetation and organisms in the environment. - Which one of the following causes global warming?
a) Radiative forcing
b) Earth gravitation force
c) Oxygen
d) Centripetal force
Answer: a
Explanation: Radiative forcing is a measure of the influence of a given climatic factor that has an amount of downward-directed radiant energy. Global warming is caused by a change in the fraction of the radiation reaching the surface of the earth. - How has human activity influenced global warming?
a) By planting more trees
b) By causing changes in gravitational force
c) By changing the radiative balance governing the Earth
d) By protecting the environment
Answer: c
Explanation: Human activity has influenced global surface temperature by changing the radiative balance governing the Earth on various timescales. The introduction of greenhouse gases to the environment results in greater damage to the environment. - Which one of the following is the anthropogenic radiative forcing of climate?
a) Aerosols
b) Cement
c) Paper
d) Glass
Answer: a
Explanation: Aerosols represent an important anthropogenic radiative forcing of climate. Collectively, aerosols block, reflect, and absorb a portion of incoming solar radiation. This also creates negative radiative forcing. - Which one of the following land uses causes global warming?
a) Increase in the fertility of soil
b) Surface reflectance
c) Forestation
d) Adopting organic farming
Answer: b
Explanation: The most direct way in which changes in land use can influence global warming is surface reflectance or Earth albedo. For example, surface reflectance is affected by the replacement of forests with cropland. - Changes in the composition of the atmosphere is an example of:
a) Internal forcing
b) External forcing
c) Mid forcing
d) Gravitational forcing
Answer: b
Explanation: The climate system generates random changes in global temperature for years to decades at a time, but long-term changes emanate only from external forcing. An increase in the concentration of greenhouse gases is an example of external forcing, including changes in the composition of the atmosphere. - What is the main reason for the melting of ice sheets?
a) Increase in the oxygen content
b) Global warming
c) Decrease in carbon dioxide content
d) Noise pollution
Answer: b
Explanation: Global warming is affecting various places around the world. It has accelerated the melting of ice sheets, permafrost, and glaciers, thereby causing a rise in the average sea levels to a greater extent continuously. - Which one of the following is the effect of global warming?
a) Maintaining sea level
b) Proper rainfall
c) Desertification
d) Afforestation
Answer: c
Explanation: Desertification is one of the effects of global warming. It causes water shortages and an intense amount of distress in the dry regions, which are degraded into deserts. This process is called desertification. - Soot only warms Earth’s climate system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Soot can either cool or warm Earth’s climate system, depending on whether it is airborne or deposited. Atmospheric soot directly absorbs solar radiation, which heats the atmosphere and cools the surface. - Up to How much quantity of urine does the human urinary bladder can hold?
(a) 400 ml
(b) 600 ml
(c) 800 ml
(d) 1000 ml
Ans: (a) 400 ml - Which blood protein regulates the amount of water in plasma?
(a) Globulin
(b) Albumin
(c) Fibrin
(d) Fibulin
Ans: (b) Albumin - In which organ is the “Bowman’s Capsule” found?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Heart
(d) Small intestine
Ans: (b) Kidney - Which oil has the highest content of Vitamin E?
(a) Wheat germ oil
(b) Rice germ oil
(c) Oat bran oil
(d) Sunflower oil
Ans: (a) Wheat germ oil - Where are the adrenal glands located?
(a) Above kidneys
(b) Below kidneys
(c) Above Medulla Oblongata
(d) Near Pancreas
Ans: (a) Above kidneys - Beriberi is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Thiamine
(c) Pyridoxine
(d) Cobalamine
Ans: (b) Thiamine - What substance makes cork cells impervious to water?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Cutin
(c) Suberin
(d) Glucose
Ans: (c) Suberin - What does ischemia refer to?
(a) Restriction in blood supply due to factors in the blood vessels
(b) Abrupt fall in blood pressure
(c) Necrosis in a blood vessel due to a local lack of oxygen
(d) Condition of severely deficient supply of oxygen to the body
Ans: (a) Restriction in blood supply due to factors in the blood vessels - Which of the following is not a true bast fiber?
(a) Jute
(b) Hemp
(c) Flax
(d) Cotton
Ans: (d) Cotton - Which cells in the human body have the least generative power?
(a) Brain
(b) Bones
(c) Skin
(d) Liver
Ans: (a) Brain - Poliomyelitis (Polio) affects which part of the body?
(a) Muscle cells
(b) Nerve cells of the spinal cord
(c) Nerve cells of the brain
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Nerve cells of the spinal cord - The clavicle in the human body is also known as what?
(a) Collar bone
(b) Rib
(c) Upper limb bone
(d) Lower limb bone
Ans: (a) Collar bone - Which micronutrient helps in nitrogen metabolism of plants?
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Molybdenum
(d) Sulfur
Ans: (c) Molybdenum - Which blood group has B antigen on its red cells and anti-A antibody in its plasma?
(a) It has B antigen on its red cells and Anti A antigen in its plasma
(b) It has B antigen on its red cells and Anti B antigen in its plasma
(c) It has no antigens on its red cells but, anti A antigen in its plasma
(d) It has B antigen on its red cells but no antigen in its plasma
Ans: (a) It has B antigen on its red cells and Anti A antigen in its plasma - The RIDL technique is developed to combat which disease?
(a) Swine Flu
(b) Malaria
(c) Cancer
(d) AIDS
Ans: (b) Malaria - What is the smallest functional ecological unit?
(a) Population
(b) Community
(c) Ecosystem
(d) Ecotype
Ans: (c) Ecosystem - Which of the following is homologous to a human arm?
(a) Wing of an insect
(b) Leg of a lobster
(c) Lateral fin of a whale
(d) Front leg of a reptile
Ans: (c) Lateral fin of a whale - The phenomenon causing animals to sweat to reduce temperature and change electrolyte concentration is called what?
(a) Homeorhesis
(b) Homeostasis
(c) Apoptosis
(d) Necrobiosis
Ans: (b) Homeostasis - Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum are parts of which organ?
(a) Small intestine
(b) Large intestine
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Epididymis
Ans: (a) Small intestine - What is the focal length of a concave lens with a power of -5D?
(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 20 cm
Ans: (d) 20 cm - On what does the inertia of an object depend?
(a) Bulk
(b) Size
(c) Shape
(d) Mass
Ans: (d) Mass - Naegleria fowleri, which was recently in the news, affects which part of the body?
(a) Lungs
(b) Brain
(c) Liver
(d) Intestine
Ans: (b) Brain - In which planet’s atmosphere was phosphine discovered, suggesting potential signs of life?
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Mars
Ans: (b) Venus - INDIAai signed an MoU with which company for mutual cooperation in AI?
(a) Samsung
(b) Apple
(c) Meta
(d) Google
Ans: (c) Meta - Where is India’s first semiconductor plant being established?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (b) Gujarat - Human-induced climate change has caused a substantial change in the color of what?
(a) Earth’s Trees
(b) Earth’s Oceans
(c) Earth’s Moon
(d) Earth’s Soil
Ans: (b) Earth’s Oceans - The largest gland in the human body is which of the following?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Liver
(c) Pancreas
(d) Adrenal
Ans: (b) Liver - The normal pH of human blood is closest to which of the following?
(a) 6.8
(b) 7.4
(c) 7.8
(d) 8.2
Ans: (b) 7.4 - Who is known as the ‘Father of Indian Space Program’?
(a) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(b) Homi J. Bhabha
(c) Vikram Sarabhai
(d) Satish Dhawan
Ans: (c) Vikram Sarabhai - Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla
(d) Pons
Ans: (b) Cerebellum - What type of climate does India have?
(a) Temperate
(b) Continental
(c) Tropical Evergreen
(d) Tropical Monsoon
Answer: (d) Tropical Monsoon
Explanation: India has a tropical monsoon climate characterized by distinct wet and dry seasons. This type of climate is typical for regions roughly between 20° N and 20° S latitude. - What causes major rainfall in India?
(a) Southwest monsoon winds
(b) Northwest monsoon winds
(c) Northeast monsoon winds
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Southwest monsoon winds
Explanation: Southwest monsoon winds bring moisture from the Indian Ocean, causing widespread rain across most of India during the monsoon season. - What is the cause of western disturbances in India?
(a) Westerly Jet stream
(b) Easterly Jet stream
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Westerly Jet stream
Explanation: Western disturbances are weather systems originating from the Mediterranean region and are brought into India by the Westerly Jet stream, primarily affecting the northwestern plains. - What does the El-Nino Effect cause in India?
(a) Lower rainfall in India
(b) Higher rainfall in India
(c) Cyclones in India
(d) Has no impact
Answer: (a) Lower rainfall in India
Explanation: El-Nino results in irregular warming of Pacific waters, disrupting global weather patterns including the southwest monsoon, which can lead to lower-than-normal rainfall in India. - During India’s winter, where does the sun vertically shine?
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Equator
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Tropic of Capricorn
Explanation: In January, the sun is vertically overhead the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern Hemisphere, leading to colder temperatures in India. - Consider the following statements about ‘Loo’ winds:
- ‘Loo’ is a hot dry wind.
- It blows mainly in southern India during May and June.
- It is good for wheat crops.
Select the correct statements:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 1 & 2 Only
(c) 1, 2 & 3 Only
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) 1 Only
Explanation: ‘Loo’ is a hot dry wind that affects the Northern plains of India during May and June, causing heat strokes and adverse effects on crops.
- Consider the following statements:
- Kerala lies in the Temperate zone.
- New Delhi lies in the Tropical zone.
Select the correct statements:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d) None of the above
Explanation: Kerala lies in the Tropical zone, while New Delhi lies north of the Tropic of Cancer, which places it in the subtropical and temperate zone, not the Tropical zone.
- Pre-monsoon showers in Kerala are known as?
(a) Kaal Baisakhi
(b) Bardoli Chheerha
(c) Mango showers
(d) Loo
Answer: (c) Mango showers
Explanation: Pre-monsoon showers in Kerala are called ‘Mango showers’ because they aid in the ripening of mangoes. - Which place receives the highest rainfall in the world?
(a) Silchar
(b) Mawsynram
(c) Cherrapunji
(d) Guwahati
Answer: (b) Mawsynram
Explanation: Mawsynram, located in Meghalaya, receives the highest average annual rainfall in the world. - The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards?
(a) Right in the northern hemisphere
(b) Left in the northern hemisphere
(c) Has no effect on wind direction
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Right in the northern hemisphere
Explanation: The Coriolis force causes winds to deflect to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere, influencing wind patterns such as the Southwest Monsoon in India. - Which of the following is not a primary economic activity?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Fishing
(c) Gathering forest residue
(d) Baking of bread
Correct Answer: (d) Baking of bread - Agriculture comes among which of the following activities?
(a) Primary activities
(b) Secondary activities
(c) Tertiary activities
(d) Quaternary Activities
Correct Answer: (a) Primary activities - Which of the following activities is known as Pisciculture?
(a) Breeding of fish
(b) Rearing of silkworms
(c) Cultivation of grapes
(d) None of the above
Correct Answer: (a) Breeding of fish - Growing vegetables, flowers and fruits for commercial use is known as?
(a) Sericulture
(b) Pisciculture
(c) Viticulture
(d) Horticulture
Correct Answer: (d) Horticulture - Which of the following is NOT a feature of Subsistence farming?
(a) It is mainly practiced to meet the needs of large corporates
(b) Use of low levels of technology
(c) Generally uses household labor
(d) Output is small
Correct Answer: (a) It is mainly practiced to meet the needs of large corporates - Consider the following statements regarding Shifting cultivation:
It is also known as ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture.
In India, It is mainly practiced in the northeast region.
In North east India, it is known as Jhumm cultivation.
This type of agriculture is not done anywhere else in the world except India.
Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 & 3 only - Which among the following is NOT a Cropping season in India?
(a) Rabi
(b) Kharif
(c) Zaid
(d) Kal Baisakhi
Correct Answer: (d) Kal Baisakhi - Which among the following crop seasons starts with the onset of monsoon?
(a) Rabi
(b) Kharif
(c) Zaid
(d) None of the above
Correct Answer: (b) Kharif - Crops of which among the following seasons are benefited from western disturbances?
(a) Rabi
(b) Kharif
(c) Zaid
(d) None of the above
Correct Answer: (a) Rabi - Vegetables are generally grown in which among the following crop seasons?
(a) Rabi
(b) Kharif
(c) Zaid
(d) None of the above
Correct Answer: (c) Zaid - Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of Indus?
(a) Jhelum
(b) Chenab
(c) Kosi
(d) Sutlej
Correct Answer: (c) Kosi
Explanation: The Kosi river is a tributary of the Ganga, not the Indus. It is known for causing floods in Bihar. - Consider the following statements:
- The Great Northern plain of India has been formed by the silt brought down by Himalayan rivers.
- Some of the Himalayan rivers are even older than the Himalayas itself.
Select the correct statements:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) None of the above
(d) All the above
Correct Answer: (d) All the above
Explanation: The northern plains are formed by Himalayan river deposits, and some rivers are indeed older than the Himalayas, creating deep valleys.
- Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of Ganga?
(a) Ramganga
(b) Ghagra
(c) Yamuna
(d) Vaigai
Correct Answer: (d) Vaigai
Explanation: Vaigai is a river in Tamil Nadu and not a tributary of the Ganga. - Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of Brahmaputra?
(a) Dibang
(b) Lohit
(c) Tsangpo
(d) Tista
Correct Answer: (c) Tsangpo
Explanation: Tsangpo is another name for the Brahmaputra itself. It originates in Tibet and is known as Dibang in Arunachal Pradesh. - Which of the following rivers flows from east to west?
(a) Godavari
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Tapi
Correct Answer: (d) Tapi
Explanation: Narmada and Tapi are the only major rivers in India that flow from east to west due to their unique geological formations. - Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of Yamuna?
(a) Chambal
(b) Betwa
(c) Sind
(d) Son
Correct Answer: (d) Son
Explanation: Son is a tributary of the Ganga, not the Yamuna. - Shyok river is a tributary of which of the following?
(a) Indus
(b) Ganga
(c) Yamuna
(d) Brahmaputra
Correct Answer: (a) Indus
Explanation: The Shyok river is a tributary of the Indus, flowing through northern Ladakh. - Which of the following rivers does not originate near Mansarovar Lake?
(a) Indus
(b) Ganga
(c) Sutlej
(d) Brahmaputra
Correct Answer: (b) Ganga
Explanation: Ganga originates from the Gangotri glacier, not near Mansarovar Lake. Brahmaputra, Indus, and Sutlej do originate near Mansarovar Lake. - Which of the following rivers is not part of the famous Panch Prayag?
(a) Alaknanda
(b) Nandakini
(c) Mandakini
(d) Godavari
Correct Answer: (d) Godavari
Explanation: Panch Prayag includes confluences involving rivers like Alaknanda, Nandakini, Mandakini, and others in the Himalayan region, but not the Godavari. - River Tons is a tributary of which of the following?
(a) Indus
(b) Ganga
(c) Yamuna
(d) Brahmaputra
Correct Answer: (c) Yamuna
Explanation: Tons is the largest tributary of the Yamuna, which itself is a major tributary of the Ganga. - Who was the first posthumous recipient of the Bharat Ratna?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Mother Teresa
Ans: (a) Lal Bahadur Shastri - In which year was the Bharat Ratna first awarded?
(a) 1950
(b) 1954
(c) 1960
(d) 1964
Ans: (b) 1954 - Which field was not originally included in the Bharat Ratna award criteria before December 2011?
(a) Art
(b) Science
(c) Literature
(d) Sports
Ans: (d) Sports - Who among the following is a recipient of the Bharat Ratna and also served as the President of India?
(a) Dr. C.V Raman
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(d) Mother Teresa
Ans: (c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan - Which awardee is known as the “Gandhi of South Africa”?
(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Nelson Mandela
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Ans: (c) Nelson Mandela - Which awardee is famous for being the founder of Missionaries of Charity?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Mother Teresa
(c) Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
(d) Prof. Amartya Sen
Ans: (b) Mother Teresa - Who was the first Prime Minister of India to receive the Bharat Ratna?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Ans: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru - Which Bharat Ratna awardee is a famous cricketer?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) C.N.R Rao
(c) Bidhan Chandra Roy
(d) Pranab Mukherjee
Ans: (a) Sachin Tendulkar - Who among the following was awarded Bharat Ratna in 1997 for his contribution to the field of science and technology?
(a) Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
(b) Prof. Amartya Sen
(c) M. Visvesvaraya
(d) Mother Teresa
Ans: (a) Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam - Which awardee was known as “Frontier Gandhi”?
(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Nelson Mandela
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Ans: (a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan - Dr. Sukama Acharya is known for her contributions in which field?
(a) Art
(b) Medicine
(c) Spiritualism
(d) Literature & Education
Ans: (c) Spiritualism
