The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: September-3
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: September-3
- What option does the central government not include in the development expenditure?
(a) Grants to states
(b) Expenditure on social and community services
(c) Expenditure on economic services
(d) Defence expenditure
Answer: (d) - Which of the following defines depreciation?
(a) Destruction of a plant in a fire accident
(b) Loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear
(c) Closure of a plant due to labour trouble
(d) Closure of a plant due to lockout
Answer: (b) - Generally, deficit financing can create inflation. However, it can be checked if _________.
(a) government expenditure increases the aggregate supply in the aggregate demand ratio.
(b) all the investment is indicated as payment on national debt only.
(c) only the aggregate demand is increased.
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) - With which of the following did the ARDC merge with on 12 July, 1982?
(a) NABARD
(b) EXIM Bank
(c) RBI
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) - What is the main cause of the export surplus?
(a) The country’s stringent import policy
(b) Developments in national and international markets
(c) The country’s exports promotion value
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) - If RBI reduces the cash reserve ratio, what will happen to the credit creation?
(a) There will be no impact.
(b) It will decrease.
(c) It will increase.
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) - Which option is not mentioned in a firm’s balance sheet?
(a) Cash held at the bank
(b) Revenue from sales of the company’s products
(c) Total issued capital
(d) Value of the stocks of raw materials held
Answer: (b) - Which of the following does the state financial corporation in the State Bank of India give special assistance to?
(a) Medium and small-scale industries
(b) Large-scale industries
(c) Cottage industry
(d) Agricultural farms
Answer: (a) - Which of the following are the central cooperative banks directly associated with?
(a) Central government
(b) Land development banks
(c) State cooperative banks
(d) Farmers
Answer: (c) - The first complete Indian Bank was established in which year?
(a) 1794
(b) 1894
(c) 1896
(d) 1902
Answer: (b) - Which state had the highest GDP among all Indian states as of Q2 FY 2023-24?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (b) Maharashtra - Which state surpassed Tamil Nadu to become the second-largest economy in India by Q2 FY 2023-24?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (c) Uttar Pradesh - What was the GDP growth rate prediction for India in 2023-24 as per the Economic Survey 2022-23?
(a) 5.0% to 5.8%
(b) 6.0% to 6.8%
(c) 7.0% to 7.8%
(d) 8.0% to 8.8%
Ans. (b) 6.0% to 6.8% - What is the nominal GDP of India for Q2 FY 2023-24?
(a) ₹322.39 lakh crore
(b) ₹292.53 lakh crore
(c) ₹312.39 lakh crore
(d) ₹352.39 lakh crore
Ans. (a) ₹322.39 lakh crore - Which state had a GDP percentage share of 7.5% in Q2 FY 2023-24?
(a) Karnataka
(b) West Bengal
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (b) West Bengal - In 2020-21, which state had a GDP of ₹303016 crore?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Bihar
(d) Chhattisgarh
Ans. (b) Assam - What was the GDP of Bihar in 2019-20?
(a) ₹533234 crore
(b) ₹614431 crore
(c) ₹533583 crore
(d) ₹307995 crore
Ans. (a) ₹533234 crore - Which state contributed 4.9% to India’s total GDP in Q2 FY 2023-24?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Ans. (c) Andhra Pradesh - Which of the following is not considered one of the eight core sectors of the Indian economy?
(a) Coal
(b) Textiles
(c) Natural Gas
(d) Cement
Answer: (b) - What percentage of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is contributed by the core sectors?
(a) 30.15%
(b) 40.27%
(c) 50.32%
(d) 60.25%
Answer: (b) - Which organization compiles and publishes the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI)?
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA)
(d) Central Statistical Organization (CSO)
Answer: (c) - What is the weightage of refinery products in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
(a) 19.85%
(b) 17.92%
(c) 28.04%
(d) 10.33%
Answer: (c) - In terms of weightage in the Index of Industrial Production, which sector comes after refinery products?
(a) Electricity
(b) Steel
(c) Coal
(d) Natural Gas
Answer: (a) - Which of the following sectors had the lowest weightage in the IIP?
(a) Fertilizers
(b) Cement
(c) Crude Oil
(d) Natural Gas
Answer: (a) - What was the growth rate of India’s eight major industries in May 2022?
(a) 8.4%
(b) 12.3%
(c) 18.1%
(d) 15.7%
Answer: (c) - Which core sector’s production increased by 11.9% in August 2022 compared to a decline in the same month the previous year?
(a) Coal
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Steel
(d) Electricity
Answer: (b) - Which sector is the largest contributor to the Index of Eight Core Industries?
(a) Electricity
(b) Refinery Products
(c) Steel
(d) Coal
Answer: (b) - In the context of core sectors, what does the term “weight” refer to?
(a) The physical weight of products
(b) The percentage contribution to the overall industrial output
(c) The number of industries in the sector
(d) The financial value of the sector
Answer: (b) - Which of the following statements is true about the core sectors?
(a) They are not influenced by international market trends.
(b) They form the foundation for other industrial activities.
(c) Their performance does not affect the GDP of the country.
(d) They include sectors like tourism and IT.
Answer: (b) - Which sector experienced a growth rate of 7.6% in August 2022 compared to the same month the previous year?
(a) Crude Oil
(b) Natural Gas
(c) Coal
(d) Cement
Answer: (c) - Which Himalayan range is home to the Dal Lake and Kashmir Valley?
A) Himadri
B) Himachal
C) Shivalik
D) Pir Panjal
Answer: D) Pir Panja - Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) President of India
(b) Vice President of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (b) Vice President of India - Which of the following is not a component of India’s money supply (M3)?
(a) Currency with the public
(b) Demand deposits with banks
(c) Time deposits with banks
(d) Other deposits with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Ans: (c) Time deposits with banks - Which gas is responsible for the greenhouse effect on Earth?
(a) Oxygen (O2)
(b) Nitrogen (N2)
(c) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(d) Hydrogen (H2)
Ans: (c) Carbon dioxide (CO2) - The Tropic of Cancer passes through which Indian states?
(a) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh
(b) Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha
(c) West Bengal, Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(d) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa
Ans: (a) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh - The headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) is located in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Paris, France
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (c) Paris, France - Which country became the 55th member of the African Union on January 30, 2024?
(a) Ethiopia
(b) Morocco
(c) Nigeria
(d) South Africa
Ans: (b) Morocco - The headquarters of the Universal Postal Union is located in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Berne, Switzerland
(d) Paris, France
Ans: (c) Berne, Switzerland - Kanwar Lake, a Ramsar site, is located in which state?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Bihar
(d) Assam
Ans: (c) Bihar - The headquarters of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is located in:
(a) Jakarta, Indonesia
(b) Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
(c) Bangkok, Thailand
(d) Hanoi, Vietnam
Ans: (a) Jakarta, Indonesia - The Judiciary in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Canada
Ans: (c) Government of India Act 1935 - The Administrative Details in the Indian Constitution are influenced by: (a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Canada
Ans: (c) Government of India Act 1935 - The provision for equal protection under the law in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: (a) USA - The President of India as the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Ireland
Ans: (a) USA - The idea of single citizenship in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: (b) UK - The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Ireland
Ans: (a) USA - The concept of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: (a) USA - The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Ireland
Ans: (d) Ireland - Which organization is responsible for maintaining international peace and security?
(a) United Nations (UN)
(b) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(d) World Health Organization (WHO)
Ans: (a) United Nations (UN) - Which river is the longest in the world?
(a) Nile
(b) Amazon
(c) Yangtze
(d) Mississippi
Ans: (a) Nile 3 - Which city is situated on the banks of the River Thames?
(a) Paris
(b) London
(c) Rome
(d) Berlin
Ans: (b) London - Which city in Rajasthan is known as the “Blue City” and “Sun City”?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Jodhpur
(c) Udaipur
(d) Ajmer
Ans: (b) Jodhpur - Which city in Maharashtra is known as the “Cotton City of India”?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Pune
(c) Akola
(d) Nagpur
Ans: (c) Akola - Which city in Bihar is known as the “Silk City”?
(a) Patna
(b) Muzaffarpur
(c) Bhagalpur
(d) Gaya
Ans: (c) Bhagalpur - Which city in Rajasthan is known as the “City of Lakes” and “White City”?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Jodhpur
(c) Udaipur
(d) Kota
Ans: (c) Udaipur - Which city in Kerala is known as the “Venice of the East”?
(a) Kochi
(b) Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Alappuzha
(d) Kozhikode
Ans: (c) Alappuzha - The Trans-Himalayan Mountains include which of the following ranges?
(a) Zaskar, Ladakh, Karakoram
(b) Himadri, Himachal, Shivalik
(c) Vindhya, Satpura, Aravalli
(d) Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, Nilgiri
Ans: (a) Zaskar, Ladakh, Karakoram - Which pass connects India to Tibet in the Sikkim region?
(a) Rohtang Pass
(b) Nathu La Pass
(c) Mana Pass
(d) Shipki La Pass
Ans: (b) Nathu La Pass - The Ladakh Plateau is located to the northeast of which range?
(a) Zanskar
(b) Karakoram
(c) Himadri
(d) Shivalik
Ans: (b) Karakoram - Which pass is known as the highest motorable pass in the world?
(a) Rohtang Pass
(b) Banihal Pass
(c) Khardung La Pass
(d) Jelep La Pass
Ans: (c) Khardung La Pass - Who authored the book “India@100: Envisioning Tomorrow’s Economic Powerhouse”?
(a) Piyush Goyal
(b) Prof. K V Subramanian
(c) Parimal Nathwani
(d) Sudipta Sengupta
Ans: (b) Prof. K V Subramanian - To whom did Rajya Sabha MP Parimal Nathwani present his book ‘Call of the Gir’?
(a) Piyush Goyal
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Venkaiah Naidu
(d) Dr. Jitendra Singh
Ans: (b) Narendra Modi - What is the title of the book about Sudipta Sengupta’s achievements in geology and mountaineering?
(a) India@100
(b) Breaking Rocks and Barriers
(c) Call of the Gir
(d) Power Within
Ans: (b) Breaking Rocks and Barriers - Which book discusses the corporate success of Jamsetji Tata?
(a) Power Within
(b) Call of the Gir
(c) Jamsetji Tata: Powerful Learnings For Corporate Success
(d) The Prisoner of Bhopal
Ans: (c) Jamsetji Tata: Powerful Learnings For Corporate Success - Who is the author of “Power Within: The Leadership Legacy of Narendra Modi”?
(a) Dr. R Balasubramaniam
(b) Prof. K V Subramanian
(c) Tim Walker
(d) Piyush Pandey
Ans: (a) Dr. R Balasubramaniam - Who authored the book “The Prisoner of Bhopal”?
(a) Tim Walker
(b) Parimal Nathwani
(c) R. Ashwin
(d) Alia Bhatt
Ans: (a) Tim Walker - What is the subject of Piyush Pandey’s book “Manoj Bajpayee: The Definitive Biography”?
(a) Economic Future of India
(b) Asiatic Lions
(c) Actor Manoj Bajpayee
(d) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Ans: (c) Actor Manoj Bajpayee - On which occasion did PM Modi release three books on Venkaiah Naidu?
(a) His 75th birthday
(b) India’s Independence Day
(c) Republic Day
(d) His resignation
Ans: (a) His 75th birthday - Who is the author of “Venkaiah Naidu: Life in Service”?
(a) Dr. I.V. Subba Rao
(b) Shri S Nagesh Kumar
(c) Sanjay Kishore
(d) Parimal Nathwani
Ans: (b) Shri S Nagesh Kumar - Which book released by Maharashtra Governor Ramesh Bais discusses the maritime history of Mumbai?
(a) Gateways to the Sea
(b) A Fly on the RBI Wall
(c) Call of the Gir
(d) Breaking Rocks and Barriers
Ans: (a) Gateways to the Sea - What is the title of Alia Bhatt’s debut children’s book?
(a) Ed Finds a Home
(b) The Prisoner of Bhopal
(c) Voices From The Grassroots
(d) The Winner’s Mindset
Ans: (a) Ed Finds a Home - Which cricketer authored “I Have the Streets: A Kutti Cricket Story”?
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) Shane Watson
(c) R. Ashwin
(d) Virat Kohli
Ans: (c) R. Ashwin - Who wrote “A Fly on the RBI Wall”?
(a) Alpana Killawala
(b) Dr. R Balasubramaniam
(c) Piyush Pandey
(d) Parimal Nathwani
Ans: (a) Alpana Killawala - What is the title of Bill Gates’ upcoming memoir?
(a) Power Within
(b) Source Code: My Beginnings
(c) Ed Finds a Home
(d) A Fly on the RBI Wall
Ans: (b) Source Code: My Beginnings - Who authored “The Winner’s Mindset”?
(a) R. Ashwin
(b) Shane Watson
(c) Tim Walker
(d) Prof. K V Subramanian
Ans: (b) Shane Watson - Which book was received by External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar?
(a) Power Within
(b) A Fly on the RBI Wall
(c) India’s Nuclear Titans
(d) The Prisoner of Bhopal
Ans: (c) India’s Nuclear Titans - Which Governor released “Heavenly Islands of Goa”?
(a) Maharashtra Governor
(b) Gujarat Governor
(c) Goa Governor
(d) Karnataka Governor
Ans: (c) Goa Governor - Who is the author of “Manoj Bajpayee: The Definitive Biography”?
(a) Tim Walker
(b) Piyush Pandey
(c) Sudipta Sengupta
(d) Prof. K V Subramanian
Ans: (b) Piyush Pandey - Who wrote “Voices From The Grassroots”?
(a) Dr. R Balasubramaniam
(b) Alia Bhatt
(c) Parimal Nathwani
(d) Tim Walker
Ans: (a) Dr. R Balasubramaniam - Which book on Venkaiah Naidu is a photo chronicle?
(a) Venkaiah Naidu: Life in Service
(b) Mahaneta: Life and Journey of Shri M. Venkaiah Naidu
(c) Celebrating Bharat: The Mission and Message of Shri M Venkaiah Naidu
(d) Power Within
Ans: (c) Celebrating Bharat: The Mission and Message of Shri M Venkaiah Naidu - What is the genre of “The Prisoner of Bhopal” by Tim Walker?
(a) Historical fiction
(b) Biography
(c) Children’s book
(d) Memoir
Ans: (a) Historical fiction - Who is the author of “Heavenly Islands of Goa”?
(a) P.S. Sreedharan Pillai
(b) Ramesh Bais
(c) Piyush Pandey
(d) Tim Walker
Ans: (a) P.S. Sreedharan Pillai - What is the focus of “Breaking Rocks and Barriers”?
(a) Sudipta Sengupta’s achievements
(b) Economic future of India
(c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s leadership
(d) Asiatic Lions
Ans: (a) Sudipta Sengupta’s achievements - Who is the author of “Call of the Gir”?
(a) Parimal Nathwani
(b) Tim Walker
(c) Piyush Pandey
(d) Dr. R Balasubramaniam
Ans: (a) Parimal Nathwani - Which book provides insights into the RBI’s transformation?
(a) A Fly on the RBI Wall
(b) The Winner’s Mindset
(c) Gateways to the Sea
(d) Source Code: My Beginnings
Ans: (a) A Fly on the RBI Wall - What is the subject of the book “Ed Finds a Home”?
(a) A child’s adventure
(b) A lion’s journey
(c) A cricket story
(d) Economic insights
Ans: (a) A child’s adventure - Who is the subject of “The Winner’s Mindset”?
(a) Shane Watson
(b) Bill Gates
(c) R. Ashwin
(d) Alia Bhatt
Ans: (a) Shane Watson - Which book delves into the life of a cricketing legend by R Ashwin?
(a) I Have the Streets: A Kutti Cricket Story
(b) The Winner’s Mindset
(c) Source Code: My Beginnings
(d) Manoj Bajpayee: The Definitive Biography
Ans: (a) I Have the Streets: A Kutti Cricket Story - Who authored “Voices From The Grassroots”?
(a) Dr. R Balasubramaniam
(b) Piyush Pandey
(c) Tim Walker
(d) Alpana Killawala
Ans: (a) Dr. R Balasubramaniam - Which book was released to commemorate the 40th anniversary of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
(a) The Prisoner of Bhopal
(b) Call of the Gir
(c) A Fly on the RBI Wall
(d) Power Within
Ans: (a) The Prisoner of Bhopal - ଯତ୍’ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ନିଷ୍ପନ୍ନ ଧାତୁକୁ କି ଧାତୁ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
A .ଣିଜନ୍ତ ଧାତୁ
B .ମୂଳଧାତୁ
C . ସନ୍ନନ୍ତ ଧାତୁ
D .ଯଡ଼ିତ ଧାତୁ
Ans: D .ଯଡ଼ିତ ଧାତୁ - କୁନ୍ତୀଙ୍ର ପୁତ୍ର- ଏକ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କଲେ କ’ଣ ହେବ ?
A. କୌନ୍ତେୟ
B. କୁନ୍ତୀଙ୍କ ପୁତ୍ର
C. ଅର୍ଜୁନ
D. ଯୋଦ୍ଧା
Ans: A. କୌନ୍ତେୟ - ‘ସନ୍’ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ନିଷ୍ପନ୍ନ ପଦକୁ କି ପଦ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
A .କୂଦନ୍ତ
B .ଣିଜନ୍ତୁ
C . ଯନ୍ତ
D .ସନ୍ନନ୍ତ
Ans: D .ସନ୍ନନ୍ତ - ଯେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦରୁ କୌରସି ଉପାୟରେ ଗୋଟିଏ ହେଲେ ବି ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ କାଟିହୁଏ ନାହିଁ, ତା’କୁ କି ଶବ୍ଦ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
A .ତଦ୍ଭବ
B . ବ୍ୟୁତ୍ପନ୍ନ
C . ତତ୍ସମ
D . ମୌଳିକ
Ans: B . ବ୍ୟୁତ୍ପନ୍ନଯେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦରୁ ଗୋଟିଏ ବର୍ଷ କାଟିଦେଲେ ତା’ର ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ | କ୍ଷମତା ଲୋପ ପାଏ, ତାକୁ କି ଶବ୍ଦ କୁହନ୍ତି ?
A .ମୌଳିକଶବ୍ଦ
B .ଯୌଗିକଶବ୍ଦ
C .ବ୍ୟୁତ୍ପନ୍ନଶବ୍ଦ
D . କଟିକ ଶବ୍ଦ
Ans: A .ମୌଳିକଶବ୍ଦ - କେଉଁଟିଏକଖାଦ୍ୟ ବିଶେଷ ଅଟେ ?
A .ଜୁଡା
B .ବୃଡା
C .ଚୁଡା
D .ଚୋଡ
Ans: C .ଚୁଡା - ଆତିଶଯ୍ୟ ଅର୍ଥ ବୁଝାଇବା ପାଇଁ ଧାତୁରେ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗ କରାଯାଏ ?
A .ସନ୍
B . କୃତ୍
C . ଣିଚ୍
D .ଯନ୍ତି
Ans: D .ଯନ୍ତି - କେଉଁଟି ତଦ୍ଭବ ଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ ବାଛି ଲେଖ ।
A . ଘୋଡା
B . ନଈ
C .ଆକାଶ
D .ଗଧ
Ans: C .ଆକାଶ - ‘ଟିକେଟ୍’ କେଉଁ ଭାଷାର ଶବ୍ଦ ଅଟେ ? ।
A . ଯାବନିକ
B . ଇଂରାଜୀ
C . ତୁର୍କୀ
D . ପର୍ତ୍ତୁଗୀଜ
Ans: B . ଇଂରାଜୀ - ଆହାର ଓ ବିହାର- ଉଭୟେ ହୁ ଧାତୁରୁ ଗଠିତ । ଏହି ଦୁଇଟିରେ ଅର୍ଥଗତ ପାର୍ଥକ୍ୟ କାହିଁକି ଦେଖାଯାଏ ?
A . ଧାତୁ ଯୋଗୁଁ
B . ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗୁଁ
C . ଉପସର୍ଗ ଯୋଗୁଁ
D . ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଓ ଜପସର୍ଗ ଯୋଗୁଁ
Ans: C . ଉପସର୍ଗ ଯୋଗୁଁ - କେଉଁଟି ଣିଜନ୍ତ ପଦ?
A .ଖାଇବା
B .ଖୁଆଇବା
C . ଖାଇଲା
D .ଖାଇବ
Ans: B .ଖୁଆଇବା - ‘ବର’ ଶବ୍ଦର ସ୍ତ୍ରୀଲିଙ୍କ ରୂପ କ’ଣ ହେବ ?
A .ଘରଣୀ
B . ଝିଅ
C .କନ୍ୟା
D .ସ୍ତ୍ରୀ
Ans: C .କନ୍ୟା - ବିପରୀତାର୍ଥବୋଧକଦୁଇଶବ୍ଦର ସଂଯୋଗରେ ଗଠିତ ଯୁଗ୍ମ ଶବ୍ଦ ବାଛି ଲେଖ ।।
A . କାମଦାମ
B .ଲେଖାଲେଖୁ
C .ଜୀବଜନ୍ତୁ
D .ବଡସାନ
Ans: D .ବଡସାନ - ଓଡିଆ ଭାଷାରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ବଚନ କେତେ ପ୍ରକାର ? ।
A .ପାଞ୍ଚ
B .ଦୁଇ
C . ଚାରି
D . ଛଅ
Ans: B .ଦୁଇ - କେଉଁଟି ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦ ? ‘ ‘।
A . ପାଳିତ
B . ପାଳନ
C . ପାଳନୀୟ
D . ପାଲିଲା
Ans: B . ପାଳନ - ଧାତୁର ପୂର୍ବରୁ ଯେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗ ହୁଏ, ତାକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
A . ପର ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
B .ପୂର୍ବ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ।
C . ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
D .ବିରକ୍ତି
Ans: B .ପୂର୍ବ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ । - ‘ଇନ୍ଦ୍ର’ ର ସ୍ତ୍ରୀଲିଙ୍ଗ ରୂପଟି କ’ଣ ?
A . ଇନ୍ଦ୍ରାବତୀ
B .ଇନ୍ଦ୍ରାଣୀ
C .ଇନ୍ଦ୍ରାଣୀ
D .ଐନ୍ଦ୍ରୀ
Ans: C .ଇନ୍ଦ୍ରାଣୀ - ପାଠ + ଉଆ = ପାଠୁଆ ।
ଏଥିରେ ଭିଆ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥରେ ହୋଇଛି ?
A. ଅଛି ଅର୍ଥରେ
B. ସଦୃଶ ଅର୍ଥରେ
C. ବୃରି ଅର୍ଥରେ
D. ସମ୍ପର୍କ ଅର୍ଥରେ
Ans: A. ଅଛି ଅର୍ଥରେ - ଶିବାନୀ-ଏଠାରେ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ପ୍ରୟୋଗ କରାଯାଇଛି ?
A .ଆନିପ୍
B . ଆନୀପ୍
C .ଆନୀ
D . ନୀ
Ans: C .ଆନୀ - କେଉଁଟି ବ୍ୟୁତ୍ପାଦିତ ପ୍ରକୃତିର ଶବ୍ଦ ?
A . ରାମ
B . ରାମକୁ
C .ଘର
D . ବହି
Ans: D . ବହି - ଓଡିଶାରେ ପ୍ରଚଳିତ ଦେଶଜ ଶବ୍ଦର କେତୋଟି ସ୍ତର ଅଛି ?
A . ଦ୍ବିବିଧ
B . ପଞ୍ଚବିଧ
C . ଚତୁର୍ବିଧ
D . ତ୍ରିବିଧ
Ans: D . ତ୍ରିବିଧ - ‘ଘୋଡା’ ଶବ୍ଦର ମୂଳ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶବ୍ଦଟି କ’ଣ ? ।
A .ଘୋଟକ
B .ଘଟକ
C .ଅଶ୍ଵ
D . ଗର୍ଭଭ
Ans: A .ଘୋଟକ - କେଉଁଟି ତତ୍ସମ ଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ ?
A .ପର୍ବତ
B . ସଂସାର
C . ଘିଅ
D . ନଦୀ
Ans: C . ଘିଅ - ଦୀପ’ କହିଲେ କାହାକୁ ବୁଝାଯାଏ?
A . ଆଲୋକ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରୁ ନଥିବା ବସ୍ତୁ
B .ସୁଳବେଷ୍ଟିତ ଜଳଭାଗ
C . ଆଲୋକପ୍ରଦାନ କରୁଥିବା ବସ୍ତୁ
D .ଜଳବେଷ୍ଟିତ ଭୁଖଣ୍ଡ .
Ans: C . ଆଲୋକପ୍ରଦାନ କରୁଥିବା ବସ୍ତୁ - ମୌଳିକ ଶବ୍ଦ ତଥା ଧାତୁକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
A .ମୂଳରୂପ
B .ପ୍ରକୃତି
C . ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ
D .ବ୍ୟାପନ୍ନ ଶବ୍ଦ
Ans: D .ବ୍ୟାପନ୍ନ ଶବ୍ଦ - ‘ଚଷମା’ – ଏହି ଶବ୍ଦଟି କେଉଁ ଭାଷାରୁ ଓଡିଆ ଭାଷାକୁ ଆସିଛି ?
A . ପର୍ତ୍ତୁଗୀଜ
B . ଯାବନିକ
C . ତୁର୍କୀ
D .ପାରସିକ
Ans: C . ତୁର୍କୀ - ‘ଚାଳିତ” ଶବ୍ଦର ମୂଳଧାତୁ କ’ଣ ?
A . ଚାଲ
B . ଚଳ
C .ଚାଳ
D . ଚାଲ୍
Ans: B . ଚଳ - କୃତ୍ୟ– ପ୍ରକୃତି ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ କ’ଣ ହେବ ?
A . କୁ + ତ୍ୟ
B . କୃତ୍ + ଯ
C . କୁ + କାପ୍
D . କୃତ + ଯ
Ans: C . କୁ + କାପ୍ - କେଉଁଟି ଏକ ଦ୍ରାବିଡ ଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ ?
A .ଅଡା
B .ଆରିସା
C . ଢିଙ୍କି
D . ଏଣ୍ଡୁରି
Ans: C . ଢିଙ୍କି - ଯେଉଁ ପଦରୁ ବସ୍ତର ବା ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିର ସଂଖ୍ୟା ଗୋଟିଏ ବୋଲି ଜଣାପଡେ, ତାହାକୁ କେଉଁ ବଚନ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
A . କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେ
B .ଏକବଚନ
C .ଦୁଇବଚନ
D .ବହୁବଚନ
Ans: B .ଏକବଚନ - ବିଜ୍ଞାପିତ’ – ଏହି ଶବ୍ଦଟିର ମୂଳଧାତୁସି କ’ଣ ?
A .କାପି
B . ଜ୍ଞାପ୍
C .ଜ୍ଞାନ
D .କା
Ans: D .କା - Avinash invested an amount of₹ 25000 and started a business. Jitendra joined him after one year with an amount of₹ 30000. After two years from starting the business they earned the profit of 46000. What will be Jitendra’s share in the profit?
(a) ₹14000
(b) ₹12000
(c)₹ 766.67
(d) None of these
Ans: (d) None of these - Mr. Nilesh Agrawal opened a workshop investing 40000. He invested additional amount of 10000 every year. After two years his brother Suresh joined him with an amount of 85000. Thereafter Suresh did not invest any additional amount. On completion of four years from the opening of workshop they earned an amount of 195000. What will be Nilesh’s share in the earning?
(a) ₹ 85000
(b) ₹110000
(c) ₹135000
(c) ₹95000
Ans: (b) ₹110000
- What is the average of the first 50 natural numbers?
(a) 24.5
(b) 25.5
(c) 26.5
(d) 27.5
Ans: (b) 25.5
Solution: Sum of the first 50 natural numbers = 50 * 51 / 2 = 1275. Average = 1275 / 50 = 25.5. - The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than zero?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 10
(d) 19
Ans: (d) 19
Solution: The sum of all 20 numbers is zero. To keep the average zero, the sum of positive numbers must be equal to the sum of negative numbers. At most 19 numbers can be positive if one number is large enough negative to balance them. - If the price of a book is increased by 20%, by what percentage should the sales price be decreased to bring it back to the original price?
(a) 16%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 10%
Ans: (a) 16%
Solution: Let the original price be 100. Increased price = 120. To bring it back to 100, the decrease should be
20/120×100=16.67% - A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net change in the number?
(a) 0%
(b) 4% increase
(c) 4% decrease
(d) 2% decrease
Ans: (c) 4% decrease
Solution: Let the number be 100. After a 20% increase, it becomes 120. After a 20% decrease, it becomes 120 – 24 = 96. Net change = 100 – 96 = 4% decrease. - What is the remainder when 7^103 is divided by 24?
(a) 1
(b) 7
(c) 19
(d) 23
Ans: (b) 7
Solution: Using Fermat’s Little Theorem,
7^3≡1, mod 24mod24. Therefore,
7 ^103 ≡7, mod24. - Find the largest 4-digit number which is divisible by 12, 15, and 18.
(a) 9900
(b) 9960
(c) 9990
(d) 9980
Ans: (b) 9960
Solution: LCM of 12, 15, and 18 is 180. Largest 4-digit number is 9999.
9999÷180=55.55. Nearest integer is 55.
55×180=9900. - A and B can complete a work in 15 and 20 days respectively. They work together for 4 days, then B leaves. In how many days will A finish the remaining work?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Ans: (d) 8
Solution: Work done by A and B in 4 days = (1/15+1/20)×4=7/15
Remaining work = 1−7/15=8/15
A can finish this in (8/15)/(1/15)=8 days. - Three workers A, B, and C can complete a work in 8, 10, and 12 days respectively. How many days will they take to complete the work together?
(a) 2
(b) 3.24
(c) 4.24
(d) 5
Ans: (b) 3.24
Solution: Work done per day by A, B, and C together =
1/8+1/10+1/12=37/120.
Total time taken = 120/37≈3.24=3.24 days. - Average Marks of Students
Student Marks A 80 B 70 C 90 D 85 What is the average marks of the students from the following table?
(a) 80
(b) 81
(c) 82
(d) 81.25Ans: (d) 81.25
Solution: Add up the marks and divide by the number of students: 80+70+90+854=3254=81.25\frac{80 + 70 + 90 + 85}/{4} = \frac{325}/{4} = 81.25
- If another student E is added to the list, making the new average of the marks equal to 81, what is the mark obtained by E?
- (a) 75
(b) 78
(c) 79
(d) 82
Ans: (b) 78
Solution: Current average = 80+70+90+854=3254=81.25\frac{80 + 70 + 90 + 85}{4} = \frac{325}{4} = 81.25. Let the mark obtained by E be x. New average = 81, thus 325+x5=81⇒325+x=405⇒x=78\frac{325 + x}/{5} = 81 \⇒325 + x = 405 \⇒x = .
- (a) 75
- If student A’s mark increases by 10% and student D’s mark decreases by 10%, what will be the new average mark of the students?
- (a) 81
(b) 81.1
(c) 82
(d) 82.5
Ans: (b) 81.1
Solution: New mark of A = 80 + 0.180 = 88, new mark of D = 85 – 0.185 = 76.5. New sum = 88 + 70 + 90 + 76.5 = 324.5. New average = 324.54=81.125≈81.5\frac{324.5}{4} = 81.125
- (a) 81
- If the marks of student C decrease by 15% and those of student B increase by 20%, what will be the new average mark of the students?
- (a) 79
(b)
(c) 81.75
(d) 82.25
Ans: (b)
Solution: New mark of C = 90 – 0.1590 = 76.5, new mark of B = 70 + 0.270 = 84. New sum = 80 + 84 + 76.5 + 85 = 325.5. New average = 325.54=81.375≈80.5\frac{325.5}{4} = 81.375 \
- (a) 79
- If a student F with a mark equal to the average mark of the original four students is added to the list, what will be the new average mark?
- (a) 80
(b) 81
(c) 82
(d) 83
Ans: (b) 81
Solution: Average mark of the original four students = 81. Mark of student F = 81. New sum = 80 + 70 + 90 + 85 + 81 = 406. New average = 4065=81.2≈81\frac{406}/{5} = 81.2 .
- (a) 80
- A car travels 250 miles in 5 hours. How many miles will it travel in 7 hours?
(a) 350
(b) 400
(c) 450
(d) 500
Ans: (b) 400
Solution: Multiply the distance traveled in 5 hours by 7/5. - What is the value of 3^4 × 3^2?
(a) 3^6
(b) 3^8
(c) 3^10
(d) 3^12
Ans: (a) 3^6
Solution: Use the property of exponents that states a^m × a^n = a^(m+n). - A bakery sells 250 loaves of bread at Rs. 20 each. If the cost price is Rs. 15 per loaf, what is the profit percentage?
(a) 25%
(b) 33.33%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Ans: (b) 33.33%
Solution: Calculate the profit and divide by the cost price, then multiply by 100. - What is the value of x in the equation 3x – 7 = 2x + 5?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: (c) 6
Solution: Add 7 to both sides, then subtract 2x from both sides. - A car travels from city A to city B at an average speed of 60 km/h and returns at an average speed of 40 km/h. What is the average speed for the entire journey?
(a) 48 km/h
(b) 50 km/h
(c) 52 km/h
(d) 55 km/h
Ans: (a) 48 km/h
Solution: Use the formula for average speed: (2xy)/(x+y)=(2*60*40)/(40+60)= 48km/h - A shop sells 200 units of a product at Rs. 50 each. If the cost price is Rs. 30 per unit, what is the profit percentage?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 66.67%
Ans: (d) 66.67%
Solution: Calculate the profit and divide by the cost price, then multiply by 100. - A bicycle costs Rs. 1200. If a 15% discount is offered, what is the new price?
(a) Rs. 960
(b) Rs. 1020
(c) Rs. 1020
(d) Rs. 1050
Ans: (b) Rs. 1020
Solution: Calculate 15% of the original price and subtract it from the original price. 1200-1200*15/100=1020 - A water tank can hold 5000 liters of water. If 2000 liters are already filled, what percentage is filled?
(a) 40%
(b) 45%
(c) 50%
(d) 55%
Ans: (a) 40%
Solution: Divide the amount filled by the total capacity and multiply by 100. 2000/5000*100=40% - A person invests Rs. 2000 at an interest rate of 12% per annum. How much will he earn in 3 years?
(a) Rs. 600
(b) Rs. 720
(c) Rs. 840
(d) Rs. 960
Ans: (c) Rs. 840
Solution: Calculate the interest for 3 years using the formula: (Principal x Rate x Time)/100 - A shop sells 200 units of a product at Rs. 100 each. If the cost price is Rs. 80 per unit, what is the profit percentage?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 30%
(d) 35%
Ans: (b) 25%
Solution: Calculate the profit and divide by the cost price, then multiply by 100. - A bag contains 50 P, 25 P, and 10 P coins in the ratio 5:9:4, amounting to Rs. 206. Find the number of coins of each type respectively.
(a) 360, 160, 200
(b) 160, 360, 200
(c) 200, 360, 160
(d) 200, 160, 300
Ans: (c) 200, 360, 160
Solution: Let the number of 50 P, 25 P, and 10 P coins be ( 5x ), ( 9x ), and ( 4x ) respectively. The total value is ( 50 \times 5x + 25 \times 9x + 10 \times 4x = 20600 ) paise. Solving for ( x ), we find ( x = 40 ). Therefore, the number of coins is 200, 360, and 160. - Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. What is the ratio of the two numbers?
(a) 2:5
(b) 3:5
(c) 4:5
(d) 5:4
Ans: (c) 4:5
Solution: Let the third number be ( x ). The first number is ( 1.2x ) and the second number is ( 1.5x ). The ratio is ( \frac{1.2x}{1.5x} = \frac{4}{5} ). - If the cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles, find the profit percentage.
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
Ans: (b) 25%
Solution: Let the cost price of one article be ( x ). Therefore, the cost price of 15 articles is ( 15x ) and the selling price of 12 articles is ( 15x ). Hence, the selling price of one article is ( \frac{15x}{12} = 1.25x ). Profit percentage = ( \frac{1.25x – x}{x} \times 100 = 25% ). - A TV was originally priced at $800. It is now being sold at a discount of 20%. What is the discounted price?
(a) $640
(b) $720
(c) $860
(d) $960
Ans: (a) $640
Solution: Discounted price = Original price — (Discount percentage * Original price). Discounted price = $800 — (20% * $800) = $800 — $160 = $640. - The average of five numbers is 32. If one of the numbers is 45, what is the average of the remaining numbers?
(a) 30
(b) 34
(c) 35
(d) 36
Ans: (c) 35 Solution: Sum of the five numbers = 32 * 5 = 160. Sum of the remaining four numbers = 160–45 = 115. Average of the remaining numbers = 115 / 4 = 28.75. - What does salinity in ocean water refer to?
(a) The total content of dissolved salts in the sea or ocean
(b) The temperature of ocean water
(c) The density of seawater
(d) The volume of water in the ocean
Ans: (a) The total content of dissolved salts in the sea or ocean - How is salinity generally expressed?
(a) Parts per million (ppm)
(b) Percentage (%)
(c) Parts per thousand (ppt)
(d) Grams per liter (g/L)
Ans: (c) Parts per thousand (ppt) - What is considered the upper limit of salinity for water to be classified as ‘brackish’?
(a) 24.7 ppt
(b) 24.7 %
(c) 30.0 ppt
(d) 35.0 ppt
Ans: (b) 24.7 % - Which of the following factors does NOT influence ocean surface salinity?
(a) Evaporation
(b) River inflow
(c) Earthquake
(d) Precipitation
Ans: (c) Earthquake - In polar regions, what process significantly influences surface salinity?
(a) Ocean currents
(b) Evaporation
(c) Freezing and melting of ice
(d) Wind patterns
Ans: (c) Freezing and melting of ice - Which water body has the highest salinity among the following?
(a) Dead Sea
(b) Lake Van
(c) Great Salt Lake
(d) Pacific Ocean
Ans: (b) Lake Van in Turkey - Which of the following is the most abundant salt in seawater?
(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Potassium sulphate
(d) Calcium sulphate
Ans: (b) Sodium chloride - What percentage of the dissolved salts in seawater is Sodium Chloride?
(a) 77.7%
(b) 10.9%
(c) 4.7%
(d) 2.5%
Ans: (a) 77.7% - Which salt contributes 10.9% of the total dissolved salts in seawater?
(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Potassium sulphate
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) Calcium sulphate
Ans: (a) Magnesium chloride - Which factor does NOT directly affect the salinity of ocean water?
(a) Wind patterns
(b) Ocean currents
(c) Amount of dissolved oxygen
(d) Precipitation
Ans: (c) Amount of dissolved oxygen - Which of the following rock types is considered the primary rock in the rock cycle?
(a) Sedimentary
(b) Metamorphic
(c) Igneous
(d) Magma
Ans: (c) Igneous - What is the primary process by which sedimentary rocks form?
(a) Crystallization
(b) Erosion and sedimentation
(c) Metamorphism
(d) Melting
Ans: (b) Erosion and sedimentation - Through which process can metamorphic rocks turn into igneous rocks?
(a) Subduction
(b) Erosion
(c) Crystallization
(d) Metamorphism
Ans: (a) Subduction - Which of the following processes is not directly involved in the rock cycle?
(a) Plate tectonics
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Erosion
(d) Crystallization
Ans: (b) Photosynthesis - The process by which old rocks are transformed into new ones is known as:
(a) Sedimentation
(b) The rock cycle
(c) Metamorphism
(d) Crystallization
Ans: (b) The rock cycle - Which type of rock forms when magma cools and solidifies?
(a) Sedimentary
(b) Metamorphic
(c) Igneous
(d) Lava
Ans: (c) Igneous - In which zone of plate tectonics do rocks often melt to form magma?
(a) Subduction zones
(b) Mid-ocean ridges
(c) Continental shelves
(d) River valleys
Ans: (a) Subduction zones - Which process involves the breaking down of rocks into smaller pieces?
(a) Metamorphism
(b) Crystallization
(c) Erosion
(d) Subduction
Ans: (c) Erosion - What drives the rock cycle by moving Earth’s plates?
(a) Ocean currents
(b) Gravity
(c) Plate tectonics
(d) Wind
Ans: (c) Plate tectonics - Metamorphism primarily occurs due to:
(a) High pressure and temperature
(b) Erosion
(c) Crystallization
(d) Subduction
Ans: (a) High pressure and temperature - Which of the following forces is NOT involved in physical or mechanical weathering?
(a) Gravitational forces
(b) Expansion forces
(c) Chemical reactions
(d) Water pressures
Ans: (c) Chemical reactions - What is the primary cause of fractures occurring parallel to the ground surface during physical weathering?
(a) Frost wedging
(b) Thermal expansion
(c) Pressure release due to unloading
(d) Salt crystallization
Ans: (c) Pressure release due to unloading - In which climate is diurnal temperature variation most effective in causing physical weathering?
(a) Humid tropical climates
(b) Arid climates
(c) Polar climates
(d) Subtropical climates
Ans: (b) Arid climates - The process of frost wedging is most effective in which of the following regions?
(a) Equatorial regions
(b) Glacial regions
(c) Desert regions
(d) Coastal regions
Ans: (b) Glacial regions - Which type of weathering is associated with the formation of exfoliation domes?
(a) Chemical weathering
(b) Biological weathering
(c) Salt weathering
(d) Unloading and expansion
Ans: (d) Unloading and expansion - What triggers the expansion of minerals within rocks due to temperature changes?
(a) Chemical reactions between minerals
(b) Growth of plant roots
(c) Repeated cycles of heating and cooling
(d) Constant high temperatures
Ans: (c) Repeated cycles of heating and cooling - Which of the following processes is most responsible for granular disintegration in rocks?
(a) Pressure release
(b) Frost wedging
(c) Salt crystallization
(d) Biological activity
Ans: (c) Salt crystallization - What is the key factor that influences the effectiveness of salt crystallization in weathering?
(a) High altitude
(b) Temperature range
(c) Soil moisture content
(d) Mineral composition of the rock
Ans: (b) Temperature range - In what type of rock does frost wedging most frequently occur?
(a) Igneous rocks
(b) Sedimentary rocks
(c) Metamorphic rocks
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - Which of the following best describes the impact of freezing on the weathering process?
(a) Rapid freezing causes contraction and tightens rock fractures
(b) Slow freezing leads to gradual expansion with little effect on rocks
(c) Rapid freezing causes expansion and increases pressure in cracks
(d) Freezing has no significant effect on weathering
Ans: (c) Rapid freezing causes expansion and increases pressure in cracks - What was the main proposal of the Wavell Plan regarding the Viceroy’s Executive Council?
(a) All members would be British
(b) The council would consist entirely of Indians except the Viceroy and the Commander-in-Chief
(c) The council would be composed entirely of Muslims
(d) The council would consist of both British and Indian members equally
Ans. (b) The council would consist entirely of Indians except the Viceroy and the Commander-in-Chief. - How many Muslim representatives were proposed in the Viceroy’s Executive Council under the Wavell Plan?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans. (b) 6 Muslim representatives. - Which portfolio was proposed to be transferred to an Indian member under the Wavell Plan?
(a) Defence
(b) Home Affairs
(c) Foreign Affairs
(d) Finance
Ans. (c) Foreign Affairs. - What was the purpose of the Shimla Conference convened by Lord Wavell?
(a) To finalize the transfer of power to Indians
(b) To discuss the formation of a new Indian government
(c) To create a constitution for independent India
(d) To discuss and finalize the members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council
Ans. (d) To discuss and finalize the members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council. - Why did the Shimla Conference fail?
(a) The British government did not support the Wavell Plan
(b) The Congress refused to attend the conference
(c) The League and the Congress could not settle their differences
(d) The plan was rejected by the Indian population
Ans. (c) The League and the Congress could not settle their differences. - What was Jinnah’s main demand at the Shimla Conference?
(a) Equal representation for Muslims and Hindus
(b) Recognition of the Muslim League as the sole representative of Indian Muslims
(c) More seats for Muslims in the Council
(d) The complete withdrawal of British forces from India
Ans. (b) Recognition of the Muslim League as the sole representative of Indian Muslims. - How did Congress react to Jinnah’s demand at the Shimla Conference?
(a) Congress accepted Jinnah’s demand
(b) Congress rejected Jinnah’s demand
(c) Congress proposed an alternative plan
(d) Congress walked out of the conference
Ans. (b) Congress rejected Jinnah’s demand. - What happened after the failure of the Shimla Conference?
(a) The Wavell Plan was implemented despite the failure
(b) The British government abandoned the idea of Indian independence
(c) The Wavell Plan was dissolved
(d) The Indian National Congress formed a parallel government
Ans. (c) The Wavell Plan was dissolved. - Which political leader was NOT invited to the Shimla Conference by Lord Wavell?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) M A Jinnah
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose
Ans. (d) Subhas Chandra Bose. - What was the significance of the Wavell Plan in the context of Indian independence?
(a) It successfully avoided the partition of India
(b) It was the last major attempt to form a government before partition
(c) It led directly to the independence of India
(d) It was the first plan to be rejected by both the Congress and the League
Ans. (b) It was the last major attempt to form a government before partition. - When was the Quit India Movement officially launched by the Indian National Congress?
(a) 15 August 1942
(b) 8 August 1942
(c) 26 January 1942
(d) 2 October 1942
Ans: (b) 8 August 1942 - Who was named the leader of the Quit India Movement by the Indian National Congress?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans: (c) Mahatma Gandhi - Which slogan was famously associated with the Quit India Movement?
(a) Jai Hind
(b) Inquilab Zindabad
(c) Swaraj is my birthright
(d) Do or Die
Ans: (d) Do or Die - What was the primary objective of the Quit India Movement?
(a) Establishing a parallel government
(b) Immediate end to British rule over India
(c) Demanding dominion status for India
(d) Abolishing the salt tax
Ans: (b) Immediate end to British rule over India - Which prominent leader was NOT in favor of the Quit India Movement and resigned from the INC?
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans: (b) C. Rajagopalachari - How did the British government initially respond to the Quit India Movement?
(a) Granted partial independence
(b) Negotiated with the INC
(c) Arrested all major Congress leaders
(d) Imposed martial law
Ans: (c) Arrested all major Congress leaders - Which section of the Indian population did Gandhi advise to ‘pay rent if the landlords are anti-government’?
(a) Soldiers
(b) Peasants
(c) Students
(d) Princes
Ans: (b) Peasants - Which region did NOT see significant activity during the Quit India Movement?
(a) UP
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Punjab
Ans: (d) Punjab - Which group did NOT support the Quit India Movement?
(a) Hindu Mahasabha
(b) Indian National Congress
(c) Indian National Army
(d) Princely states
Ans: (a) Hindu Mahasabha - Despite the suppression, what was one significant achievement of the Quit India Movement?
(a) Immediate independence for India
(b) Formation of a provisional government
(c) Strengthened the demand for complete independence
(d) British acceptance of Indian independence during the war
Ans: (c) Strengthened the demand for complete independence - Dr. Ambedkar represented which community during the First Round Table Conference?
(a) Hindus
(b) Muslims
(c) Depressed Classes
(d) Sikhs
Ans: (c) Depressed Classes - Why was Mahatma Gandhi opposed to the idea of a separate electorate for the Depressed Classes?
(a) He did not support the rights of the Depressed Classes
(b) He did not want the untouchables to be viewed as outside the folds of Hinduism
(c) He supported the British policy of divide and rule
(d) He wanted the Depressed Classes to have no representation
Ans: (b) He did not want the untouchables to be viewed as outside the folds of Hinduism - What was the outcome of the Poona Pact between Dr. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Separate electorates for Depressed Classes
(b) Reserved seats for Depressed Classes in provincial legislatures through joint electorates
(c) Complete independence for India
(d) Abolition of the caste system
Ans: (b) Reserved seats for Depressed Classes in provincial legislatures through joint electorates - How many seats were reserved for the Depressed Classes in the provincial legislatures as per the Poona Pact?
(a) 100
(b) 120
(c) 147
(d) 160
Ans: (c) 147 - What percentage of seats in the Central Legislature was reserved for the Depressed Classes under the Poona Pact?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 19%
(d) 25%
Ans: (c) 19% - Which province had the highest number of reserved seats for the Depressed Classes as per the Poona Pact?
(a) Bengal
(b) Madras
(c) United Provinces
(d) Bombay with Sindh
Ans: (b) Madras - Under the Poona Pact, how were candidates from the Depressed Classes selected for the general election?
(a) Through separate electorates
(b) By nomination
(c) Through an Electoral College
(d) By the British government
Ans: (c) Through an Electoral College - What was the duration for which the Poona Pact’s provisions were to be followed?
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
Ans: (b) 10 years - Which leader believed that the Poona Pact would lead to further fragmentation among the Depressed Classes?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Ambedkar
(d) Sardar Patel
Ans: (c) Dr. Ambedkar - The Poona Pact was met with strong reactions from which provinces due to its arrangements?
(a) Punjab and Bengal
(b) Madras and Bombay
(c) United Provinces and Central Provinces
(d) Assam and Bihar
Ans: (a) Punjab and Bengal - What are the symptoms of black arms in cotton?
(a) Dark red to black lesions
(b) Dark brown to black lesions
(c) Dark green to black lesions
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) Dark brown to black lesions - Kingfisher has which type of feet?
(a) Scratching type
(b) Raptorial type
(c) Perching type
(d) Wading type
Ans: (d) Wading type - What is the function of Meissner corpuscles?
(a) Touch sensations
(b) Sensation of warmth
(c) Sensation of coolness
(d) Pain sensations
Ans: (a) Touch sensations - What is the main function of the kidneys in the human body?
(a) Digestion
(b) Respiration
(c) Excretion
(d) Circulation
Ans: (c) Excretion - Which gas is responsible for the greenhouse effect?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen
Ans: (c) Carbon dioxide - What is the unit of electric current?
(a) Volt
(b) Ampere
(c) Ohm
(d) Watt
Ans: (b) Ampere - What is the process by which plants make their own food using sunlight?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Fermentation
(d) Transpiration
Ans: (a) Photosynthesis - Which gas is produced during photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen
Ans: (a) Oxygen - What is the chemical symbol for table salt?
(a) NaCl
(b) KCl
(c) CaCl2
(d) MgCl2
Ans: (a) NaCl - Which metal is the best conductor of electricity?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminum
(c) Iron
(d) Gold
Ans: (a) Copper - What is the largest mammal on Earth?
(a) Elephant
(b) Blue whale
(c) Giraffe
(d) Gorilla
Ans: (b) Blue whale - The process of conversion of water vapor into liquid water is called?
(a) Evaporation
(b) Condensation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Melting
Ans: (b) Condensation - What is the largest mammal on Earth?
(a) Elephant
(b) Blue whale
(c) Giraffe
(d) Gorilla
Ans: (b) Blue whale - The process of conversion of water vapor into liquid water is called?
(a) Evaporation
(b) Condensation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Melting
Ans: (b) Condensation - Which gas is responsible for the smell of rotten eggs?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Sulfur dioxide
(d) Methane
Ans: (c) Sulfur dioxide - What is the function of red blood cells in the human body?
(a) Transporting oxygen
(b) Fighting infections
(c) Clotting blood
(d) Producing hormones
Ans: (a) Transporting oxygen - What condition occurs when the body damages its own tissues in response to a severe infection?
(a) Sepsis
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Cholera
Ans: (a) Sepsis - Which of the following human organs is responsible for alcohol detoxification?
(a) Lung
(b) Liver
(c) Kidney
(d) Intestines
Ans: (b) Liver. - What substance is responsible for causing Arthritis in the joints of the body?
(a) Albumin
(b) Cholesterol
(c) Urea
(d) Uric acid
Ans: (d) Uric acid. - Dropsy disease is caused by the consumption of which substance?
(a) Mustard oil
(b) Kerosene oil
(c) Sugar
(d) Salt
Ans: (a) Mustard oil. - Diarrhoea is caused by which of the following vectors?
(a) Amoeba
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungus
(d) Rotavirus
Ans: (d) Rotavirus - What is the scientific name for the Arabian camel?
(a) Camelus dromedarius
(b) Camelus bactrianus
(c) Camelus camelus
(d) Camelus ferus
Ans: (a) Camelus dromedarius - Which family does the African elephant belong to?
(a) Loxodontidae
(b) Elephidae
(c) Elephantidae
(d) Loxodonta
Ans: (d) Loxodonta - To which taxonomic group does the albatross belong?
(a) Procellariiformes
(b) Diomedeidae
(c) Spheniscidae
(d) Laridae
Ans: (b) Diomedeidae - What is the species name for the alpaca?
(a) Vicugna pacos
(b) Lama glama
(c) Vicugna vicugna
(d) Lama pacos
Ans: (a) Vicugna pacos - Which species is commonly referred to as the Asian Elephant?
(a) Elephas maximus
(b) Loxodonta africana
(c) Elephas africanus
(d) Loxodonta cyclotis
Ans: (a) Elephas maximus - Which of the following is responsible for the fact that a tennis ball bounces higher at high altitudes than in plains?
(a) Low Gravity
(b) High Gravity
(c) Less dense air
(d) Low atmospheric temperature
Correct Ans: C Less dense air - Ohm is a unit of measuring _________?
(a) Resistance
(b) Voltage
(c) Current
(d) None of the above
Correct Ans: A Resistance - Which of the following is the SI unit of electric current?
(a) Ampere (a)
(b) Volt (V)
(c) Ohm (Ω)
(d) Joule (J)
Correct Ans: A Ampere (a) - What property of a material determines its resistance?
(a) Density
(b) Conductivity
(c) Volume
(d) Mass
Correct Ans: B Conductivity - Who is the Chief Minister responsible for Home, General Administration and Public Grievance, Information and Public Relations, Water Resources, Planning and Convergence?
(a) Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
(b) Pravati Parida
(c) Mohan Charan Majhi
(d) Suresh Pujari
Answer: (c) Mohan Charan Majhi - Who holds the position of Deputy Chief Minister responsible for Agriculture and Farmers’ Empowerment and Energy?
(a) Pravati Parida
(b) Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
(c) Mukesh Mahaling
(d) Rabi Narayan Naik
Answer: (b) Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo - Which Deputy Chief Minister is in charge of Women and Child Development, Mission Shakti, and Tourism?
(a) Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
(b) Pravati Parida
(c) Nityananda Gond
(d) Suresh Pujari
Answer: (b) Pravati Parida - Who is the Minister for Revenue and Disaster Management?
(a) Suresh Pujari
(b) Rabi Narayan Naik
(c) Nityananda Gond
(d) Krushna Chandra Patra
Answer: (a) Suresh Pujari - Who is responsible for Rural Development, Panchayati Raj and Drinking Water?
(a) Bibhuti Bhusan Jena
(b) Mukesh Mahaling
(c) Rabi Narayan Naik
(d) Prithviraj Harichandan
Answer: (c) Rabi Narayan Naik - Who handles School and Mass Education, ST & SC Development, Minorities & Backward Classes Welfare?
(a) Nityananda Gond
(b) Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
(c) Pravati Parida
(d) Suresh Pujari
Answer: (a) Nityananda Gond - Who is the minister for Food Supplies and Consumer Welfare, Science & Technology?
(a) Krushna Chandra Patra
(b) Mukesh Mahaling
(c) Prithviraj Harichandan
(d) Bibhuti Bhusan Jena
Answer: (a) Krushna Chandra Patra - Who is in charge of Law, Works, and Excise?
(a) Mukesh Mahaling
(b) Prithviraj Harichandan
(c) Bibhuti Bhusan Jena
(d) Dr. Krushna Chandra Mohapatra
Answer: (b) Prithviraj Harichandan - In which year did the first agitation against British rule occur in Khurda?
(a) 1799
(b) 1802
(c) 1804
(d) 1810
Answer: (c) 1804 - Who was the king during the first agitation in Khurda against British rule?
(a) Mukunda Deva I
(b) Mukunda Deva II
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Raja Gopabandhu Das
Answer: (b) Mukunda Deva II - What form did the early agitation against British rule take in Odisha?
(a) Peaceful protests
(b) Negotiations
(c) Armed resistance
(d) Cultural revival
Answer: (c) Armed resistance - Which of the following terms best describes the initial phase of the freedom struggle in Odisha?
(a) Collaboration
(b) Cooperation
(c) Resistance
(d) Submission
Answer: (c) Resistance - What is the birthdate of Aykrushana Mohapatra, also known as Jayee Rajguru, a prominent freedom fighter from Odisha?
(a) 29th October, 1769
(b) 29th October, 1739
(c) 29th November, 1739
(d) 29th September, 1769
Answer: (b) 29th October, 1739 - In which village was Jayee Rajguru born?
(a) Puri
(b) Biraharekrushnapur
(c) Chandipur
(d) Bhubaneswar
Answer: (b) Biraharekrushnapur - What was Jayee Rajguru’s original name?
(a) Aykrushana Mohapatra
(b) Jayakrushna Rajguru Mahapatra
(c) Haramani Devi
(d) Chand Rajguru
Answer: (b) Jayakrushna Rajguru Mahapatra - How is Jayee Rajguru commonly remembered in Indian history?
(a) The first Prime Minister of India
(b) A famous poet
(c) A prominent freedom fighter
(d) A renowned scientist
Answer: (c) A prominent freedom fighter - Which body of water borders Odisha on the east?
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Pacific Ocean
Answer: (c) Bay of Bengal - Between which parallels of latitude is Odisha located?
(a) 15.49’N and 20.34’N
(b) 16.49’N and 22.34’N
(c) 17.49’N and 23.34’N
(d) 17.49’N and 22.34’N
Answer: (d) 17.49’N and 22.34’N - Which two states border Odisha on the west and the south respectively?
(a) Telangana and Tamil Nadu
(b) Chhattisgarh and Tamil Nadu
(c) Chhattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh and Telangana
Answer: (c) Chhattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh - What is the total length of Odisha’s coastline?
(a) About 300 kms
(b) About 350 kms
(c) About 400 kms
(d) About 450 kms
Answer: (d) About 450 kms - Between which meridians of longitude is Odisha located?
(a) 81.27’E and 87.29’E
(b) 80.27’E and 86.29’E
(c) 79.27’E and 85.29’E
(d) 82.27’E and 88.29’E
Answer: (a) 81.27’E and 87.29’E - Which state shares its border with Odisha in the west and northwest?(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) West Bengal
Answer: (c) Chhattisgarh - Which state shares its border with Odisha in the north-east?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer: (a) West Bengal - Which state shares its border with Odisha in the north?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Rajasthan
Answer: (c) Jharkhand - Which state shares its border with Odisha in the south?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Kerala
Answer: (b) Andhra Pradesh - What is the total area of Odisha in square kilometers?
(a) 1,55,707 km²
(b) 1,45,607 km²
(c) 1,35,707 km²
(d) 1,65,707 km²
Answer: (a) 1,55,707 km² - Which East Indian region was Odisha known to due to maritime trade relations?
(a) China
(b) East Indies
(c) Persia
(d) Arabian Peninsula
Answer: (b) East Indies - In which year did the armies of the Sultanate of Bengal conquer the region?
(a) 1450 CE
(b) 1505 CE
(c) 1568 CE
(d) 1650 CE
Answer: (c) 1568 CE - Who led the armies of the Sultanate of Bengal during the conquest of the region?
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Kalapahad
(c) Sher Shah Suri
(d) Shah Jahan
Answer: (b) Kalapahad - By which year had Odisha completely passed to the Mughal Empire?
- (a) 1593
(b) 1650
(c) 1700
(d) 1751
Answer: (a) 1593
- (a) 1593
- A clock shows the time as 3:15. What is the angle between the hour and minute hands?
(a) 37.5 degrees
(b) 32.5 degrees
(c) 35 degrees
(d) 40 degrees
Ans: (a) 37.5 degrees
Sol: The angle between the hour and minute hands = |(30*hour – (11/2)minutes)| = |(30*3 – (11/2)*15)| = |90 – 82.5| = 37.5 degrees. - If a man is facing north and turns 135 degrees clockwise, which direction is he facing now?
(a) East
(b) South-East
(c) South-West
(d) North-East
Ans: (b) South-East
Sol: Turning 135 degrees clockwise from north will place him facing South-East. - In a group of 30 people, 18 like coffee, 20 like tea, and 12 like both. How many people like only coffee?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Ans: (b) 8
Sol: Using the formula for exclusive set calculation: Only coffee = Total coffee – Both = 18 – 12 = 6. - A group of 5 friends A, B, C, D, and E are seated in a row. C is not at the ends, and A is to the left of D. If B is to the right of C, who is seated at the extreme right?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
Ans: (b) B
Sol: Arranging them according to the conditions, B will be at the extreme right. - If all the letters in the word “PARTICIPATE” are rearranged, which of the following words is NOT possible?
(a) RAPTICEPIA
(b) TARPICEIPA
(c) ACTEIRPPAI
(d) ARTEIPICPA
Ans: (c) ACTEIRPPAI
Sol: The word “ACTEIRPPAI” is not a rearrangement of “PARTICIPATE” because it does not match the number of occurrences of each letter. - In a certain language, “SUCCESS” is written as “TVDDFTT.” How is “PROGRESS” written in that language?
(a) QSPHFTT
(b) QSPHGTU
(c) QTHHFTT
(d) QTHHFTU
Ans: (a) QSPHFTT
Sol: Each letter is shifted forward by one place in the alphabet: S → T, U → V, C → D, E → F. Similarly, P → Q, R → S, O → P, G → H, R → S, E → F, S → T. - A man is facing west and turns 270 degrees clockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) East
(b) South
(c) North
(d) West
Ans: (b) South
Sol: Turning 270 degrees clockwise from west will place him facing south. - If 5 cats can catch 5 mice in 5 minutes, how many cats are needed to catch 100 mice in 100 minutes?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
Ans: (a) 5
Sol: The number of cats needed remains the same since the rate of catching mice remains constant. - Choose the odd one out: Cherry, Apple, Banana, Grape
(a) Cherry
(b) Apple
(c) Banana
(d) Grape
Ans: (c) Banana
Sol: Banana is the only fruit that is technically a berry, while others are not. - If a clock shows the time as 8:00 PM, what is the angle between the hour and minute hands?
(a) 240 degrees
(b) 120 degrees
(c) 180 degrees
(d) 90 degrees
Ans: (a) 240 degrees
Sol: The angle between the hour and minute hands = |(30*hour – (11/2)minutes)| = |(308 – (11/2)*0)| = 240 degrees. - In a sequence, each term after the first is obtained by adding the next prime number. If the first term is 2, what is the 5th term?
(a) 20
(b) 18
(c) 22
(d) 16
Ans: (a) 20
Sol: Sequence: 2 (first term) → 2 + 2 (next prime) = 4 → 4 + 3 = 7 → 7 + 5 = 12 → 12 + 7 = 19. The 5th term is 20. - If “A” is coded as “Z,” “B” is coded as “Y,” and so on, what is the code for “M”?
(a) N
(b) O
(c) L
(d) K
Ans: (c) L
Sol: The code is a reverse alphabetical order, so M (13th from the start) is coded as L (13th from the en(d). - Find the missing number in the series: 2, 5, 10, 17, __, 37
(a) 24
(b) 25
(c) 26
(d) 27
Ans: (b) 26
Sol: The pattern is n^2 + 1: 1^2 + 1 = 2, 2^2 + 1 = 5, 3^2 + 1 = 10, 4^2 + 1 = 17, 5^2 + 1 = 26. - Complete the analogy:
3: 9:: 4:?
Options:
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 6
Ans:- (b) 12
Sol:- The relationship between 3 and 9 is that 3 squared equals 9. Similarly, 4 squared equals 16. Therefore, the correct Answer is 12 because it is the square of 4. - Complete the analogy:
5 : 25:: 6:?
Options:
(a) 31
(b) 36
(c) 30
(d) 29
Ans:- (b) 36
Sol:- The relationship between 5 and 25 is that 5 squared equals 25. Similarly, 6 squared equals 36. Therefore, the correct Answer is 36. - Complete the analogy:
8: 64:: 10:?
Options:
(a) 100
(b) 80
(c) 120
(d) 64
Ans:- (a) 100
Sol:- The relationship between 8 and 64 is that 8 squared equals 64. Similarly, 10 squared equals 100. Therefore, the correct Answer is 100. - Complete the analogy:
2: 8:: 6:?
Options:
(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 36
Ans:- (c) 24 - What is the logical and meaningful arrangement of the following words?
1.Knee
2.Heel
3.Ankle
4.Thigh
5.Calf
(a) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
(b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
(c) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
(d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
Ans: (d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
Sol. The correct sequence from bottom to top is Heel → Ankle → Calf → Knee → Thigh. - Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order:
1.Gateway of India
2.World
3.Mumbai
4.India
5.Maharashtra
(a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
(b) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
(c) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
(d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
Ans: (b) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
Sol. The correct logical order is World → India → Maharashtra → Mumbai → Gateway of India. - What is the logical and meaningful order for the following words?
1.Bronze
2.Gold
3.Silver
4.Platinum
5.Iron
(a) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
(d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans: (b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
sol. The correct logical order based on increasing value is Iron → Bronze → Silver → Gold → Platinum. - Arrange the given words in a logical and meaningful order:
Writing
1.Book
2.Seller
3.Idea
4.Feedback
5.Reader
(a) 4, 1, 2, 3, 6, 5
(b) 4, 1, 2, 6, 3, 5
(c) 4, 1, 3, 6, 5, 2
(d) 4, 1, 2, 6, 5, 3
Ans: (d) 4, 1, 2, 6, 5, 3
Sol. The correct sequence is Idea → Book → Seller → Reader → Feedback. - What is the logical and meaningful order for the following?
1.World Cup Semi Final Matches
2.World Cup Finals Match
3.Organizing the World Cup
4.Finalizing the participating teams
5.Winner of the World Cup
(a) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(d) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
Ans: (c) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
Sol; The correct sequence is Finalizing the participating teams → Organizing the World Cup → World Cup Semi-Final Matches → World Cup Finals Match → Winner of the World Cup. - Choose the word that is most similar to the given word: “Sunrise”
(a) Moonrise
(b) Sunset
(c) Nightfall
(d) Dawn
Ans: (d) Dawn
Sol: The closest synonym for “sunrise” is “dawn,” which refers to the time of day when the sun rises. - Identify the word that is different from the others:
(a) Apple
(b) Mango
(c) Orange
(d) Potato
Ans: (d) Potato
Sol: Apple, mango, and orange are fruits, while potato is a vegetable. - A cube is given with each side numbered 1 through 6. If the cube is rotated such that the 1st face becomes the top face and the 6th face remains at the bottom, which face will be at the front?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans: (b) 3
Sol: Given the top and bottom faces, rotating the cube such that 1 and 6 are maintained, the only remaining possible front face is 3. - In a sequence of numbers, find the missing number: 3, 6, 9, __, 15
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Ans: (c) 12
Sol: The pattern involves adding 3 each time: 3 + 3 = 6, 6 + 3 = 9, 9 + 3 = 12, 12 + 3 = 15. - If you are facing north and turn 90 degrees to your right, which direction will you be facing?
(a) South
(b) East
(c) West
(d) North
Ans: (b) East
Sol: Turning 90 degrees to the right from facing north will point you in the direction of east. - Which of the following shapes does not belong in the group?
(a) Circle
(b) Rectangle
(c) Square
(d) Triangle
Ans: (a) Circle
Sol: The other three shapes (rectangle, square, and triangle) have straight lines, while a circle is round. - Which shape can be created by folding a square piece of paper diagonally and then folding it in half again?
(a) Square
(b) Rectangle
(c) Triangle
(d) Hexagon
Ans: (c) Triangle
Sol: Folding a square piece of paper diagonally twice results in a triangle shape. - John needs to catch a flight that departs at 3:00 PM. It takes him 45 minutes to get to the airport, and he needs to arrive one hour before the flight departs. At what time should he leave home?
(a) 1:00 PM
(b) 1:15 PM
(c) 1:30 PM
(d) 2:00 PM
Ans: (b) 1:15 PM
Sol: John needs to arrive at the airport by 2:00 PM (one hour before the flight). Since it takes him 45 minutes to get there, he should leave home at 1:15 PM. - Given the sequence of letters: A, C, E, G, __, what is the next letter?
(a) H
(b) I
(c) J
(d) K
Ans: (b) ISol: The sequence progresses by skipping one letter each time: A to C (skip (b), C to E (skip (d), E to G (skip F), and then G to I (skip H). So, the next letter in the sequence is I. - What was the GST collection amount in June 2024, and what was the year-on-year growth rate?
(a) Rs 1.74 trillion, 7.7%
(b) Rs 1.50 trillion, 8.5%
(c) Rs 1.60 trillion, 7.2%
(d) Rs 1.80 trillion, 6.8%
S1. Ans. (a) Rs 1.74 trillion, 7.7% - What was the core sector growth rate for May 2024?
(a) 6.3%
(b) 7.0%
(c) 5.5%
(d) 6.8%
S2. Ans. (a) 6.3% - How much did India’s exports total in June 2024, and what was the import amount for the same month?
(a) Exports: USD 65.47 billion, Imports: USD 73.47 billion
(b) Exports: USD 70.00 billion, Imports: USD 75.00 billion
(c) Exports: USD 62.00 billion, Imports: USD 70.00 billion
(d) Exports: USD 68.00 billion, Imports: USD 72.00 billion
S3. Ans. (a) Exports: USD 65.47 billion, Imports: USD 73.47 billion - What was the annual inflation rate for the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in June 2024?
(a) 3.36%
(b) 3.50%
(c) 3.20%
(d) 3.10%
S4. Ans. (a) 3.36% - What is the IMF’s revised GDP growth forecast for India for 2024-25?
(a) 7%
(b) 6.5%
(c) 7.5%
(d) 6.8%
S5. Ans. (a) 7% - According to FICCI, what is the projected GDP growth rate for India in 2024-25?
(a) 7%
(b) 6.8%
(c) 7.2%
(d) 6.5%
S6. Ans. (a) 7% - What are the key figures outlined in the Union Budget 2024-25 for expenditure, receipts, and fiscal deficit?
(a) Expenditure: ₹48.21 lakh crore, Receipts: ₹32.07 lakh crore, Fiscal Deficit: 4.9%
(b) Expenditure: ₹50 lakh crore, Receipts: ₹30 lakh crore, Fiscal Deficit: 5%
(c) Expenditure: ₹45 lakh crore, Receipts: ₹33 lakh crore, Fiscal Deficit: 4.5%
(d) Expenditure: ₹47 lakh crore, Receipts: ₹31 lakh crore, Fiscal Deficit: 5.2%
S7. Ans. (a) Expenditure: ₹48.21 lakh crore, Receipts: ₹32.07 lakh crore, Fiscal Deficit: 4.9% - How much capital expenditure has been allocated to Indian Railways for the fiscal year 2024-25?
(a) Rs 2,62,200 crore
(b) Rs 2,50,000 crore
(c) Rs 2,75,000 crore
(d) Rs 2,60,000 crore
S8. Ans. (a) Rs 2,62,200 crore - What does NCAER project for India’s GDP growth in fiscal 2025?
(a) Over 7%
(b) 6.5%
(c) 7.2%
(d) 6.8%
S9. Ans. (a) Over 7% - What was the percentage increase in digital payments as of March 31, 2024, according to the RBI?
(a) 12.6%
(b) 10.5%
(c) 14.2%
(d) 11.8%
S10. Ans. (a) 12.6% - What is the most widely used tool of monetary policy?
(a) Issuing of notes
(b) Open market operations
(c) Discount rate
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Sol: Open market operations involve the buying and selling of government securities. They are flexible and thus the most frequently used tool of monetary policy. - What is the meaning of Repo Rate?
(a) When a bank is in need of cash it can discount bills of exchange and avail loan facilities from the Reserve Bank of India.
(b) When a bank has excess cash, they buy securities from RBI against cash on the condition that they resell the securities to RBI on a pre-fixed day and price
(c) It is the rate at which RBI allows temporary loan facilities to commercial banks against government securities on the condition that the bank will repurchase the securities within a short period.
(d) It is a rate that is offered by banks to their most valued customers or prime customers.
Ans. (c)
Sol: Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank of a country (Reserve Bank of India in the case of India) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds. Repo rate is used by monetary authorities to control inflation. - When RBI does some open market operation transactions, it wishes to regulate which of the following?
(a) Inflation
(b) Supply of money in the economy
(c) Borrowing power of the commercial banks
(d) A & B
Ans. (d)
Sol: When the Central Bank wants to infuse liquidity into the monetary system, it buys government securities in the open market, providing liquidity to commercial banks. Conversely, selling securities curbs liquidity. Thus, the Central Bank indirectly controls the money supply and influences short-term interest rates. - When the cash reserve ratio (CRR) is increased by the RBI, it will:
(a) Increase the supply of money in the economy
(b) Decrease the supply of money in the economy
(c) No impact on the supply of money in the economy
(d) Initially increase the supply but later on decrease automatically
Ans. (b)
Sol: When RBI increases the CRR, fewer funds are available with banks as they have to keep larger portions of their cash with RBI. This leads to a decrease in the money supply. - Banking sector comes under which of the following sectors?
(a) Manufacturing sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Service sector
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Sol: The Service Sector, also called the tertiary sector, includes banking along with activities such as retail, education, and healthcare. - Open Market Operations means:
(a) Sale of agricultural products in the government regulated Mandis.
(b) Sale and purchase of bonds and securities to the commercial banks by the RBI.
(c) Sale and purchase of bonds and securities by the RBI to the government.
(d) Sale and purchase of bonds and securities by the commercial banks to the customers.
Ans. (b)
Sol: Open market operations (OMO) refer to the RBI buying and selling government securities to regulate the money supply in banks. - Which of the following is the recently opened bank in India?
(a) IDFC
(b) Bandhu
(c) Axis
(d) Gunjan
Ans. (a)
Sol: IDFC First Bank, headquartered in Mumbai, began operations on October 1, 2015. - BASEL NORMS are related to the:
(a) Insurance sector
(b) Telecommunication
(c) Real estate
(d) Banking sector
Ans. (d)
Sol: Basel norms, or Basel accords, are international banking regulations issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, aiming to strengthen the global banking system. - Which of the following is not a monetary tool?
(a) CRR
(b) SLR
(c) Deficit financing
(d) Open market operations
Ans. (c)
Sol: Deficit financing involves generating funds to cover a budget deficit, not a monetary policy tool. Monetary tools include CRR, SLR, and open market operations. - How much interest is paid by the RBI on the money deposited under the CRR measure?
(a) Equal to the rate of CRR
(b) More than the CRR
(c) Less than the CRR
(d) No interest is paid by the RBI
Ans. (d)
Sol: The RBI does not pay interest on the money deposited by banks under the CRR measure. - What option does the central government not include in the development expenditure?
(a) Grants to states
(b) Expenditure on social and community services
(c) Expenditure on economic services
(d) Defence expenditure
Sol. (d) - Which of the following defines depreciation?
(a) Destruction of a plant in a fire accident
(b) Loss of equipment over time due to wear and tear
(c) Closure of a plant due to labour trouble
(d) Closure of a plant due to lockout
Sol. (b) - Generally, deficit financing can create inflation. However, it can be checked if _________.
(a) government expenditure increases the aggregate supply in the aggregate demand ratio.
(b) all the investment is indicated as payment on national debt only.
(c) only the aggregate demand is increased.
(d) All of the above
Sol. (d) - With which of the following did the ARDC merge on 12 July, 1982?
(a) NABARD
(b) EXIM Bank
(c) RBI
(d) None of the above
Sol. (a) - What is the main cause of the export surplus?
(a) The country’s stringent import policy
(b) Developments in national and international markets
(c) The country’s exports promotion value
(d) None of the above
Sol. (b) - If RBI reduces the cash reserve ratio, what will happen to the credit creation?
(a) There will be no impact.
(b) It will decrease.
(c) It will increase.
(d) None of the above
Sol. (c) - Which option is not mentioned in a firm’s balance sheet?
(a) Cash held at the bank
(b) Revenue from sales of the company’s products
(c) Total issued capital
(d) Value of the stocks of raw materials held
Sol. (b) - Which of the following does the state financial corporation in the State Bank of India give special assistance to?
(a) Medium and small-scale industries
(b) Large-scale industries
(c) Cottage industry
(d) Agricultural farms
Sol. (a) - Which of the following are the central cooperative banks directly associated with?
(a) Central government
(b) Land development banks
(c) State cooperative banks
(d) Farmers
Sol. (c) - The first complete Indian Bank was established in which year?
(a) 1794
(b) 1894
(c) 1896
(d) 1902
Sol. (b) - Who was the ruler of Kalinga when it was conquered by Mahapadmananda?
(a) Ashoka
(b) Janmejaya I
(c) Meghavahana
(d) Mahapadmananda
S1. Ans. (d) Mahapadmananda - In which year did the Kalinga War, leading to the conquest by Ashoka, take place?
(a) 100 BCE
(b) 350 CE
(c) 261 BCE
(d) 845 CE
S2. Ans. (c) 261 BCE - Which dynasty was established by Meghavahana around 100 BCE in Kalinga?
(a) Somavamsis
(b) Ganga
(c) Mahameghavahana
(d) Sailodbhava
S3. Ans. (c) Mahameghavahana - Who conquered Kalinga in 350 CE?
(a) Hiuen-Tsang
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Ashoka
(d) Mahapadmananda
S4. Ans. (b) Samudragupta - Which famous Chinese traveler visited Odra/Udra in 639 CE?
(a) Fa-Hien
(b) Hiuen-Tsang
(c) I-tsing
(d) Marco Polo
S5. Ans. (b) Hiuen-Tsang - The Parashurameshvara temple in Odisha was built around 650 CE by which rulers?
(a) Somavamsis
(b) Mahameghavahana
(c) Sailodbhava
(d) Ganga
S6. Ans. (c) Sailodbhava - Who was the first female ruler of Kalinga, and when did she ascend the throne?
(a) Tribhuvana Mahadevi, 845 CE
(b) Rani Rudrama Devi, 882 CE
(c) Queen Ganga Mahadevi, 1038 CE
(d) Queen Lingaraj Devi, 1100 CE
S7. Ans. (a) Tribhuvana Mahadevi, 845 CE - Janmejaya I, who established the Somavamsis Dynasty, began his rule in which year?
(a) 882 CE
(b) 100 BCE
(c) 639 CE
(d) 261 BCE
S8. Ans. (a) 882 CE - The famous Lingaraj temple in Bhubaneswar was constructed around 1100 CE by which dynasty?
(a) Mahameghavahana
(b) Sailodbhava
(c) Ganga
(d) Somavamsi
S9. Ans. (d) Somavamsi - The Ganga dynasty, also known as the Eastern Ganga Dynasty, was established in which year?
(a) 350 BCE
(b) 1038 CE
(c) 1100 CE
(d) 882 CE
S10. Ans. (b) 1038 CE - In which year did Chodagangadeva shift the capital from Kalinganagara to Kataka?
(a) 1135 CE
(b) 1250 CE
(c) 1278 CE
(d) 1434 CE
S11. Ans. (a) 1135 CE - The Konark Temple was built by Narasimhadeva I in:
(a) 1278 CE
(b) 1135 CE
(c) 1250 CE
(d) 1434 CE
S12. Ans. (c) 1250 CE - Which queen was responsible for the construction of the Ananta Vasudeva temple in 1278 CE?
(a) Queen Chandrika
(b) Queen Rudramba
(c) Queen Ahilyabai
(d) Queen Sita Devi
S13. Ans. (a) Queen Chandrika - The Gajapati Dynasty was established in which year by Kapilendra Deva?
(a) 1522 AD
(b) 1434 CE
(c) 1568 AD
(d) 1541 AD
S14. Ans. (b) 1434 CE - Krishnadevaraya invaded Udayagiri in:
(a) 1522 AD
(b) 1568 AD
(c) 1513 AD
(d) 1590 AD
Ans. (c) 1513 ADQ16. Who invaded Odisha in 1522 AD?
(a) Krishnadevraya
(b) Quli Qutb Shah
(c) Sulaiman Khan Karani
(d) Govinda Vidyadhara
Ans. (b) Quli Qutb Shah - The Bhoi Dynasty was founded by whom in 1541 AD?
(a) Narasimhadeva I
(b) Kapilendra Deva
(c) Govinda Vidyadhara
(d) Sulaiman Khan Karani
Ans. (c) Govinda Vidyadhara - Sulaiman Khan Karani founded which dynasty in 1568 AD?
(a) Gajapati Dynasty
(b) Bhoi Dynasty
(c) Karani Dynasty
(d) Maratha Dynasty
Ans. (c) Karani Dynasty - The Battle of Raj Mahal, where the Mughals established their rule in Odisha, took place in:
(a) 1590 AD
(b) 1576 AD
(c) 1513 AD
(d) 1434 CE
Ans. (b) 1576 AD - In which year did the Mughals take control of Puri and the coastal areas?
(a) 1541 AD
(b) 1568 AD
(c) 1590 AD
(d) 1278 CE
Ans. (c) 1590 AD - In which year did Jahangir separate Odisha from Bengal?
(a) 1606 AD
(b) 1625 AD
(c) 1633 AD
(d) 1703 AD
Ans. (a) 1606 AD - When did Odisha pass into the hands of the Naib Nazims of Bengal?
(a) 1703 AD
(b) 1751 AD
(c) 1765 AD
(d) 1803 AD
Ans. (a) 1703 AD - When did the Maratha rule in Odisha begin?
(a) 1606 AD
(b) 1703 AD
(c) 1751 AD
(d) 1803 AD
Ans. (c) 1751 AD - What year did the Portuguese establish settlements in the Balasore district of Odisha?
(a) 1606 AD
(b) 1625 AD
(c) 1703 AD
(d) 1765 AD
Ans. (b) 1625 AD - When was the first British settlement established at Hariharpur?
(a) 1625 AD
(b) 1633 AD
(c) 1765 AD
(d) 1804 AD
Ans. (b) 1633 AD - In which year did Robert Clive acquire Diwani rights of Odisha?
(a) 1751 AD
(b) 1765 AD
(c) 1803 AD
(d) 1817 AD
Ans. (b) 1765 AD - When did the English occupy Barabati Fort near Cuttack?
(a) 1765 AD
(b) 1803 AD
(c) 1804 AD
(d) 1817 AD
Ans. (b) 1803 AD - In which year did the Khorda Rebellion, led by Jayee Krushna Rajguru, occur?
(a) 1765 AD
(b) 1803 AD
(c) 1804 AD
(d) 1817 AD
Ans. (c) 1804 AD - When did Major Broughton acquire Sambalpur?
(a) 1765 AD
(b) 1803 AD
(c) 1804 AD
(d) 1817 AD
Ans. (c) 1804 AD - In which year did the Paika Rebellion, led by Bakshi Jagabandhu, take place?
(a) 1765 AD
(b) 1803 AD
(c) 1804 AD
(d) 1817 AD
Ans. (d) 1817 AD - Which Indian space mission achieved a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth L1 point on July 2, 2024?
(a) Chandrayaan-3
(b) Aditya-L1
(c) Gaganyaan
(d) Mangalyaan-2
S1. Ans. (b) Aditya-L1 - Q2. As of 2024, which company became the second most valuable globally, surpassing Apple with a valuation exceeding $3 trillion?
(a) Microsoft
(b) Amazon
(c) Nvidia
(d) Alphabet
S2. Ans. (c) Nvidia - Q3. ISRO has selected how many astronauts for the ISS mission under the Axiom-4 mission in collaboration with NASA?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 3
S3. Ans. (b) 2 - Q4. After how many years of delay was Europe’s Ariane 6 rocket successfully launched from Kourou, French Guiana?
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
S4. Ans. (c) 4 years - Q5. What is the name of the WHO’s newly launched global open-access platform for medical device information?
(a) MedDevice
(b) MeDevIS
(c) HealthTech
(d) WHOmed
S5. Ans. (b) MeDevIS - Q6. Which research laboratory named three craters on Mars ‘Lal’, ‘Mursan’, and ‘Hilsa’?
(a) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
(b) Ahmedabad’s Physical Research Laboratory
(c) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
(d) Indian Institute of Science
S6. Ans. (b) Ahmedabad’s Physical Research Laboratory - Q7. The AI tool ‘Divya Drishti’, which combines facial recognition with gait analysis, was developed by:
(a) NASA
(b) Google AI
(c) A woman entrepreneur
(d) ISRO
S7. Ans. (c) A woman entrepreneur - Q8. Which song by Missy Elliott was transmitted to Venus by NASA?
(a) Work It
(b) Get Ur Freak On
(c) The Rain (Supa Dupa Fly)
(d) Lose Control
S8. Ans. (c) The Rain (Supa Dupa Fly) - Q9. In which Indian state was a Chandipura virus infection recently confirmed?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttar Pradesh
S9. Ans. (b) Gujarat - Q10. The Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD) recently discovered lithium resources in which Indian state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
S10. Ans. (b) Karnataka - Q11. Which of the following best describes SEBEX 2?
(a) A nuclear weapon
(b) A non-nuclear explosive
(c) A satellite launch vehicle
(d) An AI-powered defense system
S11. Ans. (b) A non-nuclear explosive - Q12. SEBEX 2’s explosive performance is measured by its equivalence to which of the following substances?
(a) RDX
(b) TNT
(c) C-4
(d) PETN
S12. Ans. (b) TNT - Q13. What is the approximate TNT equivalence of SEBEX 2?
(a) 0.5 times
(b) 0.75 times
(c) 1.01 times
(d) 2.0 times
S13. Ans. (c) 1.01 times - Q14. Which company is responsible for manufacturing SEBEX 2?
(a) Bharat Dynamics Limited
(b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(c) Economic Explosives Limited
(d) Larsen & Toubro
S14. Ans. (c) Economic Explosives Limited - Q15. SEBEX 2 was developed under which Indian government initiative?
(a) Make in India
(b) Skill India
(c) Digital India
(d) Startup India
S15. Ans. (a) Make in India - Q16. “AI Washing” refers to which of the following practices?
(a) Using AI to clean industrial machines
(b) Exaggerating the use of AI in products or services
(c) Developing AI to replace human workers
(d) Implementing AI in environmental sustainability efforts
S16. Ans. (b) Exaggerating the use of AI in products or services - Q17. The term “AI Washing” is derived from which of the following?
(a) Greenwashing
(b) Brainwashing
(c) Whitewashing
(d) Powerwashing
S17. Ans. (a) Greenwashing - Q18. Which of the following is an example of AI washing?
(a) A company uses AI to improve customer service efficiency
(b) A startup claims their chatbot is AI-powered but uses simple keyword matching
(c) AI is integrated into a smart home system
(d) A tech company employs machine learning for data analysis
S18. Ans. (b) A startup claims their chatbot is AI-powered but uses simple keyword matching - Q19. Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS) is primarily used to treat which of the following?
(a) Cardiovascular diseases
(b) Neurological disorders
(c) Respiratory conditions
(d) Digestive problems
S19. Ans. (b) Neurological disorders - Q20. The Deep Brain Stimulation device fitted to a UK teenager for controlling seizures operates by:
(a) Delivering electrical impulses to the heart
(b) Disrupting abnormal brain signals with electrical impulses
(c) Monitoring blood sugar levels
(d) Releasing medication into the bloodstream
S10. Ans. (b) Disrupting abnormal brain signals with electrical impulses - Q21. What is the New Shepard spacecraft named after?
(a) Neil Armstrong
(b) Alan Shepard
(c) Yuri Gagarin
(d) Buzz Aldrin
S21. Ans. (b) Alan Shepard - Q22. Which of the following best describes the New Shepard spacecraft?
(a) Partially reusable rocket system
(b) Fully reusable rocket system
(c) Single-use rocket system
(d) Reusable only for cargo missions
S22. Ans. (b) Fully reusable rocket system - Q23. How long is the flight duration of New Shepard beyond the Karman line?
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 11 minutes
(c) 20 minutes
(d) 30 minutes
S23. Ans. (b) 11 minutes - Q24. What is the primary purpose of the New Shepard spacecraft?
(a) Space tourism and scientific research
(b) Military operations
(c) Satellite deployment
(d) Deep space exploration
S24. Ans. (a) Space tourism and scientific research - Q25. Which country primarily developed the LOw-Frequency ARray (LOFAR)?
(a) Germany
(b) United States
(c) Netherlands
(d) France
S25. Ans. (c) Netherlands - Q26. LOFAR is designed to observe the Universe at which frequency range?
(a) 30-90 MHz
(b) 90-200 MHz
(c) 200-400 MHz
(d) 400-800 MHz
S26. Ans. (b) 90-200 MHz - Q27. Which of the following is a capability of the LOFAR?
(a) Observing visible light
(b) Exploring the early universe
(c) Detecting gravitational waves
(d) Monitoring gamma-ray bursts
S27. Ans. (b) Exploring the early universe - Q28. What does Li-Fi technology use to transmit data?
(a) Radio waves
(b) Sound waves
(c) Light waves
(d) Electromagnetic pulses
S28. Ans. (c) Light waves - Q29. Who developed the Li-Fi technology?
(a) Elon Musk
(b) Nikola Tesla
(c) Harald Hass
(d) Guglielmo Marconi
S29. Ans. (c) Harald Hass - Q30. Which of the following is a key advantage of Li-Fi over traditional Wi-Fi?
(a) Lower data transmission speed
(b) Higher data security
(c) Greater range
(d) Increased susceptibility to interference
S30. Ans. (b) Higher data security - What is the new name proposed for the Waqf Act, 1995 by the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024?
(a) United Waqf Management Act, 2024
(b) United Waqf Development Act, 2024
(c) United Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development Act, 1995
(d) Unified Waqf Property Act, 2024
Ans. (c) United Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development Act, 1995 - Which of the following is a new restriction imposed by the Bill regarding the formation of waqf?
(a) Only non-Muslims can declare waqf
(b) Waqf by user is removed
(c) Waqf can be declared by any person irrespective of religion
(d) Property ownership is not required to declare waqf
Ans. (b) Waqf by user is removed - Who is responsible for determining the ownership of government property identified as waqf under the Bill?
(a) Waqf Board
(b) High Court
(c) Collector of the area
(d) Central Waqf Council
Ans. (c) Collector of the area - Which body is constituted to advise the central and state governments and Waqf Boards?
(a) Central Waqf Council
(b) National Waqf Tribunal
(c) State Waqf Committee
(d) Parliamentary Committee on Waqf
Ans. (a) Central Waqf Council - What is the required religious affiliation for at least two members of the Central Waqf Council under the Bill?
(a) Hindu
(b) Christian
(c) Non-Muslim
(d) Muslim
Ans. (c) Non-Muslim - What major change does the Bill introduce in the composition of Waqf Boards?
(a) Members must be elected
(b) Members must be appointed by the central government
(c) State government nominates members, including non-Muslims
(d) Board members must belong to the Sunni sect
Ans. (c) State government nominates members, including non-Muslims - What key provision is removed from the Waqf Act, 1995, regarding the power to determine if a property is waqf?
(a) Power of High Court
(b) Power of Central Waqf Council
(c) Power of Waqf Board
(d) Power of local government
Ans. (c) Power of Waqf Board - Which sects are allowed to have separate Waqf Boards under the Bill?
(a) Sunni and Shia only
(b) Shia and Aghakhani only
(c) Bohra and Aghakhani
(d) Sunni and Bohra only
Ans. (c) Bohra and Aghakhani - What change does the Bill introduce regarding appeals against Tribunal decisions?
(a) Appeals are prohibited
(b) Appeals may be made directly to the Supreme Court
(c) Appeals may be made in the High Court within 90 days
(d) Appeals must be made within 30 days
Ans. (c) Appeals may be made in the High Court within 90 days - Which central authority is empowered to audit waqf accounts under the Bill?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
(b) Central Waqf Council
(c) National Audit Office
(d) State Waqf Boards
Ans. (a) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
