The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: Sepetember-2 Download PDF
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: Sepetember-2
- ଆର୍ଦ୍ର ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
(a) ଶୁଷ୍କ
(b) ଶୀତ
(c) ଶକ୍ତ
(d) ଶରୀର
Ans: (a) ଶୁଷ୍କ - ଆରୋହ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
(a) ଅବରୋହ
(b) ଅନନ୍ତ
(c) ଅଭିରୁଚି
(d) ଅଭିଶାପ
Ans: (a) ଅବରୋହ - ଆରୋହଣ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
(a) ଆକାଶ
(b) ଅବରୋହଣ
(c) ଅବିରାମ
(d) ଅବିନାଶ
Ans: (b) ଅବରୋହଣ - ଯେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଅନ୍ୟ ଭାଷାରୁ ଆସି ଆମ ଭାଷାରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହେଉଅଛି, ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ କଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) ତତସମ
(b) ତଭବ
(c) ଦେଶଜ
(d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
Ans. (d) ବୈଦେଶିକ - କେଉଁଟି ବୈଦେଶିକ ବ୍ୟାପାଦିତ ଶବ୍ଦ ?
(a) ଟାଜୁନ
(b) ସହର
(c) ସିଟି
(d) ଟାଉନିଆ
Ans. (d) ଟାଉନିଆ - ସିଂହାସନର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
(a) ସିଂହ + ଆସନ
(b) ସିଂହା + ଆସନ
(c) ସିଂହ + ସନ
(d) ସିଂହା + ସନ
Ans: (a) ସିଂହ + ଆସନ - ଗୁଣାକାରର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
(a) ଗୁଣ + ଆକର
(b) ଗୁଣା + ଆକର
(c) ଗୁଣ + କାର
(d) ଗୁଣା + କାର
Ans: (a) ଗୁଣ + ଆକର - କ୍ରିୟାର ମୂଳପିଣ୍ଡକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) କ୍ରିୟା
(b) କାଳ
(c) ଧାତୁ
(d) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
Ans. (c) ଧାତୁ - ଧାତୁ ସହିତ କ’ଣ ଯୋଗକଲେ ଶବ୍ଦ ଗଠନ କରାଯାଏ ?
(a) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
(b) ଅନ୍ୟଧାତୁ
(c) ଅନ୍ୟଶବ୍ଦ
(d) କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
Ans. (a) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ - ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟର ସ୍ଥାନ ଧାତୁର କେଉଁଠାରେ ରହେ ନାହିଁ ?
(a) ଧାତୁର ପୂର୍ବରୁ
(b) ଧାତୁର ପରେ
(c) ଧାତୁର ପୂର୍ବରୁ ଓ ପରେ ।
(d) ଧାତୁର ଉପରେ
Ans. (d) ଧାତୁର ଉପରେ - ଶବ୍ଦ କାହା ଯୋଗୁଁ ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରିବାରେ ସମର୍ଥ ହୁଏ ?
(a) କେବଳ ଧାତୁ ଯୋଗୁଁ
(b) କେବଳ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗୁଁ
(c) ଧାତୁ ଓ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଉଭୟ ଯୋଗୁ
(d) ନିଜ ଗୁଣ ଯୋଗୁଁ
Ans. (c) ଧାତୁ ଓ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଉଭୟ ଯୋଗୁ - ଧାତୁର ପୂର୍ବରୁ ଯେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗ ହୁଏ, ତାକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) ପର ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
(b) ପୂର୍ବ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ।
(c) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
(d) ବିରକ୍ତି
Ans. (b) ପୂର୍ବ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ‘ନି’ ଉପସର୍ଗରୁ ଗଠିତ ଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ନିଶ୍ଚଳ
(b) ନିସ୍ତାର
(c) ନିଷ୍ପାପ
(d) ନିକ୍ଷେପ
Ans. (d) ନିକ୍ଷେପ - ‘ଦେଖିବା ‘ – ଉକ୍ତ କ୍ରିୟାର ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଧାତୁ ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ହେବ ସୂଚାଅ?
(a) ଦୃଷ୍ଟ
(b) ଦ୍ରଶ୍
(c) ଦେଖ୍
(d) ଦୃଶ୍
Ans. (d) ଦୃଶ୍ - ‘ଖ’ ଓ ‘ଘ’ ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁ ବ୍ୟଞ୍ଜନ ଅନ୍ତର୍ଭୁକ୍ତ?
(a) ମହାପ୍ରାଣ
(b) ଅଳ୍ପପ୍ରାଣ
(c) ସଘୋଷ
(d) ଅଘୋଷ
Ans. (a) ମହାପ୍ରାଣ - ‘ମିଶ୍ର’ – ଶବ୍ଦଟି କେଉଁ ବିଭକ୍ତି ଯୋଗେ ଗଠିତ?
(a) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ
(b) ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟା
(c) ପ୍ରଥମା
(d) ଷଷ୍ଠୀ
Ans. (c) ପ୍ରଥମା - ମାଟି କାନ୍ଥଟି ଭୁଶୁଡି ପଡିଛି | ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦଟି କି ପ୍ରକାର ବିଶେଷଣ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କର ।
(a) ସର୍ବ ନାମିକ
(b) କ୍ରିୟା ବାଚକ
(c) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟରୂପୀ
(d) ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ବାଚକ
Ans. (c) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟରୂପୀ - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ କେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦ ‘ସମ୍’ ଉପସର୍ଗ ଯୋଗେ ଗଠିତ?
(a) ସୁତୀକ୍ଷ୍ଣ
(b) ସୁଦର୍ଶନ
(c) ସମ୍ଭାଷଣ
(d) ସୁସମ୍ବାଦ
Ans. (c) ସମ୍ଭାଷଣ - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ଭିନ୍ନ ଶବ୍ଦ ଚିହ୍ନାଅ?
(a) ଆସନ୍ନ
(b) ନିକଟ
(c) ଦୂର
(d) ସମୀପ
Ans. (c) ଦୂର - ‘ଓହ୍ଲାଇବା’ – ଏହି ଅମିଶ୍ର କ୍ରିୟାର ମିଶ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା କଣହେବ?
(a) ଅବତରଣ କରିବା
(b) ତଳକୁ ଯିବା
(c) ପଛକୁ ଫେରିବା
(d) ଓହ୍ଲାଇହେବା
Ans. (a) ଅବତରଣ କରିବା - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଭିନ୍ନ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟାୟବାଚୀ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ଚିହ୍ନାଅ?
(a) ମହେନ୍ଦ୍ର
(b) ମଦନ
(c) ମନ୍ମଥ
(d) ଅନଙ୍ଗ
Ans. (a) ମହେନ୍ଦ୍ର - ‘ତାଳୁରେ ତେନ୍ତୁଳିଆ ବିଛା କାମୁଡ଼ିବା’ – ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ଦେହ ଖରାପ ହେବା
(b) ମୁଣ୍ଡ ବିନ୍ଧିବା
(c) ବିଛା କାମୁଡ଼ିବା
(d) ଘୋର ଚିନ୍ତାଗ୍ରସ୍ତ ହେବା
Ans. (d) ଘୋର ଚିନ୍ତାଗ୍ରସ୍ତ ହେବା - ‘ଦକ୍ଷଯଜ୍ଞ’ ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ଗୁପ୍ତରେ ଅନିଷ୍ଟ କରିବା
(b) ତୁମୁଳ କାଣ୍ଡ
(c) ଯଜ୍ଞ କରିବା
(d) ପୂଜା କରିବା
Ans. (b) ତୁମୁଳ କାଣ୍ଡ - ‘ପୟୋଦ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ଅଗ୍ନି
(b) ପବନ
(c) ଜଳ
(d) ମେଘ
Ans. (d) ମେଘ - ‘ କ୍ଷତ୍ରିୟ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ପ୍ରକୃତି ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଅର୍ଥକୁ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର |
(a) ରାଜବଂଶ
(b) ଯେ କ୍ଷତ ରୁ ତ୍ରାଣ କରେ
(c) ଯେ କ୍ଷେତରେ କାମକରେ
(d) ଏକ ଜାତି
Ans. (b) ଯେ କ୍ଷତ ରୁ ତ୍ରାଣ କରେ - ମଧୁଦାସ ଖାଇ ଖାଇ ସମ୍ପତ୍ତି ସାରିଦେଲେ | ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ କେଉଁ ପଦରୂପେ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଇଛି?
(a) କ୍ରିୟା ବିଶେଷଣ
(b) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ
(c) କ୍ରିୟା ବାଚକ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ
(d) ଅସମାପିକା କ୍ରିୟା
Ans. (d) ଅସମାପିକା କ୍ରିୟା - ଓଡ଼ିଆ ବର୍ଷ ‘ ସ୍’ କେଉଁ ଧ୍ୱନି ଅନ୍ତର୍ଭୁକ୍ତ?
(a) ସଂଘର୍ଷୀ
(b) ପାର୍ଶ୍ଵିକ
(c) ଲୋଡିତ
(d) ନାସିକ୍ୟ
Ans. (a) ସଂଘର୍ଷୀ - ‘ଦିନ ଗଣିବା’ – ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ସୁଯୋଗ ମିଳିବା
(b) ଜାଣିଶୁଣି ବିଳମ୍ବ କରିବା
(c) ଦିନ ଗଣନା କରିବା
(d) ଆତୁରଭାବେ ପ୍ରତୀକ୍ଷା କରିବା
Ans. (d) ଆତୁରଭାବେ ପ୍ରତୀକ୍ଷା କରିବା - ତତ୍ ସମ ‘ଗୋଧୂମ’ ର ତଦ୍ ଭବ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ ହେବ?
(a) ଗଧ
(b) ଗୋଧୂଳି
(c) ଗୋଧନ
(d) ଗହମ
Ans. (d) ଗହମ - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ଶବ୍ଦ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଭିନ୍ନଧର୍ମୀ ଶବ୍ଦକୁ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର |
(a) ଖୁବ୍
(b) ସେହି
(c) ଏ
(d) ଯେଉଁ
Ans. (a) ଖୁବ୍ - ଅଣହଳଦିଆ ବ୍ୟାସବାକ୍ୟଟିକୁ ବାଛି ଲେଖ ?
(a) ଅ ହଳଦିଆ
(b) ନ ହଳଦିଆ
(c) ଅଣ ହଳଦିଆ
(d) ନାହିଁ ହଳଦିଆ
Ans: (b) ନ ହଳଦିଆ - ଅନ୍ତେ ବାସ କରେ ଯେ-ସମସ୍ତ ପଦଟି ବାଛି ଲେଖା |
(a) ଅନ୍ତବାସି
(b) ଅନ୍ତୋବାସୀ
(c) ଅନ୍ତେବାସୀ
(d) ଅନ୍ତବାସୀ
Ans: (c) ଅନ୍ତେବାସୀ - ଯୁଧୁଷ୍ଠିର ସମାସ ନାମଟି ଲେଖ
(a) ଅଲୁକ୍
(b) ସପ୍ତମୀ ତତପୁରୁଷ
(c) ଦ୍ବିତୀୟା ତତପୁରୁଷ
(d) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
Ans: (a) ଅଲୁକ୍ - ଅବାଧ୍ୟ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
(a) ସ୍ଥିର
(b) ବାଧ୍ୟ
(c) ଅଭାବ
(d) ଅବରୋହ
Answer: (b) ବାଧ୍ୟ - ଅପାୟ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
(a) ନିଯୁକ୍ତ
(b) ଉପାୟ
(c) ଶୁଭ
(d) ଭୂମି
Answer: (b) ଉପାୟ - ଅସୀମ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
(a) ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ
(b) ସସୀମ
(c) ସଫଳ
(d) ସତ୍ତ୍ଵ
Answer: (b) ସସୀମ - ନୀଳାଚଳର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
(a) ନୀଳ + ଅଚଳ
(b) ନୀଳ + ଚଳ
(c) ନୀଳା + ଅଚଳ
(d) ନୀଳା + ଚଳ
Answer: (a) ନୀଳ + ଅଚଳ - ଗ୍ରାମାଞ୍ଚଳର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
(a) ଗ୍ରାମ + ଅଞ୍ଚଳ
(b) ଗ୍ରାମା + ଅଞ୍ଚଳ
(c) ଗ୍ରାମ + ଞ୍ଚଳ
(d) ଗ୍ରାମା + ଞ୍ଚଳ
Answer: (a) ଗ୍ରାମ + ଅଞ୍ଚଳ - ସିଂହାସନର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
(a) ସିଂହ + ଆସନ
(b) ସିଂହା + ଆସନ
(c) ସିଂହ + ସନ
(d) ସିଂହା + ସନ
Answer: (a) ସିଂହ + ଆସନ - ଗୁଣାକାରର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
(a) ଗୁଣ + ଆକର
(b) ଗୁଣା + ଆକର
(c) ଗୁଣ + କାର
(d) ଗୁଣା + କାର
Answer: (a) ଗୁଣ + ଆକର - ଉଚ୍ଚାସନର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
(a) ଉଚ୍ଚ + ଆସନ
(b) ଉଚ୍ଚା + ଆସନ
(c) ଉଚ୍ଚ + ସନ
(d) ଉଚ୍ଚା + ସନ
Answer: (a) ଉଚ୍ଚ + ଆସନ - ‘ପାଣିରେ ସାରା ପକାଇବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
(a) ପାଣି ରେ ରନ୍ଧଣ କରିବା
(b) କୌଶଳରେ ମନ ଭୁଲାଇବା
(c) ପାଣି ରେ ଯାତ୍ରା କରିବା
(d) ସାରାକୁ ପାଣି ମଧ୍ୟରେ ରଖିବା
Answer: (b) କୌଶଳରେ ମନ ଭୁଲାଇବା - ‘ପିଠିରେ ପଡିବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
(a) ଭୂଲି ଯିବା
(b) ଆରାମ କରିବା
(c) ସାହାହେବା
(d) ପିଠି ନିମନ୍ତେ ଚିକିତ୍ସା କରିବା
Answer: (c) ସାହାହେବା - ‘ପିଳେହି ପାହେବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
(a) ଛୋଟ ପିଲା ହେବା
(b) ଦେଖିବା
(c) ଭରେ ଛାନିଆ ହେବା
(d) ପିଳା ଆମ୍ବ ଖାଇବା
Answer: (c) ଭରେ ଛାନିଆ ହେବା - ‘ପୋଥିରେ ଡୋରା ବାନ୍ଧିବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
(a) ପାଠ ପଢିବା
(b) ପୋଥିକୁ ସୁନ୍ଦର କରିବା
(c) ପାଠପଢା ବନ୍ଦ କରିବା
(d) ପୋଥିକୁ ଲେଖିବା
Answer: (c) ପାଠପଢା ବନ୍ଦ କରିବା - ‘ଫତେଇ ହେବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
(a) ତାଲି ମାରିବା
(b) ବାରମ୍ବାର ପଚାରିବା
(c) ହାସିବା
(d) ବାରମ୍ବାର ହାରିବା
Answer: (b) ବାରମ୍ବାର ପଚାରିବା - ଯୌଗିକ ବାକ୍ୟକୁ ସରଳ ବାକ୍ୟ ରେ ପରିଣତ କର ?
ରାତି ହେଲା ଏବଂ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ।
(a) ରାତିହେବାରୁ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ।
(b) ରାତି ହେଲା ତେଣୁ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ।
(c) ରାତି ହେଲା ସେଥିପାଇଁ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ।
(d) ଯେବେ ରାତି ହେଲା ସେତେବେଳେ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ।
Ans. (a)ରାତିହେବାରୁ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ । - ସରଳ ବାକ୍ୟକୁ ଯୌଗିକ ବାକ୍ୟ ରେ ପରିଣତ କର ?
ମାତା ପୁତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କର କଥା ଶୁଣି ଉପଦେଶ ଦେଲେ ।
(a)ମାତା ପୁତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କର କଥା ଶୁଣିଲେ ଏବଂ ଉପଦେଶ ଦେଲେ ।
(b) ମାତା ପୁତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କର କଥା ଶୁଣିଲେ ଉପଦେଶ ଦେଲେ ।
(d) ମାତା ପୁତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କର କଥା ଶୁଣିଲା ପରେ ଉପଦେଶ ଦେଲେ ।
(d) ମାତା ପୁତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କର କଥା ଶୁଣିଲେ ତେଣୁ ଉପଦେଶ ଦେଲେ ।
Ans. (a )ମାତା ପୁତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କର କଥା ଶୁଣିଲେ ଏବଂ ଉପଦେଶ ଦେଲେ । - ସରଳ ବାକ୍ୟକୁ ଯୌଗିକ ବାକ୍ୟ ରେ ପରିଣତ କର ?
ସେ ଭୁଲ କରିବାରୁ ଅପମାନ ପାଇଲା ।
(a)ସେ ଭୁଲ କଲା ଏବଂ ଅପମାନ ପାଇଲା ।
(b) ସେ ଭୁଲ କଲା ତେଣୁ ଅପମାନ ପାଇଲା ।
(c) ଯେହେତୁ ସେ ଭୁଲ କଲା ଏବଂ ଅପମାନ ପାଇଲା ।
(d) ଯେହେତୁ ସେ ଭୁଲ କଲା ସେଥିପାଇଁ ଅପମାନ ପାଇଲା ।
Ans. (a )ସେ ଭୁଲ କଲା ଏବଂ ଅପମାନ ପାଇଲା । - କେଉଁଟି ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ରୂପ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର ?
(a) ବିସ୍ଵାସ
(b) ଵିଶ୍ଵାଶ
(c) ବିଶ୍ୱାସ
(d) ଵିଶ୍ଵାଷ
Ans: (c) ବିଶ୍ୱାସ - କେଉଁଟି ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ରୂପ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର ?
(a) ବିଷର୍ଣ୍ଣ
(b) ବିଷଣ୍ଣ
(c) ବିଶଣ୍ଣ
(d) ବିଶର୍ଣ୍ଣ
Ans. (b) ବିଷଣ୍ଣ - କେଉଁଟି ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ରୂପ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର ?
(a) ବୁଦ୍ଧିମତା
(b) ବୁଦ୍ଧିମତ
(c) ବୁଦ୍ଧିମତ୍ତା
(d) ବୁଦ୍ଧିମତ୍ତ
Ans.(c) ବୁଦ୍ଧିମତ୍ତା - କେଉଁଟି ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ରୂପ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର ?
(a) ବିପଦଜନକ
(b) ବିପଜ୍ନକ
(c) ବିପଜ୍ଜନକ
(d) ବିପଦଜ୍ଜନକ
Ans.(c) ବିପଜ୍ଜନକ - ଛାତ୍ରଟି କଲମରେ ଲେଖୁଛି ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଅଂଶଟି କେଉଁ କାରକ ?
(a) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ
(b) କରଣ କାରକ
(c) ଅପାଦାନ କାରକ
(d) କର୍ମ କାରକ
Ans. (b) କରଣ କାରକ - ପର୍ବତରୁ ପଥର ଖସିଲା ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଟି କି କାରକ ?
(a) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ
(b) କର୍ମ କାରକ
(c) ଅପାଦାନ
(d) କରଣ କାରକ
Ans. (c) ଅପାଦାନ - ଟି , ଟା , ଟେ,ଟିଏ, ଟାଏ, ଏଗୁଡିକୁ କେଉଁ ବିଭକ୍ତିର ଚିହ୍ନ?
(a) ଦ୍ବିତୀୟା
(b) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ
(c) ଚତୁର୍ଥୀ
(d) ପ୍ରଥମା
Ans. (d) ପ୍ରଥମା - କେଉଁଟି ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ?
(a) କଳାନିଧି
(b) କଳାକର
(c) କାଳଜ୍ଞ
(d) ଇନ୍ଦୁ
Ans: (c) କାଳଜ୍ଞ - କେଉଁଟି ଚଢେଇ ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ଜୀବନ
(b) ବିହଗ
(c) ଧୂଳିଜଂଘ
(d) ଆଳୟ
Ans: (b) ବିହଗ - କେଉଁଟି ଜଳ ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ଜାମଘୋଷ
(b) ଦୁହିତା
(c) ଅମୃତ
(d) ବାୟସ
Ans: (c) ଅମୃତ - କେଉଁଟି ଗାଈ ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ?
(a) ଗୋ
(b) ଧେନୁ
(c) ରାତ୍ରିବେଦ
(d) ଗାଭୀ
Ans: (c) ରାତ୍ରିବେଦ - Which of the following names was used for Odisha during the Gupta period?
(a) Kalinga
(b) Utkala
(c) Mahakantara
(d) Odra
Answer: (c) Mahakantara - The name “Odra” was given after which tribe?
(a) Odra
(b) Kalinga
(c) Utkala
(d) Kongoda
Answer: (a) Odra - According to the Ramayana, who ruled South Kosala?
(a) King Bali
(b) Rama’s son Kush
(c) Karna
(d) Ashoka
Answer: (b) Rama’s son Kush - What does the name “Kamala Mandala” mean?
(a) Three Kalingas
(b) Lotus regions
(c) Coastal region
(d) Sacred river
Answer: (b) Lotus regions - The city of Tosali, mentioned during the Asoka period, is located in which modern-day area?
(a) Dhauli
(b) Jeypore
(c) Ganjam
(d) Kalahandi
Answer: (a) Dhauli - Which of the following literary sources is NOT mentioned as a source of Odishan history?
(a) The Mahabharata
(b) Arthashastra
(c) Ramayana
(d) Arthashastra
Answer: (d) Arthashastra - Which Greek historian provided valuable information about the people of Kalinga?
(a) Pliny
(b) Megasthenes
(c) Ptolemy
(d) Curtius
Answer: (b) Megasthenes - What was the significance of the Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves near Bhubaneswar?
(a) They were Buddhist stupas.
(b) They were Jain residential blocks.
(c) They were royal palaces.
(d) They were Hindu temples.
Answer: (b) They were Jain residential blocks. - The “Diamond Triangle” of Odisha archaeology consists of which sites?
(a) Ratnagiri, Udayagiri, Lalitgiri
(b) Dhauli, Jaugada, Talcher
(c) Angul, Talcher, Bursapalli
(d) Ganjam, Jeypore, Kalahandi
Answer: (a) Ratnagiri, Udayagiri, Lalitgiri - What does the term “Oddiyana” refer to in Buddhist texts?
(a) A coastal region
(b) A Buddhist monastery
(c) A historical name for Odisha
(d) A sacred river
Answer: (c) A historical name for Odisha - Who was the founder of the Ganga dynasty?
(a) Anantavarman Vajrahasta V
(b) Kamarnava
(c) Narasimhadeva I
(d) Rajaraja II
Answer: (b) Kamarnava - Which ruler of the Ganga dynasty is credited with having ruled over the region extending from the Ganga to the Godavari?
(a) Anangabhimadeva III
(b) Rajaraja II
(c) Anantavarman Vajrahasta V
(d) Narasimhadeva I
Answer: (c) Anantavarman Vajrahasta V - During whose reign was the famous Sun Temple at Konark constructed?
(a) Anangabhimadeva III
(b) Narasimhadeva I
(c) Rajaraja II
(d) Chodagangadeva
Answer: (b) Narasimhadeva I - The Jagannath Temple was built by which Ganga ruler?
(a) Narasimhadeva I
(b) Rajaraja II
(c) Anangabhimadeva III
(d) Bhanudeva IV
Answer: (c) Anangabhimadeva III - Which style of temple architecture was prominent during the Ganga dynasty?
(a) Dravidian
(b) Vesara
(c) Nagara
(d) Kalinga
Answer: (c) Nagara - The Gajapati dynasty was founded by which ruler?
(a) Kapilendra Deva
(b) Purushottam Deva
(c) Prataparudra Deva
(d) Kakharua Deva
Answer: (a) Kapilendra Deva - In which year did Krishnadevaraya attack Udayagiri fort?
(a) 1522 AD
(b) 1497 AD
(c) 1512 AD
(d) 1434 AD
Answer: (c) 1512 AD - Who was the last ruler of the Gajapati dynasty?
(a) Kapilendra Deva
(b) Prataparudra Deva
(c) Kakharua Deva
(d) Purushottam Deva
Answer: (c) Kakharua Deva - During which Gajapati ruler’s reign did the famous Vaishnav saint Sri Chaitanya visit Odisha?
(a) Kapilendra Deva
(b) Purushottam Deva
(c) Prataparudra Deva
(d) Kakharua Deva
Answer: (c) Prataparudra Deva - What was the administrative unit known as ‘Visaya’ under the Ganga dynasty?
(a) A province
(b) A village
(c) A tax category
(d) A military unit
Answer: (a) A province - Who were the first Europeans to enter Odisha?
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) Portuguese
(d) French
Ans: (c) Portuguese - In which year did the Portuguese establish their settlements at Pipli in Balasore district?
(a) 1605 AD
(b) 1625 AD
(c) 1650 AD
(d) 1680 AD
Ans: (b) 1625 AD - What significant event in 1765 affected British control over Odisha?
(a) Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Buxar
(c) Treaty of Deogarh
(d) Battle of Laswari
Ans: (b) Battle of Buxar - Which territories did the East India Company acquire from Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II after the Battle of Buxar?
(a) Bengal and Bihar
(b) Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha
(c) Bihar and Assam
(d) Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, and Punjab
Ans: (b) Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha - When did the British first capture Puri?
(a) 14th October, 1803
(b) 18th September, 1803
(c) 22nd September, 1803
(d) 17th December, 1803
Ans: (b) 18th September, 1803 - Which British officer captured Cuttack in October 1803?
(a) Colonel Harcourt
(b) Captain Morgan
(c) Major Broughton
(d) General Robert Clive
Ans: (a) Colonel Harcourt - The Treaty of Deogarh in December 1803 resulted in the surrender of which territories to the East India Company?
(a) Balasore and Ganjam
(b) Cuttack and Balasore
(c) Cuttack and Ganjam
(d) Ganjam and Sambalpur
Ans: (b) Cuttack and Balasore - Who was the British officer responsible for the conquest of Sambalpur in January 1804?
(a) Colonel Harcourt
(b) Major Broughton
(c) Captain Morgan
(d) Lord Wellesley
Ans: (b) Major Broughton - Under British administration, how was Odisha divided administratively?
(a) Bengal Presidency and Madras Presidency
(b) Central Provinces and Bengal Presidency
(c) Bengal Presidency, Madras Presidency, and Central Provinces
(d) Madras Presidency and Central Provinces
Ans: (c) Bengal Presidency, Madras Presidency, and Central Provinces - What were the types of land settlements implemented under British rule in Odisha?
(a) Zamindari, Ryotwari, Mahalwari
(b) Revenue, Zamindari, Tenancy
(c) Ryotwari, Mahalwari, Tenancy
(d) Mahalwari, Revenue, Tenancy
Ans: (a) Zamindari, Ryotwari, Mahalwari - Which new species of flower flies were discovered in Kerala by the Shadpada Entomology Research Lab?
(a) Mesembrius bengalensis and M. quadrivittatus
(b) Mesembrius keraliensis and M. aethiopicus
(c) Mesembrius indicus and M. bengalensis
(d) Mesembrius westensis and M. quadrivittatus
Ans. (a) Mesembrius bengalensis and M. quadrivittatus - What significant change did Wolbachia bacteria cause in the wasp Encarsia formosa?
(a) Increased male population
(b) Reproductive system alteration leading to only female offspring
(c) Enhanced resistance to pesticides
(d) Altered feeding habits
Ans. (b) Reproductive system alteration leading to only female offspring - Which lizard species has been reclassified as threatened according to the IUCN Red List update?
(a) Mediterranean Lizard
(b) Ibiza Wall Lizard
(c) Green Iguana
(d) Komodo Dragon
Ans. (b) Ibiza Wall Lizard - Where was the new species of horned frog, Xenophrys apatani, discovered?
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Andaman Islands
Ans. (c) Arunachal Pradesh - What is the main vulnerability of West Antarctica according to recent studies?
(a) Increasing ice thickness
(b) Rising temperatures and ice sheet melting
(c) Decreasing sea levels
(d) Enhanced ice formation
Ans. (b) Rising temperatures and ice sheet melting - Which fatal brain-eating amoeba infection was reported in Kerala recently?
(a) Naegleria fowleri
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Acanthamoeba castellanii
(d) Balamuthia mandrillaris
Ans. (a) Naegleria fowleri - Where was South India’s first leopard safari opened?
(a) Bannerghatta Biological Park, Bengaluru
(b) Bandipur National Park, Karnataka
(c) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Kerala
(d) Nagarhole National Park, Karnataka
Ans. (a) Bannerghatta Biological Park, Bengaluru - Which two new plant species were recently discovered in India?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
Ans. (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Arunachal Pradesh - What recent update did the IUCN make about the Iberian Lynx?
(a) Status changed from Vulnerable to Endangered
(b) Status upgraded to Endangered
(c) Status upgraded to Vulnerable
(d) Status remained as Critically Endangered
Ans. (c) Status upgraded to Vulnerable - Where were the world’s oldest termite mounds discovered?
(a) Namaqualand, South Africa
(b) Amazon Rainforest, Brazil
(c) Kalahari Desert, Botswana
(d) Sahara Desert, Egypt
Ans. (a) Namaqualand, South Africa - What type of infection has caused a surge in Japan, with health officials on high alert?
(a) Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome (STSS)
(b) Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome
(c) Avian Influenza
(d) Tuberculosis
Ans. (a) Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome (STSS) - Which new species of snake eel was discovered in Odisha?
(a) Ophichthus gomesii
(b) Muraenesox cinereus
(c) Myrichthys tigrinus
(d) Uropterygius vitta
Ans. (a) Ophichthus gomesii - Who conducted the study showing the impact of Wolbachia bacteria on wasps?
(a) Shenyang Agricultural University (SAU)
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(c) Harvard University
(d) University of Tokyo
Ans. (a) Shenyang Agricultural University (SAU) - Which region in India is known for having the recently discovered Xenophrys apatani?
(a) North-East
(b) South-West
(c) Central
(d) North-West
Ans. (a) North-East - What environmental issue has been highlighted by the vulnerability of West Antarctica?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Ocean acidification
(c) Ice sheet melting
(d) Desertification
Ans. (c) Ice sheet melting - Who coined the term “ecology”?
(a) Ernst Haeckel
(b) Nernst Kelvin
(c) Lord Kelvin
(d) Nicola Tesla
Ans. (a) Ernst Haeckel - Which species uses ‘Diptericin B’ peptide?
(a) Snake
(b) Fly
(c) Mosquito
(d) Bat
Ans. (b) Fly - Ludwigia peruviana, an exotic aquatic weed, has been found in which Indian state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c) Tamil Nadu - The ‘Azure-thighed tree frog’ was discovered in which country?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) New Guinea
Ans. (d) New Guinea - The ‘Vaquita porpoise’ is endemic to which region?
(a) Mexico
(b) Australia
(c) South Asia
(d) West Africa
Ans. (a) Mexico - By what percent has India reduced its greenhouse emissions in the last 14 years?
(a) 3 per cent
(b) 15 per cent
(c) 33 per cent
(d) 49 per cent
Ans. (c) 33 per cent - Where was the Amazon Summit 2023 held?
(a) Brazil
(b) Chile
(c) Argentina
(d) Mexico
Ans. (a) Brazil - The 247-million-year-old ‘Arenaepeton supinatus’ was discovered in which country?
(a) India
(b) Greece
(c) China
(d) Australia
Ans. (d) Australia - Redwood National and State Parks are located in which country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Australia
(d) New Zealand
Ans. (a) USA - The fossil of ‘Fujianvenator’ was found in which country?
(a) Greece
(b) China
(c) Chile
(d) Japan
Ans. (b) China - What is the Boma technique commonly used for in wildlife conservation?
(a) Capturing and relocating wild animals
(b) A software tool for tracking animal populations
(c) A traditional African method for hunting
(d) Monitoring bird migrations
Ans. (a) Capturing and relocating wild animals - How has Wolbachia bacteria affected the wasp Encarsia formosa?
(a) Created groups of only females
(b) Created groups of only males
(c) Increased reproductive rate
(d) Decreased reproductive rate
Ans. (a) Created groups of only females - What is the primary reason for the Ibiza wall lizard being reclassified as threatened?
(a) Climate change
(b) Invasive species
(c) Deforestation
(d) Pollution
Ans. (b) Invasive species - Xenophrys apatani, a new species of horned frog, was discovered in which Indian state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (d) Arunachal Pradesh - Which region in Antarctica is highly vulnerable to warming?
(a) East Antarctica
(b) West Antarctica
(c) North Antarctica
(d) South Antarctica
Ans. (b) West Antarctica - Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
(a) Ganges
(b) Kosi
(c) Yamuna
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: (b) Kosi - Which river is the longest river in India?
(a) Yamuna
(b) Ganges
(c) Godavari
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: (b) Ganges - Which river is known as the ‘Dakshina Ganga’ or the ‘Ganges of the South’?
(a) Krishna
(b) Godavari
(c) Kaveri
(d) Mahanadi
Ans: (b) Godavari - Which river is the main water source for the city of Kolkata?
(a) Ganges
(b) Hooghly
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Yamuna
Ans: (b) Hooghly - Which river flows through the Thar Desert in India?
(a) Sutlej
(b) Beas
(c) Luni
(d) Narmada
Ans: (c) Luni - Which river forms the largest delta in the world?
(a) Ganges-Brahmaputra
(b) Godavari
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Krishna
Ans: (a) Ganges-Brahmaputra - Which river is associated with the Hirakud Dam?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Tapti
Ans: (c) Mahanadi - Which river is called the ‘lifeline of Madhya Pradesh’?
(a) Chambal
(b) Tapti
(c) Narmada
(d) Betwa
Ans: (c) Narmada - Which river originates from the Amarkantak Plateau?
(a) Ganges
(b) Narmada
(c) Yamuna
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: (b) Narmada - Which river’s basin is shared by the maximum number of Indian states?
(a) Ganges
(b) Godavari
(c) Krishna
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: (a) Ganges - Which river flows through the state of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Jhelum
(b) Ravi
(c) Sutlej
(d) Beas
Ans: (a) Jhelum - Which river is famous for the annual flooding in Assam?
(a) Ganges
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Yamuna
(d) Godavari
Ans: (b) Brahmaputra - Which of the following rivers does not originate in India?
(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Ganges
(c) Yamuna
(d) Godavari
Ans: (a) Brahmaputra - Which river is known as the ‘River of Bengal’?
(a) Hooghly
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Krishna
Ans: (a) Hooghly - Which river flows through the city of Agra?
(a) Ganges
(b) Yamuna
(c) Chambal
(d) Betwa
Ans: (b) Yamuna - Which river is associated with the Nagarjuna Sagar Dam?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Kaveri
(d) Mahanadi
Ans: (b) Krishna - Which river is known for the city of Varanasi located on its banks?
(a) Ganges
(b) Yamuna
(c) Godavari
(d) Kaveri
Ans: (a) Ganges - Which river is known as the ‘Dead River’ because it has no tributaries?
(a) Yamuna
(b) Luni
(c) Mahi
(d) Tapti
Ans: (b) Luni - Which river is the main tributary of the Ganges?
(a) Yamuna
(b) Kosi
(c) Son
(d) Gandak
Ans: (a) Yamuna - Which river originates from the Mansarovar Lake in Tibet?
(a) Ganges
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Indus
(d) Sutlej
Ans: (c) Indus - Which river is associated with the Sardar Sarovar Dam?
(a) Narmada
(b) Tapti
(c) Godavari
(d) Krishna
Ans: (a) Narmada - Which river flows through the Sundarbans delta?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Ganges
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: (c) Ganges - Which river is the major water source for the state of Rajasthan?
(a) Ganges
(b) Chambal
(c) Luni
(d) Yamuna
Ans: (b) Chambal - Which river is known for the city of Hyderabad located on its banks?
(a) Ganges
(b) Musi
(c) Godavari
(d) Krishna
Ans: (b) Musi - Which river is the primary water source for the state of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Kaveri
(d) Mahanadi
Ans: (c) Kaveri - Which river is associated with the Bhakra Nangal Dam?
(a) Sutlej
(b) Beas
(c) Ravi
(d) Chenab
Ans: (a) Sutlej - Which river is the main tributary of the Indus?
(a) Jhelum
(b) Chenab
(c) Sutlej
(d) Ravi
Ans: (c) Sutlej - Which river is associated with the Tehri Dam?
(a) Ganges
(b) Yamuna
(c) Bhagirathi
(d) Alaknanda
Ans: (c) Bhagirathi - Which river is the primary water source for the state of Kerala?
(a) Periyar
(b) Bharathapuzha
(c) Pamba
(d) Chalakudy
Ans: (a) Periyar - Which river flows through the city of Patna?
(a) Ganges
(b) Yamuna
(c) Kosi
(d) Gandak - Which European power was the first to establish settlements in Odisha?
(a) Britishers
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) French
Ans: (b) Portuguese - When was the Battle of Buxar fought, leading to the firm establishment of British rule in Odisha?
(a) 1757
(b) 1765
(c) 1776
(d) 1789
Ans: (b) 1765 - What were the major rebellions faced by the British administration in Odisha during their rule?
(a) Sepoy Mutiny and Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(b) Paika Rebellion and Khurda Rebellion
(c) Salt Satyagraha and Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Quit India Movement and Civil Disobedience Movement
Ans: (b) Paika Rebellion and Khurda Rebellion - Which of the following marked the beginning of modern history in Odisha?
(a) Independence of India
(b) Advent of European powers
(c) Establishment of Maurya dynasty
(d) Annexation by British East India Company
Ans: (b) Advent of European powers - Who led the movement against the abolition of Odia as the court language of Sambalpur in 1895?
(a) Madan Mohan Mishra
(b) Brajamohan Patnaik
(c) Mahant Bihari Das
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - Which act regulated the formation and functioning of the Odisha Legislative Assembly in its pre-independent phase?
(a) Government of India Act, 1919
(b) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) Constitution of India, 1950
Ans: (b) Government of India Act, 1935 - Who was the first Chief Minister of Odisha?
(a) Harekrushna Mahatab
(b) Nabakrushna Choudhuri
(c) Biju Patnaik
(d) Giridhar Gamang
Ans: (a) Harekrushna Mahatab - What was the ancient capital of the Kalinga empire according to historical records?
(a) Kalinga
(b) Tosali
(c) Dantapura
(d) Rajapura
Ans: (b) Tosali - According to the Mahabharata, which two capitals of Kalinga were mentioned?
(a) Puri and Cuttack
(b) Bhubaneswar and Konark
(c) Dantapura and Rajapura
(d) Sisupalgarh and Udayagiri
Ans: (c) Dantapura and Rajapura - What is Kalinga famous for in ancient history, according to historical accounts?
(a) Its extensive trade routes
(b) The Kurukshetra battle
(c) Its powerful kings and temples
(d) Its contributions to literature and art
Ans: (b) The Kurukshetra battle - What was the original capital of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty?
(a) Kalinganagara
(b) Bhubaneswar
(c) Kataka
(d) Puri
Ans: (a) Kalinganagara - During which century was the capital of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty transferred from Kalinganagara to Kataka (modern Cuttack)?
(a) 7th century
(b) 9th century
(c) 12th century
(d) 15th century
Ans: (c) 12th century - Who is considered the last Hindu king of Odisha?
(a) Narasimha Deva I
(b) Anantavarman Chodaganga
(c) Mukundadeva
(d) Kapilendra Deva
Ans: (c) Mukundadeva - Who was the founder of the Chalukya dynasty in ancient Odisha (now Odish(a)?
(a) Narasimha Deva I
(b) Anantavarman Chodaganga
(c) Mukunda Deva
(d) Kapilendra Deva
Ans: (c) Mukunda Deva - When was Bhitarkanika National Park established?
(a) 1985
(b) 1998
(c) 2005
(d) 2010
Ans: (b) 1998 - Which district of Odisha is Simlipal Tiger Reserve located in?
(a) Sundargarh
(b) Mayurbhanj
(c) Keonjhar
(d) Balasore
Ans: (b) Mayurbhanj - What is the total population of Odisha as per the 2011 Census?
(a) 4,19,74,218
(b) 4,12,19,346
(c) 4,19,72,318
(d) 4,27,56,901
Ans: (a) 4,19,74,218 - What percentage of the Indian population does Odisha account for according to the Census 2011?
(a) 2.64%
(b) 3.47%
(c) 5.21%
(d) 6.83%
Ans: (b) 3.47% - In which position does Odisha rank in terms of population among the states and union territories of India?
(a) 9th
(b) 10th
(c) 11th
(d) 12th
Ans: (c) 11th - Which district of Odisha has the highest population according to the Census 2011?
(a) Ganjam
(b) Deogarh
(c) Jajpur
(d) Cuttack
Ans: (a) Ganjam - Which state shares its border with Odisha in the north-east?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Ans: (a) West Bengal - Which state shares its border with Odisha in the north?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Rajasthan
Ans: (c) Jharkhand - Which dynasty was founded by Kharavela?
(a) Nanda
(b) Maurya
(c) Chedi
(d) Ganga
Ans: (c) Chedi - Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Odisha’?
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Baitarani
(c) Brahmani
(d) Subarnarekha
Ans: (a) Mahanadi - Which organization reported a significant increase in dengue cases in Odisha?
(a) National Centre for Disease Control (NCD(c)
(b) National Centre for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBD(c)
(c) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(d) All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS)
Ans: (b) National Centre for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBD(c) - Who has been appointed as the new chief administrator of the Shree Jagannath Temple Administration (SJT(a)?
(a) Veer Vikram Yadav
(b) Arabinda Kumar Padhee
(c) Naveen Patnaik
(d) Pradip Kumar Amat
Ans: (b) Arabinda Kumar Padhee - What prompted the appointment of a new chief administrator for the Shree Jagannath Temple Administration?
(a) Retirement of the previous administrator
(b) A mishap during a traditional ceremony
(c) Financial irregularities
(d) Government policy changes
Ans: (b) A mishap during a traditional ceremony - During his address in Moscow, what did PM Modi wear to highlight Odisha’s cultural heritage?
(a) Sambalpuri Bandha Uttariya
(b) Pattachitra painting
(c) Odisha handloom saree
(d) Silver filigree jewelry
Ans: (a) Sambalpuri Bandha Uttariya - Which university received the Outstanding Skill University Award at the World Education Summit?
(a) Utkal University
(b) Centurion University of Technology and Management (CUTM)
(c) Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology (KIIT)
(d) Siksha ‘O’ Anusandhan (SO(a) University
Ans: (b) Centurion University of Technology and Management (CUTM) - Where was the Golden Sand Master Award conferred to Sudarsan Pattnaik?
(a) Moscow, Russia
(b) Saint Petersburg, Russia
(c) New Delhi, India
(d) Tokyo, Japan
Ans: (b) Saint Petersburg, Russia
Ans: (a) Ganges - Who was responsible for the introduction of the Subsidiary Alliance System?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Amherst
Ans: (c) Lord Wellesley - Who founded the Indian Society of Oriental Art to revive ancient art traditions in India?
(a) Abanindranath Tagore
(b) Ravindranath Tagore
(c) Surendranath Ganguly
(d) Mukul Dey
Ans: (a) Abanindranath Tagore - Who defended Aurobindo Ghosh in the Alipore conspiracy case?
(a) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(b) Motilal Nehru
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Chitranjan Das
Ans: (d) Chitranjan Das - Who initiated the Ganapati Festival in 1893, giving it a national character?
(a) Ganesh Damodar Savarkar
(b) Nana Patil
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Vinoba Bhave
Ans: (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak - In which year did Calcutta become the capital of British India?
(a) 1768
(b) 1770
(c) 1772
(d) 1776
Ans: (c) 1772 - Which Act is associated with Lord William Bentinck’s tenure?
(a) Charter Act of 1833
(b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Pitt’s India Act
(d) Government of India Act of 1858
Ans: (a) Charter Act of 1833 - What was the main outcome of the First Afghan War?
(a) Treaty of Amritsar
(b) Treaty of Lahore
(c) Treaty of Seringapatam
(d) Treaty of Peshawar
Ans: (d) Treaty of Peshawar - Who established the Ryotwari System?
(a) Lord Hastings
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Auckland
(d) Lord William Bentinck
Ans: (a) Lord Hastings - Which viceroy was in power during the revolt of 1857?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Lytton
Ans: (a) Lord Canning - Which viceroy is known for the establishment of the High Courts at Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras?
(a) Lord John Lawrence
(b) Lord Lytton
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Minto II
Ans: (a) Lord John Lawrence - Which act was repealed by Lord Ripon?
(a) The Vernacular Press Act
(b) The Arms Act
(c) The Rowlatt Act
(d) The Indian Councils Act
Ans: (a) The Vernacular Press Act - Which Act introduced by Lord Dalhousie laid the foundation for the Indian railways?
(a) Wood’s Despatch
(b) Charter Act of 1833
(c) Government of India Act of 1858
(d) Regulating Act of 1773
Ans: (a) Wood’s Despatch - Who was the first Viceroy of India?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Lytton
Ans: (a) Lord Canning - Who was responsible for the establishment of the Indian National Congress?
(a) Lord Lansdowne
(b) Lord Dufferin
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Lytton
Ans: (b) Lord Dufferin - Which viceroy is associated with the annulment of the Partition of Bengal?
(a) Lord Hardinge II
(b) Lord Chelmsford
(c) Lord Linlithgow
(d) Lord Minto II
Ans: (a) Lord Hardinge II - Which Act was introduced during Lord Linlithgow’s tenure?
(a) Government of India Act of 1935
(b) The Rowlatt Act
(c) The Vernacular Press Act
(d) The Arms Act
Ans: (a) Government of India Act of 1935 - Which event did not occur during Lord Chelmsford’s tenure?
(a) The Jallianwalla Bagh massacre
(b) The Lucknow Pact
(c) The Government of India Act of 1919
(d) The Non-Cooperation Movement
Ans: (d) The Non-Cooperation Movement - Which viceroy is known for the implementation of the Morley-Minto Reforms?
(a) Lord Minto II
(b) Lord Linlithgow
(c) Lord Reading
(d) Lord Willingdon
Ans: (a) Lord Minto II - Which significant legislation was passed during Lord Irwin’s tenure?
(a) Government of India Act of 1935
(b) The Rowlatt Act
(c) The Simon Commission
(d) The Indian Councils Act
Ans: (a) Government of India Act of 1935 - What major change did the Government of India Act 1858 bring?
(a) Transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown
(b) Introduction of the Doctrine of Lapse
(c) Establishment of the Indian National Congress
(d) The Partition of Bengal
Ans: (a) Transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown - Who was the Viceroy during the establishment of the Durand Commission?
(a) Lord Lansdowne
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Minto II
(d) Lord Ripon
Ans: (b) Lord Curzon - Which viceroy was associated with the Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act?
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Willingdon
(c) Lord Reading
(d) Lord Chelmsford
Ans: (a) Lord Ripon - Who was the Viceroy during the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
(a) Lord Linlithgow
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Willingdon
(d) Lord Reading
Ans: (b) Lord Irwin - Which event marked the beginning of the British Crown’s direct rule in India?
(a) The Revolt of 1857
(b) The Sepoy Mutiny
(c) The Treaty of Amritsar
(d) The Battle of Plassey
Ans: (a) The Revolt of 1857 - Who was the Viceroy when Queen Victoria assumed the title of ‘Kaiser-i-Hind’?
(a) Lord Lytton
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Dufferin
(d) Lord Reading
Ans: (a) Lord Lytton - Which Act was passed during the tenure of Lord Reading?
(a) The Government of India Act of 1935
(b) The Indian Councils Act of 1909
(c) The Rowlatt Act
(d) The Vernacular Press Act
Ans: (a) The Government of India Act of 1935 - Who was responsible for the introduction of the Doctrine of Lapse?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardinge II
(d) Lord Wellesley
Ans: (b) Lord Dalhousie - Which viceroy’s tenure saw the launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a) Lord Chelmsford
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Linlithgow
(d) Lord Willingdon
Ans: (b) Lord Irwin - Who was the Viceroy during the Dandi March?
(a) Lord Linlithgow
(b) Lord Willingdon
(c) Lord Irwin
(d) Lord Reading
Ans: (c) Lord Irwin - Which of the following was NOT introduced by Lord Curzon?
(a) Indian Universities Act
(b) Appointment of Police Commission
(c) Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act
(d) Partition of Bengal
Ans: (c) Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act - Who drafted the Sedition law?
(a) Thomas Babington Macaulay
(b) James Fitzjames Stephen
(c) Claire Ward
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Thomas Babington Macaulay drafted the Sedition law. - In which year was the Sedition law passed?
(a) 1886
(b) 1902
(c) 1820
(d) 1870
Ans: (d)
Explanation: The Sedition law was passed in 1870. - Which Section of the IPC deals with Sedition?
(a) Section 124
(b) Section 124 A
(c) Section 307
(d) Section 302
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Section 124 A of the IPC deals with Sedition. - The first recorded trial under Section 124A of the sedition law in India was against _____.
(a) Jogendra Chandra Bose
(b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(c) Kedar Nath Singh
(d) K.M. Munshi
Ans: (a)
Explanation: The first recorded trial under Section 124A of the sedition law in India was against Jogendra Chandra Bose. - Jogendra Chandra Bose was the editor of which of the following newspapers?
(a) Bangobasi
(b) Madras Courier
(c) Indian Gazette
(d) Bombay Herald
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Jogendra Chandra Bose was the editor of Bangobasi. - Who was the first person to be convicted under Sedition?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans: (c)
Explanation: Bal Gangadhar Tilak was the first person to be convicted under Sedition. - The judge who sentenced Lokmanya Tilak to imprisonment in 1908 also happened to be the lawyer arguing Tilak’s case in a similar trial in 1897. Who was he?
(a) Justice Dinshaw Davar
(b) Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan
(c) Harilal Jekisundas Kania
(d) Mandakolathur Patanjali
Ans: (a)
Explanation: Justice Dinshaw Davar sentenced Lokmanya Tilak to imprisonment in 1908. He argued for Tilak in a similar case in 1897. - Sedition is a ______.
(a) Bailable offence
(b) Non-bailable offence
(c) Cognizable offence
(d) Statutory criminal offence
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Sedition is a non-bailable offence. - What is the punishment under Sedition law?
(a) Imprisonment up to three years
(b) Lifetime imprisonment
(c) Fine
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Under Sedition law, punishment varies from up to three years to life imprisonment. A fine can also be imposed. - In which countries has Sedition law been abolished?
(a) South Korea
(b) Scotland
(c) Ghana
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Explanation: Various countries in the world have abolished Sedition law including South Korea, Scotland, Ghana, and Indonesia. - The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRW(c) was set up in which year?
(a) 1998
(b) 2000
(c) 2002
(d) 2004
Ans: (b) 2000 - Who headed the NCRWC?
(a) K. Subba Rao
(b) Y.V. Chandrachud
(c) M.N. Venkatachaliah
(d) P.B. Gajendragadkar
Ans: (c) M.N. Venkatachaliah - The NCRWC was required to submit its report within what timeframe?
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Two years
(d) Three years
Ans: (b) One year - Which of the following was a primary task of the NCRWC?
(a) To rewrite the Constitution
(b) To review the working of the Constitution
(c) To implement new laws
(d) To conduct General Elections
Ans: (b) To review the working of the Constitution - The NCRWC submitted its report in which year?
(a) 2001
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2004
Ans: (b) 2002 - One of the areas studied by the NCRWC was:
(a) Reforming the education system
(b) Strengthening of parliamentary democracy
(c) Abolishing the judiciary
(d) Privatization of public sector
Ans: (b) Strengthening of parliamentary democracy - Which constitutional amendments were noted by the NCRWC for widening the democratic debate base?
(a) 42nd and 44th Amendments
(b) 52nd and 73rd Amendments
(c) 73rd and 74th Amendments
(d) 86th and 93rd Amendments
Ans: (c) 73rd and 74th Amendments - What was a major political failure identified by the NCRWC?
(a) High literacy rates
(b) Effective electoral processes
(c) Criminalization of politics
(d) Stable governments
Ans: (c) Criminalization of politics - The NCRWC’s recommendations were:
(a) Binding on the Parliament
(b) Advisory in nature
(c) Automatically implemented
(d) Rejected by the Parliament
Ans: (b) Advisory in nature - Which sector saw impressive growth according to the NCRWC’s observations from 1950-2000?
(a) Industrial and service sectors
(b) Agriculture only
(c) Public health only
(d) Judicial system
Ans: (a) Industrial and service sectors - Which of the following figures is associated with the slogan ‘Inquilab Zindabad’ that has contributed to India’s national consciousness?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rani Laxmi Bai
(c) Bhagat Singh
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer: (c) Bhagat Singh - Which organization designs the school syllabus that contributes significantly to shaping the idea of India?
(a) UGC
(b) AICTE
(c) NCERT
(d) CBSE
Answer: (c) NCERT - What is the approximate percentage of India’s population that has access to higher education?
(a) 25-26%
(b) 50-51%
(c) 12-13%
(d) 87-88%
Answer: (c) 12-13% - Which university is mentioned as having a diverse student population contributing to a pan-Indian sense of unity?
(a) Harvard University
(b) Osmania University
(c) Oxford University
(d) Tokyo University
Answer: (b) Osmania University - What percentage of people in the USA have access to higher education?
(a) Approximately 25%
(b) Approximately 50%
(c) Approximately 87%
(d) Approximately 12%
Answer: (c) Approximately 87% - Which Prime Minister of India emphasized the importance of right education for all as a remedy for national issues?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru - Which sport has united Indians across different sections of society?
(a) Hockey
(b) Cricket
(c) Football
(d) Tennis
Answer: (b) Cricket - Who among the following authors wrote patriotic literature that promoted Indian nationalism during the freedom struggle?
(a) Salman Rushdie
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Vikram Seth
Answer: (c) Rabindranath Tagore - Which city is noted for having a population from every region of India, reflecting the idea of national integration?
(a) Chennai
(b) Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Hyderabad
Answer: (c) Mumbai - What role has the press/media played in India’s national integration?
(a) Promoting regionalism
(b) Furthering communal divides
(c) Strengthening national unity
(d) Limiting freedom of expression
Answer: (c) Strengthening national unity - What is the key focus of the Budget 2024 for the real estate industry?
(a) Reduction in property taxes
(b) Transformation and equitable urban development
(c) Increase in land prices
(d) Promotion of luxury housing
Ans: (b) Transformation and equitable urban development - How many homes does the PMAY initiative plan to build in rural and urban areas?
(a) 1 crore
(b) 2 crore
(c) 3 crore
(d) 4 crore
Ans: (c) 3 crore - How much investment has been allocated for urban housing under PMAY – Urban 2.0?
(a) ₹5 lakh crore
(b) ₹7 lakh crore
(c) ₹10 lakh crore
(d) ₹12 lakh crore
Ans: (c) ₹10 lakh crore - What reduction is proposed in the Budget 2024 to enhance accessibility and attract buyers in the real estate sector?
(a) Property tax reduction
(b) Stamp-duty reduction
(c) Land price reduction
(d) Construction cost reduction
Ans: (b) Stamp-duty reduction - What financial support package has been introduced for MSMEs in the Budget 2024?
(a) Credit guarantee scheme
(b) Tax exemptions
(c) Subsidized loans
(d) Comprehensive financial and technology support package
Ans: (d) Comprehensive financial and technology support package - The Budget 2024 proposes the establishment of what to help MSMEs and traditional artisans market their products internationally?
(a) Export subsidies
(b) E-Commerce Export Hubs
(c) Trade fairs
(d) International trade agreements
Ans: (b) E-Commerce Export Hubs - Up to what amount does the new credit guarantee scheme for MSMEs provide coverage?
(a) ₹50 crore
(b) ₹75 crore
(c) ₹100 crore
(d) ₹125 crore
Ans: (c) ₹100 crore - What initiative has been introduced to enhance the participation of MSMEs in digitalization?
(a) Digital India Programme
(b) Mudra loans
(c) Digital footprint scoring linked to MSME credit
(d) Subsidized internet services
Ans: (c) Digital footprint scoring linked to MSME credit - How much central assistance is proposed for the expansion of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) to include 3 crore additional houses?
(a) ₹1.5 lakh crore
(b) ₹2.2 lakh crore
(c) ₹3 lakh crore
(d) ₹3.5 lakh crore
Ans: (b) ₹2.2 lakh crore - What new scheme is introduced in Budget 2024 to make urban housing loans more affordable?
(a) Interest subsidy scheme
(b) Loan repayment extension
(c) Low-interest rate policy
(d) Zero-interest loans
Ans: (a) Interest subsidy scheme - How much allocation has been made for the National Health Mission in Budget 2024?
(a) ₹30,000 crore
(b) ₹35,000 crore
(c) ₹40,000 crore
(d) ₹45,000 crore
Ans: (b) ₹35,000 crore - What is the revised custom duty on mobile phones as per Budget 2024?
(a) 10%
(b) 12%
(c) 15%
(d) 18%
Ans: (b) 12% - The Budget 2024 allocates how much for the promotion of electric vehicles?
(a) ₹5,000 crore
(b) ₹7,500 crore
(c) ₹10,000 crore
(d) ₹12,500 crore
Ans: (b) ₹7,500 crore - The government plans to disburse how many high-yielding climate-resilient crop varieties?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 109
(d) 200
Ans: (c) 109 - How many farmers does the government plan to shift to natural farming practices in the next two years?
(a) 5 million
(b) 10 million
(c) 15 million
(d) 20 million
Ans: (b) 10 million - How many bio-input resource centers will be set up to promote natural farming?
(a) 5,000
(b) 8,000
(c) 10,000
(d) 12,000
Ans: (c) 10,000 - The Budget 2024 proposes the establishment of what in agriculture to improve productivity?
(a) Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)
(b) Agricultural research institutes
(c) Farmers’ cooperatives
(d) Subsidized equipment programs
Ans: (a) Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) - How many districts will be surveyed as part of the new DPI initiative in agriculture?
(a) 200
(b) 300
(c) 400
(d) 500
Ans: (c) 400 - What is the projected GDP growth rate for India in the Budget 2024?
(a) 5.8%
(b) 6.0%
(c) 6.5%
(d) 7.0%
Ans: (c) 6.5% - The fiscal deficit target for FY 2024-25 is set at:
(a) 3.5% of GDP
(b) 4.0% of GDP
(c) 4.5% of GDP
(d) 5.0% of GDP
Ans: (c) 4.5% of GDP - How much allocation has been made for the agriculture sector in Budget 2024?
(a) ₹1 lakh crore
(b) ₹1.2 lakh crore
(c) ₹1.5 lakh crore
(d) ₹2 lakh crore
Ans: (b) ₹1.2 lakh crore - What is the increase in the allocation for the healthcare sector in Budget 2024?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
Ans: (d) 25% - The Budget 2024 has allocated how much for the education sector?
(a) ₹85,000 crore
(b) ₹95,000 crore
(c) ₹1.05 lakh crore
(d) ₹1.15 lakh crore
Ans: (c) ₹1.05 lakh crore - What is the new income tax exemption limit for individual taxpayers under Budget 2024?
(a) ₹2.5 lakh
(b) ₹3 lakh
(c) ₹3.5 lakh
(d) ₹4 lakh
Ans: (b) ₹3 lakh - The Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana received an allocation of:
(a) ₹30,000 crore
(b) ₹40,000 crore
(c) ₹50,000 crore
(d) ₹60,000 crore
Ans: (d) ₹60,000 crore - How much is allocated for the Defense sector in Budget 2024?
(a) ₹3 lakh crore
(b) ₹3.5 lakh crore
(c) ₹4 lakh crore
(d) ₹4.5 lakh crore
Ans: (c) ₹4 lakh crore - The total outlay for the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) in Budget 2024 is:
(a) ₹50 lakh crore
(b) ₹75 lakh crore
(c) ₹100 lakh crore
(d) ₹125 lakh crore
Ans: (b) ₹75 lakh crore - What is the allocation for the MNREGA scheme in Budget 2024?
(a) ₹60,000 crore
(b) ₹70,000 crore
(c) ₹80,000 crore
(d) ₹90,000 crore
Ans: (a) ₹60,000 crore - How much has been allocated for the Ministry of Railways in Budget 2024?
(a) ₹1.2 lakh crore
(b) ₹1.5 lakh crore
(c) ₹1.75 lakh crore
(d) ₹2 lakh crore
Ans: (b) ₹1.5 lakh crore - The Budget 2024 introduced a new scheme for women entrepreneurs with an initial allocation of:
(a) ₹5,000 crore
(b) ₹10,000 crore
(c) ₹15,000 crore
(d) ₹20,000 crore
Ans: (b) ₹10,000 crore - What is the allocation for the Jal Jeevan Mission in Budget 2024?
(a) ₹40,000 crore
(b) ₹50,000 crore
(c) ₹60,000 crore
(d) ₹70,000 crore
Ans: (c) ₹60,000 crore - The Budget 2024 allocates how much for renewable energy projects?
(a) ₹20,000 crore
(b) ₹25,000 crore
(c) ₹30,000 crore
(d) ₹35,000 crore
Ans: (c) ₹30,000 crore - How much is allocated for the Atmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana in Budget 2024?
(a) ₹10,000 crore
(b) ₹15,000 crore
(c) ₹20,000 crore
(d) ₹25,000 crore
Ans: (a) ₹10,000 crore - The World Meteorological Day is observed on:
(a) 21st March
(b) 22nd March
(c) 23rd March
(d) 24th March
Ans: (c) 23rd March - The World Earth Day is observed on:
(a) 20th April
(b) 21st April
(c) 22nd April
(d) 23rd April
Ans: (c) 22nd April - Majuli, the biggest riverine island, is located on which river?
(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Godavari
Ans: (c) Brahmaputra - The World Book and Copyright Day is observed on:
(a) 22nd April
(b) 23rd April
(c) 24th April
(d) 25th April
Ans: (b) 23rd April - The Gandak River originates from:
(a) Yamunotri Glacier
(b) Dhaulagiri
(c) Mapchachungo Glacier
(d) Milan Glacier
Ans: (b) Dhaulagiri - The Kosi River is also known as:
(a) Sapt Kosi
(b) Arun Kosi
(c) Tamur Kosi
(d) Son Kosi
Ans: (a) Sapt Kosi - The Yamuna River merges with the Ganga at:
(a) Varanasi
(b) Kanpur
(c) Prayagraj
(d) Patna
Ans: (c) Prayagraj - The main stream of the Kosi River is:
(a) Yamuna
(b) Arun
(c) Chambal
(d) Ghaghra
Ans: (b) Arun - The emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution are derived from: (a) Germany
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Russia
Ans: (a) Germany - The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are taken from:
(a) USA
(b) USSR
(c) UK
(d) Canada
Ans: (b) USSR - The concept of Judicial Review in India is borrowed from:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: (a) USA - The provision for the President as the Supreme Commander of Armed Forces is taken from:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: (a) USA - The idea of the Rule of Law in the Indian Constitution is influenced by: (a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: (b) UK - The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Ireland
Ans: (d) Ireland - The Preamble of the Indian Constitution includes the ideals of:
(a) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
(b) Justice, Liberty, Equality
(c) Sovereignty, Socialism, Secularism
(d) Democracy, Republic, Unity
Ans: (a) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity - The Independence of the Judiciary in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Ireland
Ans: (a) USA - The idea of Parliamentary form of government in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: (b) UK - The headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) is located in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Paris, France
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (c) Paris, France - Khijadiya, a Ramsar site, is located in which state?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
Ans: (a) Gujarat - The World Trade Organisation (WTO) has its headquarters in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Washington DC, United States
(d) Paris, France
Ans: (a) Geneva, Switzerland - Sultanpur National Park, a Ramsar site, is located in which state?
(a) Bihar
(b) Haryana
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
Ans: (b) Haryana - The headquarters of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICR(c) is located in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Washington DC, United States
(d) Paris, France
Ans: (a) Geneva, Switzerland - The Ramsar site Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?
(a) Haryana
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Bihar
Ans: (b) Himachal Pradesh - The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) has its headquarters in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Montreal, Canada
(d) Paris, France
Ans: (c) Montreal, Canada - Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary, a Ramsar site, is located in which state? (a) Bihar
(b) Haryana
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
Ans: (b) Haryana - The headquarters of the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) is located in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Paris, France
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (d) Vienna, Austria - What is the capital city of France?
(a) Berlin
(b) Madrid
(c) Rome
(d) Paris
Ans: Paris - Which vitamin is also known as ascorbic acid?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Ans: Vitamin C - What is the largest planet in our solar system?
(a) Earth
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
Ans: Jupiter - Who is the author of ‘Harry Potter’ series?
(a) J.K. Rowling
(b) J.R.R. Tolkien
(c) George R.R. Martin
(d) Suzanne Collins
Ans: J.K. Rowling - What is the main constituent of biogas?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Oxygen
Ans: (b) Methane - Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
Ans: (d) Vitamin K - What is the process of converting solid directly into gas called?
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Deposition
Ans: (c) Sublimation - Which element is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors?
(a) Uranium
(b) Plutonium
(c) Graphite
(d) Thorium
Ans: (c) Graphite - What is the chemical formula of ammonium sulfate?
(a) (NH4)2SO4
(b) NH4SO4
(c) NH3SO4
(d) (NH3)2SO4
Ans: (a) (NH4)2SO4 - Which gas is produced when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Carbon dioxide
Ans: (b) Hydrogen - What is the SI unit of electric capacitance?
(a) Henry
(b) Farad
(c) Coulomb
(d) Ohm
Ans: (b) Farad - Which planet has the highest surface temperature in the solar system?
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) Mercury
(d) Jupiter
Ans: (b) Venus - What is the primary component of natural gas?
(a) Ethane
(b) Propane
(c) Methane
(d) Butane
Ans: (c) Methane - What is the main function of ribosomes in a cell?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Protein synthesis
(c) Energy production
(d) Cell division
Ans: (b) Protein synthesis - Which disease is caused by the deficiency of vitamin C?
(a) Rickets
(b) Scurvy
(c) Beriberi
(d) Pellagra
Ans: (b) Scurvy - What is the hardest natural substance on Earth?
(a) Quartz
(b) Diamond
(c) Corundum
(d) Topaz
Ans: (b) Diamond - What is the term for animals that can live both on land and in water?
(a) Reptiles
(b) Amphibians
(c) Mammals
(d) Fishes
Ans: (b) Amphibians - Which process is responsible for the rusting of iron?
(a) Combustion
(b) Oxidation
(c) Reduction
(d) Hydrolysis
Ans: (b) Oxidation - What is the most abundant gas in the Earth’s atmosphere?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Argon
Ans: (c) Nitrogen - Which organ in the human body is primarily responsible for detoxifying chemicals and metabolizing drugs?
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Pancreas
(d) Stomach
Ans: (b) Liver - Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength?
(a) Radio waves
(b) Microwaves
(c) X-rays
(d) Gamma rays
Ans: (d) Gamma rays - What is the basic unit of heredity?
(a) Chromosome
(b) Gene
(c) DNA
(d) RNA
Ans: (b) Gene - Which element is most commonly used in the production of solar cells?
(a) Silver
(b) Copper
(c) Silicon
(d) Gold
Ans: (c) Silicon - What is the term for the study of fungi?
(a) Mycology
(b) Bacteriology
(c) Virology
(d) Botany
Ans: (a) Mycology - Which planet is known as the “Red Planet”?
(a) Mercury
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
Ans: (b) Mars - What is the chemical name for table salt?
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Potassium chloride
(d) Magnesium sulfate
Ans: (a) Sodium chloride - Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Ribosome
(c) Mitochondrion
(d) Lysosome
Ans: (c) Mitochondrion - What is the process of cell division in prokaryotes called?
(a) Mitosis
(b) Meiosis
(c) Binary fission
(d) Budding
Ans: (c) Binary fission - Which element has the highest atomic number?
(a) Uranium
(b) Plutonium
(c) Francium
(d) Oganesson
Ans: (d) Oganesson - What is the most common type of star in the Milky Way galaxy?
(a) Red dwarf
(b) White dwarf
(c) Neutron star
(d) Supernova
Ans: (a) Red dwarf - Which hormone regulates the sleep-wake cycle in humans?
(a) Insulin
(b) Melatonin
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Thyroxine
Ans: (b) Melatonin - What is the main function of the large intestine in the human body?
(a) Digestion of proteins
(b) Absorption of nutrients
(c) Absorption of water
(d) Production of bile
Ans: (c) Absorption of water - Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms?
(a) Ionic bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) Hydrogen bond
(d) Metallic bond
Ans: (b) Covalent bond - What is the most abundant element in the universe?
(a) Helium
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon
(d) Hydrogen
Ans: (d) Hydrogen - Which act regulates MSMEs in India?
(a) Companies Act, 2013
(b) Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development (MSME(d) Act, 2006
(c) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(d) Factories Act, 1948
Answer: (b) Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development (MSME(d) Act, 2006 - Which body manages MSMEs in India?
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of MSME
(d) Ministry of Labour and Employment
Answer: (c) Ministry of MSME - As of July 2020, how are MSMEs classified?
(a) Only by investment in plant and machinery
(b) By investment in plant and machinery and annual turnover
(c) Only by annual turnover
(d) By number of employees and annual turnover
Answer: (b) By investment in plant and machinery and annual turnover - What is the investment limit for a Micro Enterprise under the new classification?
(a) INR 1 crore
(b) INR 5 crore
(c) INR 10 crore
(d) INR 50 crore
Answer: (a) INR 1 crore - Which statutory body under the Ministry of MSME promotes khadi and village industries?
(a) Coir Board
(b) National Small Industries Corporation Limited (NSI(c)
(c) Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVI(c)
(d) National Institute for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (NI-MSME)
Answer: (c) Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVI(c) - What is one of the primary functions of the Coir Board?
(a) Promoting khadi products
(b) Enhancing rural employment
(c) Improving the living conditions of coir workers
(d) Conducting policy-formulating studies
Answer: (c) Improving the living conditions of coir workers - Which institution focuses on promoting entrepreneurship and conducting policy-formulating studies?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Institute for Rural Industrialisation (MGIRI)
(b) Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVI(c)
(c) National Small Industries Corporation Limited (NSI(c)
(d) National Institute for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (NI-MSME)
Answer: (d) National Institute for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (NI-MSME) - What is the employment contribution of MSMEs to India’s manufacturing output?
(a) 20%
(b) 25.4%
(c) 30.4%
(d) 35.4%
Answer: (d) 35.4% - Which of the following is a significant challenge faced by MSMEs in India?
(a) Excessive training programs
(b) Easy access to credit
(c) Heavy licensing, inspection, and compliance requirements
(d) Adequate data collection
Answer: (c) Heavy licensing, inspection, and compliance requirements - What is one recommendation to support the growth of MSMEs in India?
(a) Increase compliance burden
(b) Reduce space regulations
(c) Enhance training programs for entrepreneurs
(d) Decrease financial schemes
Answer: (c) Enhance training programs for entrepreneurs - What is the primary purpose of the Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
(a) To increase agricultural exports
(b) To provide farmers with a minimum guaranteed price for their produce
(c) To encourage farmers to switch to organic farming
(d) To reduce the use of chemical fertilizers
Answer: (b) To provide farmers with a minimum guaranteed price for their produce - Which government body is responsible for recommending the MSP?
(a) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
(c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABAR(d)
Answer: (b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) - How often is the MSP for different crops announced?
(a) Monthly
(b) Annually
(c) Biannually
(d) Quarterly
Answer: (c) Biannually - The MSP is set at least one-and-a-half times which of the following costs?
(a) Market price
(b) Export price
(c) Cost of production
(d) Retail price
Answer: (c) Cost of production - For how many crops does the Indian government announce the MSP?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 22
(d) 24
Answer: (c) 22 - Which crops are primarily procured by the government under MSP?
(a) Pulses and oilseeds
(b) Rice and wheat
(c) Fruits and vegetables
(d) Cotton and jute
Answer: (b) Rice and wheat - What is the role of the Food Corporation of India (FCI) in the MSP system?
(a) Setting the MSP
(b) Recommending the MSP
(c) Procuring crops at MSP
(d) Providing loans to farmers
Answer: (c) Procuring crops at MSP - Which committee recommended at least a 50% profit margin above the cost of production in MSP?
(a) Shanta Kumar Committee
(b) Swaminathan Commission
(c) Agricultural Prices Commission
(d) National Commission on Farmers
Answer: (b) Swaminathan Commission - What is one of the major issues associated with the MSP system?
(a) Overproduction of pulses
(b) Ineffective implementation
(c) High export prices
(d) Low production costs
Answer: (b) Ineffective implementation - Which of the following is NOT a feature of the MSP system?
(a) Pre-announced price
(b) Safety net for farmers
(c) Unregulated market prices
(d) Government intervention
Answer: (c) Unregulated market prices - What was the employment figure in India for FY24 according to RBI’s data?
(a) 57.75 crore
(b) 59.67 crore
(c) 64.33 crore
(d) 56.56 crore
Answer: (c) 64.33 crore - How much did the employment increase in FY24 compared to FY23?
(a) 3.58 crore
(b) 4.67 crore
(c) 5.58 crore
(d) 2.75 crore
Answer: (b) 4.67 crore - What was the recorded employment in FY22?
(a) 57.75 crore
(b) 56.56 crore
(c) 64.33 crore
(d) 59.67 crore
Answer: (b) 56.56 crore - What was the unemployment rate in urban areas for individuals aged 15 years and above in the January-March quarter of 2024?
(a) 6.8%
(b) 7.5%
(c) 6.7%
(d) 5.9%
Answer: (c) 6.7% - The female unemployment rate dropped from 9.2% in January-March 2023 to what percentage in January-March 2024?
(a) 8.5%
(b) 7.9%
(c) 9.1%
(d) 8.7%
Answer: (a) 8.5% - The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in urban areas for those aged 15 years and above increased to what percentage in January-March 2024?
(a) 48.5%
(b) 47.2%
(c) 50.2%
(d) 49.5%
Answer: (c) 50.2% - What was the Worker Population Ratio (WPR) for individuals aged 15 years and above in January-March 2024?
(a) 44.5%
(b) 46.9%
(c) 45.2%
(d) 47.1%
Answer: (b) 46.9% - By how much did the female Worker Population Ratio in urban areas increase from January-March 2023 to January-March 2024?
(a) 2.8%
(b) 1.9%
(c) 2.5%
(d) 2.0%
Answer: (a) 2.8% - What was the female unemployment rate in June 2024?
(a) 15.1%
(b) 18.5%
(c) 19.3%
(d) 16.7%
Answer: (b) 18.5% - According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), what was India’s unemployment rate in December 2022?
(a) 7.44%
(b) 9.3%
(c) 10.09%
(d) 8.30%
Answer: (d) 8.30% - If ‘PEACE’ is coded as ‘RGCEG’, how is ‘WAR’ coded?
(a) YCT
(b) YDU
(c) XBS
(d) VCU
Ans: (a) YCT
Explanation: Each letter is shifted by 2 positions forward in the alphabet. - In a certain code, ‘LANGUAGE’ is written as ‘OEQKXEJI’. How is ‘COUNTRY’ written in that code?
(a) FSXRWVB
(b) GQXWNUZ
(c) FQWVMTZ
(d) EQVULSY
Ans: (a) FSXRWVB
Explanation: Each letter is shifted by 3 & 4 positions forward in the alphabet. - What is the next term in the series 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
(a) 42
(b) 48
(c) 40
(d) 36
Ans: (a) 42
Explanation: The pattern is
𝑛^2+𝑛 where 𝑛 starts from 1. (1+1)=2, (4+2)=6, (9+3)=12, and so on. - Find the next term in the series: 3, 9, 27, 81, ?
(a) 243
(b) 162
(c) 108
(d) 324
Ans: (a) 243
Explanation: Each term is multiplied by 3. - Pen is to Write as Knife is to ?
(a) Cut
(b) Eat
(c) Slice
(d) Sharp
Ans: (a) Cut
Explanation: Pen is used for writing, Knife is used for cutting. - Doctor is to Patient as Teacher is to ?
(a) School
(b) Student
(c) Education
(d) Lecture
Ans: (b) Student
Explanation: Doctor treats patients, teacher educates students. - Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother or sister, but that man’s father is my father’s son.” Whose photograph was it?
(a) His son
(b) His father
(c) His cousin
(d) His nephew
Ans: (a) His son
Explanation: The man is referring to his own son. - Ram said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother.” How is Ram related to the girl?
(a) Grandfather
(b) Husband
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Father
Ans: (c) Father-in-law
Explanation: The girl is married to Ram’s son. - A man walks 5 km towards the north and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km, he turns to the right and walks 5 km. Then, he turns to the left and walks 5 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 5 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 8 km
Ans: (d) 8 km
Explanation: The man is 8 km away from the starting point diagonally. - Rahul walks 30 meters towards the north, then turns right and walks 40 meters. He then turns right and walks 20 meters, and finally turns right and walks 40 meters. How far is he from the starting point?
(a) 10 meters
(b) 20 meters
(c) 30 meters
(d) 40 meters
Ans: (a) 10 meters
Explanation: Rahul is 10 meters north of the starting point. - Statements: All dogs are cats. Some cats are rats.
Conclusions: (i) Some dogs are rats.
(ii) No dog is a rat.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Ans: (c) Either conclusion I or II follows
Explanation: Both conclusions are possible but not definite. - Statements: Some birds are animals. All animals are insects. Conclusions:
(i) Some birds are insects.
(ii) No bird is an insect.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Either conclusion I or II follows
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Ans: (a) Only conclusion I follows
Explanation: Since all animals are insects, some birds being animals implies that some birds are insects. - Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship among “Animals, Lions, and Carnivores”?
Ans: (a) Two intersecting circles within a larger circle - Six friends are sitting in a circle and playing cards. Kenny is to the left of Danny. Joey is to the right of Johnny. Michael is between Danny and Johnny. Who is sitting to the immediate left of Michael?
(a) Joey
(b) Kenny
(c) Danny
(d) Johnny
Ans: (d) Johnny
Explanation: Using the given positions, you can determine the seating arrangement. - How many sisters does John have?
Statements:
(i) John’s father has three children.
(ii) John’s brother has two sisters.
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements together are sufficient
(d) Both statements together are not sufficient
Ans: (b) Statement II alone is sufficient
Explanation: From statement II, we know John has 2 sisters. - Is X the grandmother of Y?
Statements:
(i) Y is the son of Z.
(ii) Z is the daughter of X.
(a) Statement I alone is sufficient
(b) Statement II alone is sufficient
(c) Both statements together are sufficient
(d) Both statements together are not sufficient
Ans: (c) Both statements together are sufficient
Explanation: Combining both statements, X is the grandmother of Y. - Arrange the following words in a logical sequence:
1. Seed
2. Tree
3. Plant
4. Fruit
5. Flower
(a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(b) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(d) 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
Ans: (a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 - In a family of six members A, B, C, D, E, and F, there are three males and three females. There are two married couples, and each family member likes a different fruit including Guava. E, who likes apples, is married to C, who likes oranges. D is the sister of E. B is the brother of F. A likes mangoes and is married to B. C and B are of the same gender. B does not like grapes. F likes bananas. C has only one son. Who likes grapes?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) B
(d) F
Ans: (a) D - How is D related to C?(a) Sister-In-Law
(b) Sister
(c) Daughter
(d) Daughter-In-Law
Ans: (a) Sister-In-Law - Who likes Guavas?(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: (b) B - How is A related to C?(a) Sister-In-Law
(b) Sister
(c) Daughter
(d) Daughter-In-Law
Ans: (d) Daughter-In-Law - How is B related to E?(a) son-In-Law
(b) Son
(c) Uncle
(d) Daughter
Ans: (b) SonExplanation: By process of elimination and logical deduction.
A-Mango
B-Guava
C-Orange
D-Grapes
E-Apples
F-Banana - A, B, C, D, and E are sitting in a row. C is between A and E. B is to the immediate left of A. Who is sitting at the extreme right end?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
Ans: (d) E
Explanation: The arrangement is B, A, C, D, E. - Six friends are sitting in a circle. Amy is between Ben and John. Dan is between John and Mike. Mike is to the immediate left of John. Who is to the immediate right of Dan?
(a) John
(b) Mike
(c) Amy
(d) Ben
Ans: (a) John
Explanation: The arrangement in the circle determines that John is to the immediate right of Dan. - What will be the mirror image of the word ‘LEFT’ if held vertically in front of a mirror?
(a) TFEL
(b) LTFE
(c) EFLT
(d) FLET
Ans: (a) TFEL
Explanation: The mirror image reverses the order of letters. - If the input is ‘pink blue yellow green’, what will be the third step of the output if the steps follow the pattern of arranging the words in alphabetical order?
(a) blue green pink yellow
(b) blue green yellow pink
(c) blue pink green yellow
(d) green blue yellow pink
Ans: (a) blue green pink yellow
Explanation: Step 3 arranges three words alphabetically while the fourth word remains. - Find the odd one out:
(a) Circle
(b) Square
(c) Rectangle
(d) Triangle
Ans: (a) Circle
Explanation: All others are polygons, Circle is not. - If a dice has faces numbered from 1 to 6, which number will be opposite to 3?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 2
Ans: (b) 5
Explanation: Opposite faces of a standard die always sum to 7. - A cube has been painted on all six faces and then cut into smaller cubes of equal size. If the side of the original cube is divided into 3 equal parts, how many smaller cubes will have exactly one face painted?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 18
Ans: (c) 12
Explanation: The cubes on the edges but not on corners of each face will have one face painted. - What is the primary composition of the continental crust?
(a) Silica and magnesium
(b) Silica and alumina
(c) Nickel and iron
(d) Aluminium and magnesium
Ans: (b) Silica and alumina - The oceanic crust is mainly composed of which two elements?
(a) Silica and alumina
(b) Nickel and iron
(c) Silica and magnesium
(d) Iron and magnesium
Ans: (c) Silica and magnesium - How deep does the Earth’s mantle extend?
(a) 1000 km
(b) 2000 km
(c) 2900 km
(d) 3500 km
Ans: (c) 2900 km - Which layer of the Earth is described as having a radius of about 3500 km?
(a) Crust
(b) Mantle
(c) Outer core
(d) Inner core
Ans: (d) Inner core - What are the main minerals that make up the Earth’s crust?
(a) Iron and magnesium
(b) Silica and alumina
(c) Nickel and iron
(d) Calcium and potassium
Ans: (b) Silica and alumina - What term is used to describe rocks formed from the cooling of molten magma?
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Igneous rocks
(d) Fossil rocks
Ans: (c) Igneous rocks - How are sedimentary rocks formed?
(a) From cooling magma
(b) From heat and pressure
(c) From the deposition of sediments
(d) From mineral crystallization
Ans: (c) From the deposition of sediments - What type of rocks are created when igneous and sedimentary rocks are subjected to heat and pressure?
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Igneous rocks
(c) Metamorphic rocks
(d) Volcanic rocks
Ans: (c) Metamorphic rocks
