The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August-7 Download PDF
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August-7
- In which Indian state was the Swayam Yojana launched?
(a) Bihar
(b) Odisha
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
Ans: (b) Odisha - What is the age range of beneficiaries eligible for loans under the Swayam Yojana?
(a) 16-30
(b) 18-35
(c) 20-40
(d) 25-45
Ans: (b) 18-35 - What type of loans does the Swayam Yojana offer to young entrepreneurs?
(a) Interest-based loans
(b) Collateral-based loans
(c) Interest-free loans
(d) Business development loans
Ans: (c) Interest-free loans - How much financial support is provided to families with ration cards under the Swayam Yojana?
(a) Rs. 500
(b) Rs. 750
(c) Rs. 1,000
(d) Rs. 1,500
Ans: (c) Rs. 1,000 - What is the total amount allocated for running the Swayam Yojana for two years?
(a) Rs. 300 crore
(b) Rs. 400 crore
(c) Rs. 448 crore
(d) Rs. 500 crore
Ans: (c) Rs. 448 crore - What is the primary objective of the Swayam Yojana?
(a) Providing employment opportunities
(b) Offering interest-free loans to entrepreneurs
(c) Supporting education for youth
(d) Enhancing healthcare services
Ans: (b) Offering interest-free loans to entrepreneurs - How many young people from rural areas can avail assistance under the Swayam Yojana?
(a) 50,000
(b) 75,000
(c) 1 lakh
(d) 1.5 lakh
Ans: (c) 1 lakh - When was the Swayam Yojana officially launched?
(a) 12th February 2022
(b) 12th February 2023
(c) 12th February 2024
(d) 12th February 2025
Ans: (c) 12th February 2024 - What is the total estimated cost of the Swayam Yojana to assist the people of Odisha?
(a) Rs. 500 crore
(b) Rs. 700 crore
(c) Rs. 1,000 crore
(d) Rs. 1,237.74 crore
Ans: (d) Rs. 1,237.74 crore - What is the primary objective of the KHUSI+ scheme recently expanded by the government in Odisha?
(a) To provide free sanitary napkins to all women in the state
(b) To distribute belted sanitary napkins for institutional deliveries and medical termination of pregnancy
(c) To promote awareness about menstrual hygiene among adolescent girls only
(d) To improve access to healthcare facilities for pregnant women
Ans: (b) To distribute belted sanitary napkins for institutional deliveries and medical termination of pregnancy - What is the main aim of expanding the KHUSI scheme to KHUSI+ in Odisha?
(a) To reduce maternal mortality and morbidity rates
(b) To increase government funding for healthcare facilities
(c) To provide employment opportunities for women
(d) To improve access to education for girls
Ans: (a) To reduce maternal mortality and morbidity rates - According to the National Family Health Survey 5, what percentage of women in Odisha are reported to be using hygienic menstrual protection?
(a) 70%
(b) 75%
(c) 81.5%
(d) 90%
Ans: (c) 81.5% - In which Indian state was the KHUSI scheme launched?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (b) Odisha - What does PM-KISAN stand for?
(a) Prime Minister’s Krishi Sankalp Nidhi
(b) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samriddhi Nidhi
(c) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
(d) Prime Minister’s Kisan Suraksha Nidhi
Ans: (c) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi - When was the PM-KISAN scheme launched?
(a) 24th February 2018
(b) 24th February 2019
(c) 24th February 2020
(d) 24th February 2021
Ans: (b) 24th February 2019 - How is the financial benefit distributed to farmers under the PM-KISAN scheme?
(a) Through cash distribution
(b) Through cheque distribution
(c) Through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mode
(d) Through crop insurance
Ans: (c) Through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mode - In which Indian state was the ‘AMA BHOOMI’ initiative launched?
(a) Odisha
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Ans: (a) Odisha - What is the primary objective of the ‘AMA BHOOMI’ initiative?
(a) To promote agriculture in urban areas
(b) To improve transportation infrastructure
(c) To create and maintain open spaces for urban well-being
(d) To provide affordable housing for low-income families
Ans: (c) To create and maintain open spaces for urban well-being - What does the ‘AMA BHOOMI’ initiative focus on to mitigate urban challenges?
(a) Building skyscrapers
(b) Expanding industrial zones
(c) Creating and maintaining open spaces
(d) Increasing traffic congestion
Ans: (c) Creating and maintaining open spaces - How many types of open spaces are identified under the ‘AMA BHOOMI’ initiative?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: (c) 5 - In which Indian state was the Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana (BSKY) Nabin Card introduced?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Odisha
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (b) Odisha - What is the full form of BSKY in the context of the scheme introduced in Odisha?
(a) Biju Swasthya Kisan Yojana
(b) Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana
(c) Bharat Swasthya Kalyan Yojana
(d) Bharat Swasthya Krishi Yojana
Ans: (b) Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana - Who is eligible to receive the BSKY Nabin Card in rural areas according to the scheme?
(a) Only government employees
(b) Only income taxpayers
(c) All villagers, except government employees and income taxpayers
(d) Only villagers below the poverty line
Ans: (c) All villagers, except government employees and income taxpayers - What percentage of the population in Odisha receives cashless medical benefits under the BSKY scheme?
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Ans: (d) 80% - How much financial assistance do women receive for medical expenses under the BSKY Nabin Card scheme?
(a) Up to Rs. 2 lakh
(b) Up to Rs. 5 lakh
(c) Up to Rs. 8 lakh
(d) Up to Rs. 10 lakh
Ans: (d) Up to Rs. 10 lakh - In which Indian state did the Transport department launch the Automated Driving Testing System (ADTS)?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Odisha
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (b) Odisha - Who developed the software for the Automated Driving Testing System (ADTS) implemented in Odisha?
(a) Odisha State Government
(b) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
(c) National Informatics Centre (NI(c)
(d) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
Ans: (b) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) - Which state government has launched the Nano Unicorn Scheme?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Odisha
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (b) Odisha - What is the primary objective of the Nano Unicorn Scheme?
(a) Promoting large-scale industries in urban areas
(b) Fostering entrepreneurship and reducing unemployment in rural areas
(c) Providing financial assistance to existing microenterprises
(d) Supporting educational institutions in rural regions
Ans: (b) Fostering entrepreneurship and reducing unemployment in rural areas - How many mini-sized businesses (nano unicorns) does the Nano Unicorn Scheme aim to support by 2025-26?
(a) 800
(b) 1,000
(c) 1,200
(d) 1,500
Ans: (c) 1,200 - How much fund has been allocated by the state government for the Nano Unicorn Scheme?
(a) Rs 5.23 crore
(b) Rs 8.99 crore
(c) Rs 11.75 crore
(d) Rs 13.56 crore
Ans: (d) Rs 13.56 crore - What is the size category of businesses targeted under the Nano Unicorn Scheme?
(a) Large-scale businesses
(b) Medium-sized businesses
(c) Micro-sized businesses
(d) Mini-sized businesses
Ans: (d) Mini-sized businesses - Bhadraka inscription gives a description of which dynasty of Odisha?
(a) Muranda
(b) Gupta
(c) Nanda
(d) ChediAns: A [Muranda]
Notes: The Bhadrak inscription refers to the Muranda dynasty, believed to be a foreign tribe that entered India with the Kushanas. - Taranath referred Odisha as?
(a) Odiya
(b) Odivisa
(c) Orissya
(d) None of the aboveAns: B [Odivisa]
Notes: The Tibetan historian Taranath referred to Odisha as Odivisa in his works. - The Chandra Kala Natika was written by?
(a) Viswanath Kaviraj
(b) Ananta Dasa
(c) Jayadeva
(d) AchyutanandaAns: A [Viswanath Kaviraj]
Notes: The Chandra Kala Natika was authored by the renowned Odishan poet Viswanath Kaviraj and depicts the conquest of Gauda (Bengal) by the last Ganga king Bhanudeva IV. - Which of the following was a famous poet, also a contemporary to Rajaraja II?
(a) Dandin
(b) Utbi
(c) Jayadeva
(d) TulsidasaAns: C [Jayadeva]
Notes: Jayadeva, renowned for his work Gita Govind, was a court poet of the Bengal ruler Laxmansena and lived during the time of Rajaraja II. - Who was the first ruler to issue coins with Odia inscriptions?
(a) Mahameghavahana Aira Kharavela
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Ashoka
(d) Pulakesin IIAns: A [Mahameghavahana Aira Kharavela]
Notes: Mahameghavahana Aira Kharavela, a ruler of Kalinga in the 2nd century BCE, was the first to issue coins with Odia inscriptions. - The Kedar Gouri temple was constructed during the reign of which dynasty?
(a) Bhaumakara
(b) Somavamsi
(c) Ganga
(d) CholaAns: C [Ganga]
Notes: The Kedar Gouri temple, located in Bhubaneswar, was constructed during the reign of the Ganga dynasty in Odisha. - Who was the famous Odia poet known for his work “Kanchi Kaveri”?
(a) Gangadhar Meher
(b) Sarala Das
(c) Upendra Bhanja
(d) Gopabandhu DasAns: A [Gangadhar Meher]
Notes: Gangadhar Meher, a prominent Odia poet, wrote “Kanchi Kaveri,” among other literary works. - Which Odia ruler is known for constructing the Jagannath Temple in Puri?
(a) Kapilendra Deva
(b) Chodagangadeva
(c) Anantavarman Chodaganga
(d) Purushottama DevaAns: C [Anantavarman Chodaganga]
Notes: Anantavarman Chodaganga, also known as Chodagangadeva, is credited with constructing the Jagannath Temple in Puri. - The Odisha State Museum in Bhubaneswar was established during the rule of which British governor?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord William BentinckAns: D [Lord William Bentinck]
Notes: The Odisha State Museum in Bhubaneswar was established during the tenure of Lord William Bentinck as the Governor-General of India. - Who was the Odia freedom fighter known as the “Father of Odia Revolution”?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Madhusudan Das
(c) Buxi Jagabandhu
(d) Harekrushna MahatabAns: B [Madhusudan Das]
Notes: Madhusudan Das is referred to as the “Father of Odia Revolution” for his significant role in the Odia renaissance and the movement for the creation of a separate Odisha state. - Which festival is celebrated as the Odia New Year?
(a) Rath Yatra
(b) Durga Puja
(c) Makar Sankranti
(d) Pana SankrantiAns: D [Pana Sankranti]
*Notes: Pana Sankranti, also known as Maha Vishuba Sankranti, marks the Odia New Year and is celebrated with fervor in Odia New Year - What were the various units of land under the Gajapati dynasty?(a) Guntha
(b) Mana
(c) Bati
(d) All of the above
Ans: D [All of the above]Explanation: Guntha (20 cubic sq), Mana (25 Gunthas), Bati (20 Manas) were the different units of Land under the Gajapati dynasty. - In 1849, which region of Odisha came under direct British control due to the Doctrine of Lapse?(a) Satara
(b) Cuttack
(c) Sambalpur
(d) Koraput
Ans: C [Sambalpur]Explanation: The Doctrine of Lapse, initiated by Lord Dalhousie, led to Sambalpur in Odisha falling under direct British control in 1849, following the similar fate of Satara (Maharashtr(a) in 1848. - Who introduced the Doctrine of Lapse?(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Mountbatten
Ans: A [Lord Dalhousie]Explanation: The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Lord Dalhousie during British rule in India. - Which region faced the consequences of the Doctrine of Lapse before Sambalpur in Odisha?(a) Jaipur
(b) Nagpur
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Jhansi
Ans: B [Nagpur]Explanation: Before Sambalpur, Nagpur faced the consequences of the Doctrine of Lapse, being annexed by the British in 1854. - What does VSHORADS stand for?(a) Very Short-Range Air Defence System
(b) Very Short-Range Anti-Aircraft Defence System
(c) Very Short-Range High-Speed Air Defence System
(d) Very Short-Range Surface-to-Air Defence System
Ans: A [Very Short-Range Air Defence System]Explanation: VSHORADS stands for Very Short-Range Air Defence System. - Who designed and developed the VSHORADS missile?(a) Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)
(b) Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
(c) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
(d) Indian Defence Forces
Ans: B [Research Centre Imarat (RCI)]Explanation: VSHORADS is indigenously designed and developed by the Research Centre Imarat (RCI) in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories and Indian industry partners. - What type of missile is VSHORADS?(a) Surface-to-Air Missile (SAM)
(b) Air-to-Air Missile (AAM)
(c) Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPA(d)
(d) Anti-Ship Missile (ASM)
Ans: C [Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPA(d)]Explanation: VSHORADS is a Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPA(d). - What innovative technology does the VSHORADS missile incorporate?(a) Miniaturised Radar System
(b) Integrated Avionics
(c) Hypersonic Propulsion
(d) Stealth Coating
Ans: B [Integrated Avionics]Explanation: The VSHORADS missile incorporates integrated avionics among other innovative technologies. - Which propulsion system does the VSHORADS missile use?(a) Liquid Fuel
(b) Hybrid Fuel
(c) Dual Thrust Solid Motor
(d) Ramjet Engine
Ans: C [Dual Thrust Solid Motor]Explanation: The VSHORADS missile is propelled by a dual thrust solid motor. - What is the main objective of the VSHORADS missile?(a) Neutralize high-altitude aerial threats
(b) Intercept and destroy unmanned aerial targets at short ranges
(c) Engage ground targets in urban areas
(d) Provide long-range surveillance capabilities
Ans: B [Intercept and destroy unmanned aerial targets at short ranges]Explanation: The main objective of the VSHORADS missile is to intercept and destroy unmanned aerial targets at short ranges. - Which region witnessed the recent successful flight tests of the VSHORADS missile?(a) Punjab
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Odisha
(d) Maharashtra
Ans: C [Odisha]Explanation: The recent successful flight tests of the VSHORADS missile were conducted in Odisha. - What role does the Reaction Control System (RCS) play in the VSHORADS missile?(a) Propulsion
(b) Target Acquisition
(c) Guidance and Control
(d) Stealth Operations
Ans: C [Guidance and Control]Explanation: The miniaturised Reaction Control System (RCS) is an integral part of the VSHORADS missile, contributing to its guidance and control capabilities. - Who launched 2,000 CSP Plus outlets under the ‘Ama Bank’ scheme in Odisha?(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(b) Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik
(c) Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
(d) Governor of Odisha Ganeshi Lal
Ans: B [Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik]Explanation: Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik launched 2,000 CSP Plus outlets under the ‘Ama Bank’ scheme in Odisha. - What is the primary objective of the ‘Ama Bank’ scheme launched in Odisha?(a) To provide employment opportunities in rural areas
(b) To extend banking services to unbanked panchayats
(c) To promote digital literacy among rural youth
(d) To enhance agricultural productivity
Ans: B [To extend banking services to unbanked panchayats]Explanation: The primary objective of the ‘Ama Bank’ scheme is to extend banking services to unbanked panchayats in Odisha. - Approximately what percentage of gram panchayats lack a physical bank branch in Odisha?(a) 35%
(b) 45%
(c) 55%
(d) 65%
Ans: D [65%]Explanation: About 65% of total gram panchayats lack a physical bank branch in Odisha. - How many public sector banks collaborated with the Government of Odisha for the implementation of the ‘Ama Bank’ scheme?(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: D [6]Explanation: Six public sector banks collaborated with the Government of Odisha for the implementation of the ‘Ama Bank’ scheme. - What does CSP Plus stand for in the context of the ‘Ama Bank’ scheme?(a) Customer Service Points Plus
(b) Comprehensive Service Points Plus
(c) Community Support Points Plus
(d) Customer Satisfaction Points Plus
Ans: A [Customer Service Points Plus]Explanation: CSP Plus stands for Customer Service Points Plus in the context of the ‘Ama Bank’ scheme. - Which of the following benefits can rural populations in Odisha access through the ‘Ama Bank’ initiative?(a) Healthcare services
(b) Educational scholarships
(c) Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT)
(d) Transportation subsidies
Ans: C [Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT)]Explanation: Rural populations in Odisha can access Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT) through the ‘Ama Bank’ initiative. - By when does the Government of Odisha aim to cover all unbanked gram panchayats under the ‘Ama Bank’ scheme?(a) By the end of the next financial year
(b) By the end of the current financial year 2023-24
(c) Within the next five years
(d) Within the next ten years
Ans: B [By the end of the current financial year 2023-24]Explanation: The Government of Odisha aims to cover all unbanked gram panchayats under the ‘Ama Bank’ scheme by the end of the current financial year 2023-24. - Human history in Odisha began in which era?
(a) Upper Paleolithic
(b) Lower Paleolithic
(c) Mesolithic
(d) Chalcolithic
Ans: B [Lower Paleolithic]
Explanation: The lower Paleolithic era marks the beginning of human history in Odisha, which lasted from 2 million BC up to 10000 BC. - Who divided Kalinga into three divisions?
(a) Pliny
(b) Curtius
(c) Plutarch
(d) Diodorus
Ans: A [Pliny]
Explanation: Pliny, the foreign historian, divided Kalinga into three divisions: Gangarides, Maceo, and Calingae. - Which period of history is associated with the beginning of human settlement in Odisha?
(a) Upper Paleolithic
(b) Mesolithic
(c) Neolithic
(d) Chalcolithic
Ans: B [Mesolithic]
Explanation: The Mesolithic period is associated with the beginning of human settlement in Odisha, following the Lower Paleolithic era. - During which era did hunting and food gathering serve as the main professions of humans in Odisha?
(a) Upper Paleolithic
(b) Mesolithic
(c) Neolithic
(d) Chalcolithic
Ans: A [Upper Paleolithic]
Explanation: Hunting and food gathering were the main professions of humans during the Upper Paleolithic era in Odisha. - Who was the foreign historian who mentioned the three parts of Kalinga?
(a) Pliny
(b) Curtius
(c) Plutarch
(d) Diodorus
Ans: A [Pliny]
Explanation: Pliny, the foreign historian, mentioned the three parts of Kalinga as Gangarides, Maceo, and Calingae. - Which period of history followed the Lower Paleolithic era in Odisha?
(a) Mesolithic
(b) Neolithic
(c) Chalcolithic
(d) Iron Age
Ans: A [Mesolithic]
Explanation: The Mesolithic period followed the Lower Paleolithic era in Odisha, marking the beginning of human settlement and the transition to more sophisticated tools and lifestyles. - Which of the following factors contributed to the Gumsar Rebellion?
(a) Suppression of Meriah
(b) Forceful collection of land revenue up to 50%
(c) Death of Dhananjay Bhanja
(d) All of the aboveAns: D [All of the above]Explanation: The Gumsar Rebellion was triggered by a combination of factors including the suppression of the Meriah community, forceful collection of high land revenue, and the death of Dhananjay Bhanja. The discontent among the people due to these reasons culminated in the rebellion. - When is Odisha Day celebrated?
(a) 26th February
(b) 1st April
(c) 3rd April
(d) 9th AprilAns: B [1st April]Explanation: Odisha Day, also known as Utkala Divas, is celebrated on 1st April. On this day in 1936, Odisha became a separate province on a linguistic basis. - Who led the Gumsar Rebellion?
(a) Dhananjay Bhanja
(b) Dora Bisoi
(c) Chakhi Khuntia
(d) Raghunath NayakAns: C [Chakhi Khuntia]Explanation: Chakhi Khuntia was one of the leaders of the Gumsar Rebellion which took place in the Gumsar region of Odisha in the 1830s. - What was the primary cause of the Gumsar Rebellion?
(a) Economic exploitation by British landlords
(b) Religious suppression by colonial authorities
(c) Cultural imperialism by foreign missionaries
(d) Oppression and exploitation of tribal communitiesAns: D [Oppression and exploitation of tribal communities]Explanation: The primary cause of the Gumsar Rebellion was the oppression and exploitation faced by tribal communities, particularly the Meriah tribe, at the hands of colonial authorities and local landlords. - What significant event occurred on 1st April 1936 in Odisha?
(a) Independence from British rule
(b) Formation of a separate linguistic province
(c) Declaration of statehood
(d) Implementation of major land reformsAns: B [Formation of a separate linguistic province]Explanation: On 1st April 1936, Odisha became a separate linguistic province, marking a significant milestone in the history of the region. - Who was Dhananjay Bhanja and why was his death significant?
(a) A British colonial official who suppressed tribal uprisings
(b) A tribal leader who spearheaded resistance against British rule
(c) A local landlord known for exploiting peasants
(d) A ruler whose death triggered the Gumsar RebellionAns: D [A ruler whose death triggered the Gumsar Rebellion]Explanation: Dhananjay Bhanja’s death was significant as it served as an immediate trigger for the Gumsar Rebellion due to the discontent and grievances among the people. - What was the outcome of the Gumsar Rebellion?
(a) Suppression of the rebellion and further exploitation of tribal communities
(b) Negotiated settlement leading to improved rights for tribal populations
(c) Independence of Odisha from British rule
(d) Emergence of tribal autonomy in the regionAns: A [Suppression of the rebellion and further exploitation of tribal communities]Explanation: Unfortunately, the Gumsar Rebellion was suppressed by the colonial authorities, leading to further exploitation of tribal communities and a continuation of oppressive policies. - How many states does Odisha share its boundary with?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2Ans: B [4]Explanation: Odisha shares its boundary with four states: Andhra Pradesh to the south, Chhattisgarh to the west, and Jharkhand and West Bengal to the north. - In which district is the capital city of Odisha, Bhubaneswar, situated?
(a) Deogarh
(b) Koraput
(c) Khordha
(d) BalasoreAns: C [Khordha]Explanation: Bhubaneswar, the capital city of Odisha, is situated in Khordha district. It lies southwest of the Mahanadi river. - Which part of the Rushikulya Plain is often compared with the Sundarbans?
(a) Arable Tract
(b) Salt Tract
(c) Sub-Montane Tract
(d) None of the aboveAns: B [Salt Tract]Explanation: The Salt Tract of the Rushikulya Plain is often compared with the Sundarbans. This area is covered with tidal forests. - Which river is not associated with Odisha?
(a) Brahmani
(b) Godavari
(c) Mahanadi
(d) SubarnarekhaAns: B [Godavari]Explanation: While the Brahmani, Mahanadi, and Subarnarekha rivers are associated with Odisha, the Godavari river primarily flows through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh. - Which national park is located in Odisha?
(a) Bandhavgarh National Park
(b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Simlipal National Park
(d) Sundarbans National ParkAns: C [Simlipal National Park]Explanation: Simlipal National Park is located in Odisha. It is known for its biodiversity and is one of the largest tiger reserves in India. - Which festival is celebrated with the most enthusiasm in Odisha?
(a) Durga Puja
(b) Diwali
(c) Rath Yatra
(d) NavratriAns: C [Rath Yatra]Explanation: Rath Yatra, the chariot festival dedicated to Lord Jagannath, is celebrated with the most enthusiasm in Odisha, especially in the city of Puri. - What is the traditional dance form of Odisha called?
(a) Kathakali
(b) Bharatanatyam
(c) Odissi
(d) KuchipudiAns: C [Odissi]Explanation: Odissi is the traditional dance form of Odisha, characterized by its graceful movements and intricate footwork. - Which hill range separates Odisha from its neighboring state Chhattisgarh?
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Satpura Range
(c) Vindhya Range
(d) Aravalli RangeAns: A [Eastern Ghats]Explanation: The Eastern Ghats separate Odisha from its neighboring state Chhattisgarh. - Which of the following is a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Odisha?
(a) Konark Sun Temple
(b) Lingaraja Temple
(c) Chilika Lake
(d) Sanchi StupaAns: (a) Konark Sun TempleExplanation: The Konark Sun Temple is indeed a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in Odisha, India. - What deity is the Konark temple dedicated to?
(a) Lord Shiva
(b) Lord Vishnu
(c) Lord Surya (Sun Go(d)
(d) Lord GaneshaAns: C [Lord Surya (Sun Go(d)] - How many wheels adorn the monumental representation of the sun god Surya’s chariot at the Konark temple?
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 30Ans: C [24] - In which century was the Konark Sun Temple built?
(a) 10th century
(b) 12th century
(c) 13th century
(d) 15th centuryAns: C [13th century] - Who is credited with the construction of the Konark Sun Temple?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Narasinga Deva I
(c) Ashoka the Great
(d) HarshavardhanaAns: B [Narasinga Deva I]Explanation: The Konark Sun Temple is attributed to King Narasinga Deva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty, who ruled during the 13th century CE. He commissioned the construction of this magnificent temple dedicated to the Sun God, Surya. - Where is the Konark Sun Temple located?
(a) South of Puri
(b) West of Bhubaneswar
(c) Northeast of Puri
(d) Southeast of CuttackAns: C [Northeast of Puri]Explanation: The Konark Sun Temple is situated northeast of Puri on the coastline of Odisha, India. Puri is a famous pilgrimage city located on the eastern coast of India. - When was the Konark Sun Temple declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site?
(a) 1965
(b) 1975
(c) 1984
(d) 1994Ans: C [1984]Explanation: The Konark Sun Temple was recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in the year 1984. This designation signifies its outstanding universal value and cultural significance, leading to its preservation and conservation for future generations to appreciate. - Which state government announced a ‘Research Fund’ for medical colleges and institutes to boost medical research?
(a) Odisha
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil NaduAns: A [Odisha]Explanation: The key points mentioned, such as the provision of funds and objectives, indicate that the announcement was made by the state government of Odisha to boost medical research. - Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality?(a) Article 14
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 15
Ans: (a) Article 14 - The Right to Equality includes provisions against:(a) Discrimination based on religion
(b) Discrimination based on race
(c) Discrimination based on gender
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression?(a) Article 19
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22
Ans: (a) Article 19 - The Right to Freedom includes:(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Right to assemble peacefully
(c) Right to form associations or unions
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - Which article of the Indian Constitution prohibits trafficking and forced labor?(a) Article 23
(b) Article 24
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 26
Ans: (a) Article 23 - The Right against Exploitation ensures:(a) Right to fair wages
(b) Prohibition of child labor
(c) Right to education for all children
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b) Prohibition of child labor - Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Freedom of Religion?(a) Article 25
(b) Article 26
(c) Article 27
(d) Article 28
Ans: (a) Article 25 - The Right to Freedom of Religion includes:(a) Right to propagate religion
(b) Right to convert others by force
(c) Right to practice religion freely
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c) Right to practice religion freely - Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees Cultural and Educational Rights?(a) Article 29
(b) Article 30
(c) Article 31
(d) Article 32
Ans: (a) Article 29 - The Cultural and Educational Rights include:(a) Right to conserve language, script, or culture
(b) Right to compulsory primary education
(c) Right to free education for all
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a) Right to conserve language, script, or culture - Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies?(a) Article 32
(b) Article 33
(c) Article 34
(d) Article 35
Ans: (a) Article 32 - The Right to Constitutional Remedies empowers citizens to:(a) Challenge the violation of fundamental rights in court
(b) File a complaint against the government
(c) Overthrow the government
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a) Challenge the violation of fundamental rights in court - Which articles of the Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights?(a) Articles 1-11
(b) Articles 12-35
(c) Articles 36-51
(d) Articles 52-75
Ans: (b) Articles 12-35 - Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are conferred upon:(a) Only citizens of India
(b) Both citizens and non-citizens residing in India
(c) Only government officials
(d) Only members of the Parliament
Ans: (a) Only citizens of India - Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV
Ans: (c) Part III - Which article of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, and gender?(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17
Ans: (b) Article 15 - Article 15 allows the State to make special provisions for:(a) All citizens equally
(b) Only women and children
(c) Socially and educationally backward classes
(d) Religious minorities
Ans: (c) Socially and educationally backward classes - Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment?(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17
Ans: (c) Article 16 - Article 16 creates exceptions for the implementation of measures of affirmative action for:(a) Religious institutions
(b) Women and children
(c) Backward classes
(d) Foreign citizens
Ans: (c) Backward classes - Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability?(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 18
Ans: (c) Article 17 - The practice of untouchability, as per Article 17, is an offense punishable by law under:(a) The Constitution
(b) The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
(c) The Indian Penal Code
(d) The Criminal Procedure Code
Ans: (b) The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 - Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?(a) Right to Speech
(b) Right to Religion
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Ans: (d) Right to Life and Personal Liberty - Where are the Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Indian Constitution?(a) Part-IV A
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-III
(d) In schedule IV-A
Ans: (a) Part-IV A - Which Article of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Duties?(a) 45 A
(b) 51 A
(c) 42
(d) 30B
Ans: (b) 51 A - Which of the following are Fundamental Duties?(a) Safeguarding public property
(b) Protecting the sovereignty, integrity and unity of India
(c) Developing scientific temper and humanism
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - Which amendment to the Indian Constitution introduced free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right?
(a) The Constitution (Eighty-first Amendment) Act, 2000
(b) The Constitution (Eighty-second Amendment) Act, 2001
(c) The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2002
(d) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002
Ans: (d) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 - According to Article 21-A of the Indian Constitution, free and compulsory education is provided to children in the age group of:
(a) Five to twelve years
(b) Six to fourteen years
(c) Seven to fifteen years
(d) Eight to sixteen years
Ans: (b) Six to fourteen years - The State is mandated to provide free and compulsory education under Article 21-A in a manner determined by:
(a) The Central Government
(b) The President
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The State by law
Ans: (d) The State by law - Which of the following statements about Article 21-A is true?
(a) It guarantees free education only to children from economically disadvantaged backgrounds.
(b) It ensures free and compulsory education for all children between the ages of six and eighteen.
(c) It allows states to determine the manner of providing education but does not make it compulsory.
(d) It makes free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged six to fourteen.
Ans: (d) It makes free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged six to fourteen. - The State is mandated to provide free and compulsory education under which article of the Indian Constitution?(a) Article 21-A
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 51A
(d) Article 32
Ans: (a) Article 21-A - What feature of the Indian Constitution was inspired by the United States’ impeachment process?
(a) Federal Scheme
(b) Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges
(c) Functions of the President and Vice-president
(d) Independence of Judiciary
Ans: B [Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges] - Which of the following is a borrowed feature from the United States ?
(a) Vice President as ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Judicial review
(d) Preamble of the Constitution
Ans: A [Vice President as ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha] - What aspect of the Indian Constitution was influenced by the United States regarding the powers and functions of the President?
(a) Judicial review
(b) Functions of the President and Vice-president
(c) Preamble of the Constitution
(d) Independence of Judiciary
Ans: B [Functions of the President and Vice-president] - Which feature of the Indian Constitution reflects the concept of Fundamental Rights borrowed from the United States?
(a) Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges
(b) Judicial review
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Independence of Judiciary
Ans: C [Fundamental Rights] - Which aspect of the Indian Constitution reflects the idea of the independence of the judiciary borrowed from the United States?
(a) Independence of Judiciary
(b) Impeachment of the President
(c) Functions of the President and Vice-president
(d) Preamble of the Constitution
Ans: A [Independence of Judiciary] - What part of the Indian Constitution was influenced by the United States’ concept of a written constitution?
(a) Judicial review & Independence of Judiciary
(b) Preamble of the Constitution
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Impeachment of the President
Ans: B [Preamble of the Constitution] - What aspect of the Indian Constitution was influenced by the United States concerning the role of the President and Vice President?
(a) Functions of the President and Vice-president
(b) Impeachment of the President
(c) Preamble of the Constitution
(d) Fundamental Rights
Ans: A [Functions of the President and Vice-president] - Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union and its Territory?
(a) Part II
(b) Part V
(c) Part I
(d) Part VI
Ans: C [Part I – Union & Its Territory] - Which part of the Indian Constitution contains provisions related to Fundamental Rights?
(a) Part IV A
(b) Part III
(c) Part VII
(d) Part IX
Ans: B [Part III – Fundamental Rights] - The principles of State policy are enshrined in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part XIV
(b) Part IV
(c) Part IX A
(d) Part XII
Ans: B [Part IV – Directive Principles] - Which part of the Indian Constitution specifies the duties of citizens towards the nation?
(a) Part XXI
(b) Part IV A
(c) Part V
(d) Part II
Ans: B [Part IV A – Fundamental Duties] - The provisions regarding elections in India are detailed in which part of the Constitution?
(a) Part XV
(b) Part XI
(c) Part XVI
(d) Part XIX
Ans: A [Part XV – Elections] - Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the establishment and functioning of Panchayats?
(a) Part IX A
(b) Part XII
(c) Part IX
(d) Part X
Ans: C [Part IX – The Panchayats] - The provisions regarding emergency situations are outlined in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part XVIII
(b) Part XII
(c) Part XIX
(d) Part XXI
Ans: A [Part XVIII – Emergency Provisions] - Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the amendment process?
(a) Part XX
(b) Part XVII
(c) Part XXI
(d) Part XIX
Ans: A [Part XX – Amendment of the Constitution] - The provisions related to the official languages of India are outlined in which part of the Constitution?
(a) Part XIV
(b) Part XVII
(c) Part XI
(d) Part XIII
Ans: B [Part XVII – Official Languages] - part of the Indian Constitution contains temporary, transitional, and special provisions?
(a) Part XXI
(b) Part XXII
(c) Part XX
(d) Part XIX
Ans: A [Part XXI – Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions] - What are the three landmark Bills relating to the criminal justice system passed during the Winter Session, 2023?
(a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023; Bharatiya Sakshya Bill, 2023
(b) Indian Penal Code, 1860; Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(c) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023; Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Act, 2023
(d) Bharatiya Sakshya Bill, 2023; Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fifth Amendment) Act, 2023; Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Third Amendment) Act, 2023
Ans: A [Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023; Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023; Bharatiya Sakshya Bill, 2023] - What is the purpose of the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fifth Amendment) Act, 2023?
(a) Revision of list of Scheduled Tribes in Chhattisgarh
(b) Revision of list of Scheduled Castes in Chhattisgarh
(c) Revision of list of Scheduled Tribes in Himachal Pradesh
(d) Revision of list of Scheduled Castes in Himachal Pradesh
Ans: A [Revision of list of Scheduled Tribes in Chhattisgarh] - Which Amendment Act provides for the revision of the list of Scheduled Tribes in Himachal Pradesh?
(a) Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fifth Amendment) Act, 2023
(b) Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Third Amendment) Act, 2023
(c) Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Act, 2023
(d) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
Ans: B [Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Third Amendment) Act, 2023] - What are the objectives of the Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Act, 2023?
(a) Strengthen governance, enhance transparency, and increase accountability
(b) Revise the list of Scheduled Tribes in Chhattisgarh
(c) Enhance electoral process in the Multi-State Cooperative Societies
(d) Reform the Indian Penal Code, 1860
Ans: A [Strengthen governance, enhance transparency, and increase accountability] - Which Act aims to improve the monitoring mechanism and ensure Ease of Doing Business for Multi-State Cooperative Societies?
(a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
(b) Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Third Amendment) Act, 2023
(c) Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Act, 2023
(d) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023
Ans: C [Multi-State Co-operative Societies (Amendment) Act, 2023] - Where does the Odisha state government plan to establish the Biju Patnaik Aviation Centre (BPA(c)?
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Birasal airstrip in Dhenkanal district
(c) Cuttack
(d) Berhampur
Ans: B [Birasal airstrip in Dhenkanal district] - Which Indian state recently announced a ‘Research Fund’ to boost medical research in its medical colleges and institutes?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: B [Odisha] - Under which department did the Odisha state government introduce the ‘Research Fund’ to boost medical research?
(a) Department of Education
(b) Department of Agriculture
(c) Health and Family Welfare Department
(d) Department of Transport
Ans: C [Health and Family Welfare Department] - Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 14
(d) Article 18Ans: C [Article 14 – Equality before the law] - Which article prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 18
Ans: B [Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth] - Article 16 of the Indian Constitution ensures:
(a) Equality before the law
(b) Abolition of untouchability
(c) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(d) Abolition of titles
Ans: C [Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment] - Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 18
Ans: C [Article 17 – Abolition of untouchability] - Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes titles?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 18
Ans: D [Article 18 – Abolition of titles] - On which day does the Summer Solstice occur in the Northern Hemisphere?
(a) 22nd December
(b) 21st March
(c) 23rd September
(d) 21st June
Ans: (d) 21st June - When does the entire earth experience equal days and nights?
(a) Day of winter solstice
(b) Day of summer solstice
(c) At orbital plane
(d) Day of equinox
Ans: (d) Day of equinox - Name the state capital located 53 meters above the sea level between 93 East longitude and 27 North latitude.
(a) Dispur
(b) Itanagar
(c) Patna
(d) Hyderabad
Ans: (b) Itanagar - India is located to the North of the _____?
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Equator
(d) Prime Meridian
Ans: (c) Equator - 1° latitude is equal to approximately _____ km?
(a) 111
(b) 145
(c) 133
(d) 122
Ans: (a) 111 - The Indian Standard Time corresponds to the longitude _____ degrees East.
(a) 85
(b) 85.5
(c) 76.5
(d) 79.5
Ans: (a) 85 - All parallel circles from the Equator to the poles are known as______?
(a) Parallels of Latitude
(b) Arctic Circle
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) Antarctic Circle
Ans: (a) Parallels of Latitude - On which day of the year is the earth farthest from the sun, at a position called aphelion?
(a) 19 August
(b) 23 October
(c) 12 May
(d) 4 July
Ans: (d) 4 July - Which among the following has its latitude within one degree of that New Delhi?
(a) Amarnath Cave
(b) City of Islamabad
(c) City of Dhaka
(d) Mount Everest
Ans: (d) Mount Everest - The Indian Standard Time is calculated from the clock tower of ______?
(a) Hamirpur
(b) Rampur
(c) Mirzapur
(d) Sambalpur
Ans: (c) Mirzapur - Which imaginary line at 23°30’N divides India into almost two halves?
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Prime Meridian
(d) Tropic of Cancer
Ans: (d) Tropic of Cancer - Lines joining locations at equal travel time from a common center are called?
(a) Isohalines
(b) Isochrones
(c) Isobar
(d) Isobronts
Ans: (b) Isochrones - The 90-degree East Meridian does NOT pass through which of the following?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Sikkim
(c) Bhutan
(d) Bangladesh
Ans: (b) Sikkim - The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through which of the following Indian states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) West Bengal
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (b) West Bengal - Through which of the following states does the Tropic of Cancer run?
(a) Assam
(b) Mizoram
(c) Nagaland
(d) Manipur
Ans: (b) Mizoram - The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through which of the following Indian states?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Gujarat
(c) Tripura
(d) Maharashtra
Ans: (d) Maharashtra - What is known as Hunter’s Moon in the West, is called as ____ in India?
(a) Pausha Purnima
(b) Magha Purnima
(c) Chaitra Purnima
(d) Kartik Purnima
Ans: (d) Kartik Purnima - The Physics Phenomenon when, in Polar regions like Alaska and Northern Canada, a splendid display of colors is seen in the sky is called a/an?
(a) aurora borealis
(b) star shower
(c) active galactic nucleus
(d) star’s intrinsic luminosity
Ans: (a) aurora borealis - The summer solstice 2019 in the Northern Hemisphere occurs on ________?
(a) 24 June
(b) 21 June
(c) 26 June
(d) 20 June
Ans: (b) 21st June - What is the term used to describe the angular distance of a place North or South of Earth’s equator?
(a) Hemisphere
(b) Pole
(c) Longitude
(d) Latitude
Ans: (d) Latitude - What does the Japanese word “Tsunami” mean?
(a) Gneiss
(b) Jishin
(c) Volcano
(d) Tsunami
Ans: (d) Tsunami - Where is the Great Barrier Reef located?
(a) Australia
(b) Bahrain
(c) Peru
(d) Mexico
Ans: (a) Australia - Which of the following is NOT a coastal landform?
(a) Moraines
(b) Sea Cliff
(c) Sea Caves
(d) Sea Stacks
Ans: (a) Moraines - In which ocean is the Island country Fiji situated?
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Arctic Ocean
(c) Atlantic Ocean
(d) Pacific Ocean
Ans: (d) Pacific Ocean - What is the rhythmic rise and fall of ocean water twice in a day called?
(a) Wave
(b) Tide
(c) Tsunami
(d) Current
Ans: (b) Tide - Which instrument records earthquake waves?
(a) Seismograph
(b) Richter Scale
(c) Speedometer
(d) Odometer
Ans: (a) Seismograph - What zone separates the crust and mantle?
(a) Moho
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Lithosphere
(d) Asthenosphere
Ans: (a) Moho - What force pulls everything towards the Earth?
(a) Thrust
(b) Air Pressure
(c) Gravity
(d) Resistance
Ans: (c) Gravity - To which continent do India, China, and Japan belong?
(a) Asia
(b) Antarctica
(c) Africa
(d) Europe
Ans: (a) Asia - In ocean energy conversion, what does the ‘T’ in OTEC stand for?
(a) Tidal
(b) Thermal
(c) Technological
(d) Thermodynamic
Ans: (b) Thermal - Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
Ans: Mars - The Indian National Congress was founded in which year?
(a) 1857
(b) 1885
(c) 1905
(d) 1947
Ans: 1885 - Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans: B.R. Ambedkar - The longest river in India is?
(a) Yamuna
(b) Ganga
(c) Godavari
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: Ganga - Who was the first woman Prime Minister of India?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Sonia Gandhi
(c) Pratibha Patil
(d) Mamata Banerjee
Ans: Indira Gandhi - Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Carbon Dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
Ans: Nitrogen - The book ‘The God of Small Things’ is written by?
(a) Salman Rushdie
(b) Arundhati Roy
(c) Jhumpa Lahiri
(d) Vikram Seth
Ans: Arundhati Roy - Who discovered the electron?
(a) Ernest Rutherford
(b) J.J. Thomson
(c) Isaac Newton
(d) Albert Einstein
Ans: J.J. Thomson - The headquarters of the United Nations is located in which city?
(a) Paris
(b) New York City
(c) Geneva
(d) London
Ans: New York City - Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?
(a) Liver
(b) Pancreas
(c) Kidney
(d) Spleen
Ans: Liver - The capital of Japan is?
(a) Beijing
(b) Tokyo
(c) Seoul
(d) Bangkok
Ans: Tokyo - Who wrote the famous play ‘Hamlet’?
(a) William Shakespeare
(b) George Bernard Shaw
(c) Anton Chekhov
(d) Henrik Ibsen
Ans: William Shakespeare - The concept of ‘Survival of the Fittest’ is associated with which theory?
(a) Theory of Relativity
(b) Theory of Evolution
(c) Theory of Gravity
(d) Theory of Electromagnetism
Ans: Theory of Evolution - The currency of China is?
(a) Yen
(b) Yuan
(c) Won
(d) Rupee
Ans: Yuan - Who was the first woman to win a Nobel Prize?
(a) Marie Curie
(b) Mother Teresa
(c) Malala Yousafzai
(d) Rosalind Franklin
Ans: Marie Curie - Who is known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India?
(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) C. Subramaniam
(c) Verghese Kurien
(d) Norman Borlaug
Ans: M.S. Swaminathan - The study of earthquakes is called?
(a) Seismology
(b) Meteorology
(c) Geology
(d) Paleontology
Ans: Seismology - The ozone layer protects the Earth from?
(a) Ultraviolet radiation
(b) Infrared radiation
(c) Gamma radiation
(d) X-rays
Ans: Ultraviolet radiation - Who is the author of the book ‘The Theory of Everything’?
(a) Stephen Hawking
(b) Richard Dawkins
(c) Neil deGrasse Tyson
(d) Michio Kaku
Ans: Stephen Hawking - The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called?
(a) Barometer
(b) Thermometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Altimeter
Ans: Barometer - The first battle of Panipat was fought in which year?
(a) 1526
(b) 1658
(c) 1761
(d) 1857
Ans: 1526 - Which currency is used in Australia ?
(a) Euro
(b) Pound Sterling
(c) Australian Dollar
(d) Rand
Ans: Australian Dollar - The process of conversion of sugar into alcohol is called?
(a) Fermentation
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Oxidation
(d) Combustion
Ans: Fermentation - Who discovered the laws of planetary motion?
(a) Isaac Newton
(b) Johannes Kepler
(c) Galileo Galilei
(d) Nicolaus Copernicus
Ans: Johannes Kepler - The longest bone in the human body is?
(a) Femur
(b) Tibia
(c) Fibula
(d) Humerus
Ans: Femur - The headquarters of UNESCO is located in which city?
(a) Paris
(b) New York City
(c) Geneva
(d) Rome
Ans: Paris - Who was the first Indian to win the Nobel Prize in Literature?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) R.K. Narayan
(d) Amartya Sen
Ans: Rabindranath Tagore - What is the currency of Brazil ?
(a) Real
(b) Rupiah
(c) Ringgit
(d) Peso
Ans: Real - The largest moon in the solar system is?
(a) Titan
(b) Ganymede
(c) Callisto
(d) Europa
Ans: (b) Ganymede - Who invented the telephone?
(a) Alexander Graham Bell
(b) Thomas Edison
(c) Guglielmo Marconi
(d) Nikola Tesla
Ans: Alexander Graham Bell - Where is the headquarters of the United Nations (UN) located?
(a) Washington, D.C., USA
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York City, USA
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (c) New York City, USA - Which organization has its headquarters situated in Washington, D.C., USA?
(a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(b) World Bank
(c) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
(d) United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)
Ans: (b) World Bank - Where is the headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) located?
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) Vienna, Austria
(c) Paris, France
(d) New York City, USA
Ans: (a) Geneva, Switzerland - Which organization’s headquarters is based in Rome, Italy?
(a) World Food Programme (WFP)
(b) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
(c) International Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement
(d) International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
Ans: (b) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) - Where is the headquarters of the European Union (EU) situated?
(a) Vienna, Austria
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) Brussels, Belgium
(d) Lyon, France
Ans: (c) Brussels, Belgium - Which organization has its headquarters in Vienna, Austria?
(a) International Atomic Energy Agency (IAE(a)
(b) International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL)
(c) World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
(d) International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
Ans: (a) International Atomic Energy Agency (IAE(a) - Where is the headquarters of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) located?
(a) Montreal, Canada
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York City, USA
(d) Lyon, France
Ans: (a) Montreal, Canada - Which organization’s headquarters is based in Paris, France?
(a) World Health Organization (WHO)
(b) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
(c) International Labour Organization (ILO)
(d) World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
Ans: (b) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) - Where is the headquarters of the International Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement situated?
(a) Rome, Italy
(b) Vienna, Austria
(c) Geneva, Switzerland
(d) Brussels, Belgium
Ans: (c) Geneva, Switzerland - Which organization’s headquarters is located in Lyon, France?
(a) Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPE(c)
(b) International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL)
(c) International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
(d) World Health Organization (WHO)
Ans: (b) International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL) - Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) located?
(a) Nairobi, Kenya
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York, USA
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (a) Nairobi, Kenya - The headquarters of the United Nations High Commission for Refugees (UNHCR) is situated in:
(a) Nairobi, Kenya
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York, USA
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (b) Geneva, Switzerland - Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) located?
(a) Nairobi, Kenya
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York, USA
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (c) New York, USA - The headquarters of the United Nations Population Fund (UNFP(a) is situated in:
(a) Nairobi, Kenya
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York, USA
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (c) New York, USA - Where is the World Health Organization (WHO) headquartered?
(a) Nairobi, Kenya
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York, USA
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (b) Geneva, Switzerland - The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is headquartered in:
(a) Nairobi, Kenya
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York, USA
(d) Washington, D.C., USA
Ans: (d) Washington, D.C., USA - Where is the headquarters of the Commonwealth located?
(a) Nairobi, Kenya
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) London, UK
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (c) London, UK - The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPE(c) is headquartered in:
(a) Nairobi, Kenya
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York, USA
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (d) Vienna, Austria - Where is the headquarters of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) situated?
(a) Nairobi, Kenya
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York, USA
(d) Gland, Switzerland
Ans: (d) Gland, Switzerland - The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTA(d) is headquartered in:
(a) Nairobi, Kenya
(b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) New York, USA
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (b) Geneva, Switzerland - In which year was the G20 Summit held, where the African Union (AU) was granted permanent membership?
(a) 2020
(b) 2021
(c) 2022
(d) 2023
Ans: (d) 2023 - Which country hosted the G20 Summit where the New Delhi Leaders Summit Declaration was adopted?
(a) India
(b) United States
(c) France
(d) Germany
Ans: (a) India - At the G20 Summit, which economic corridor was established through a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed by India, the US, UAE, Saudi Arabia, France, Germany, Italy, and the European Union?
(a) India-Africa-Asia Economic Corridor
(b) India-China-Russia Economic Corridor
(c) India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor
(d) India-Australia-New Zealand Economic Corridor
Ans: (c) India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor - How much funding did Britain commit to provide to the Green Climate Fund (GCF) at the G20 Leaders Summit in New Delhi?
(a) $1 billion
(b) $2 billion
(c) $3 billion
(d) $4 billion
Ans: (b) $2 billion - What is Alzheimer’s disease, recently seen in the news?
(a) A disorder primarily affecting the lungs
(b) A contagious viral infection
(c) A progressive brain condition affecting memory and cognitive skills
(d) A type of cancer
Ans: (c) A progressive brain condition affecting memory and cognitive skills - “Bharat 5G Portal- an integrated portal”, recently seen in the news, is launched by which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Communication
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
(d) Ministry Of Information & Broadcasting
Ans: (a) Ministry of Communication - “Ungalai Thedi, Ungal Ooril” (Come Look for You, In Your Village) scheme, recently seen in the news, is launched by which state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Ans: (b) Tamil Nadu - What is the main focus of the Bharat 5G Portal recently launched by the Ministry of Communication?
(a) Quantum computing
(b) Finance management
(c) 5G technology and innovation
(d) Agriculture development
Ans: (c) 5G technology and innovation - In which Indian state was the recent sighting of a black panther captured on camera?
(a) Kerala
(b) Odisha
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (b) Odisha - When was the black panther first sighted in Odisha’s Sundargarh district?
(a) 2016
(b) 2017
(c) 2018
(d) 2019
Ans: (c) 2018 - Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which Indian state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Odisha
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (b) Odisha - Who organized the recent 3-day expedition at the Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary in Odisha?
(a) Indian Wildlife Federation
(b) India Hikes
(c) National Geographic Society
(d) World Wildlife Fund
Ans: (b) India Hikes - In which Indian state is the Similipal Tiger Reserve implementing AI towers for early forest fire detection?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Odisha
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (b) Odisha - What is the estimated cost of the AI towers being implemented for early forest fire detection in the Similipal Tiger Reserve?
(a) Rs 1 crore
(b) Rs 1.5 crore
(c) Rs 2 crore
(d) Rs 2.5 crore
Ans: (d) Rs 2.5 crore - What is the primary purpose of implementing AI towers in the Similipal Tiger Reserve?
(a) Wildlife conservation
(b) Bird watching
(c) Early forest fire detection
(d) Promoting eco-tourism
Ans: (c) Early forest fire detection - Where was the I-Hub inaugurated by Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan?
(a) IIT-Delhi
(b) IIM-Sambalpur
(c) IIM-Ahmedabad
(d) IIT-Mumbai
Ans: (b) IIM-Sambalpur - What was the occasion for the inauguration of the I-Hub at IIM-Sambalpur?
(a) National Science Day celebration
(b) International Yoga Day
(c) 100 Cube Startup Conclave
(d) World Environment Day
Ans: (c) 100 Cube Startup Conclave - What support did Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan promise to startups during the inauguration of the I-Hub?
(a) Technical expertise
(b) Financial aid and resources
(c) Marketing strategies
(d) Legal advice
Ans: (b) Financial aid and resources - What is the primary objective of inaugurating the I-Hub at IIM-Sambalpur?
(a) To conduct academic research
(b) To promote sports and fitness
(c) To support and nurture startups
(d) To organize cultural events
Ans: (c) To support and nurture startups - Where was the Bhubaneswar ISBT (Inter-State Bus Terminal) inaugurated?
(a) Cuttack
(b) Puri
(c) Bhubaneswar
(d) Rourkela
Ans: (c) Bhubaneswar - What is the new name of the bus terminal inaugurated in Bhubaneswar?
(a) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Bus Terminal
(b) Mahatma Gandhi Bus Terminal
(c) Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar Bus Terminal
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru Bus Terminal
Ans: (c) Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar Bus Terminal - Who inaugurated the Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar Bus Terminal in Bhubaneswar?
(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(b) Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik
(c) President Ram Nath Kovind
(d) Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan
Ans: (b) Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik - What special feature has been established at the Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar Bus Terminal in Bhubaneswar?
(a) A food court
(b) A shopping complex
(c) A gallery showcasing Ambedkar’s contributions
(d) A theme park
Ans: (c) A gallery showcasing Ambedkar’s contributions - What is the new name of Baramunda Bus Terminal in Bhubaneswar?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Bus Terminal
(b) Mahatma Gandhi Bus Terminal
(c) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Bus Terminal
(d) Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar Bus Terminal
Ans: (d) Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar Bus Terminal - The recently added wetlands in the Ramsar Convention’s global list, including Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary and Longwood Shola Reserve Forest, are located in which Indian state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (a) Tamil Nadu - Which airport has been declared as an ‘International Airport’ by the Government of India?
(a) Surat Airport
(b) Shimla Airport
(c) Gorakhpur Airport
(d) Jorhat Airport
Ans: (a) Surat Airport - What is ‘eROSITA’, recently mentioned in the news?
(a) Drone
(b) X-ray telescope
(c) Artificial Intelligence tool
(d) Submarine
Ans: (b) X-ray telescope - The C-CARES web portal, recently launched by Union Minister Shri Pralhad Joshi, is associated with which sector?
(a) Petroleum sector
(b) Renewable energy sector
(c) Coal sector
(d) Agriculture sector
Ans: (c) Coal sector - The ‘Digital Detox’ initiative, recently seen in the news, is associated with which state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra
Ans: (b) Karnataka - What is Fentanyl, recently mentioned in the news?
(a) A type of drug
(b) Invasive plant
(c) Artificial intelligence tool
(d) Asteroid
Ans: (a) A type of drug - The recently added wetlands in the Ramsar Convention’s global list aim to preserve which ecosystems?
(a) Desert ecosystems
(b) Coastal ecosystems
(c) Mountain ecosystems
(d) Wetland ecosystems
Ans: (d) Wetland ecosystems - Who is the author of “Mudrarakshasa”?
(a) Vishakhadatta
(b) Kalidasa
(c) Bhasa
(d) Amoghavarsha
Ans: (a) Vishakhadatta - Which book is authored by Kalhana?(a) Rajtarangini
(b) Kathasaritsagar
(c) Kamasutra
(d) Prashnottarmalika
Ans: (a) Rajtarangini - Who wrote “Kamasutra”?
(a) Vatsayana
(b) Somadeva
(c) Amoghavarsha
(d) Vishnu Sharma
Ans: (a) Vatsayana - “Natyashastra” is authored by:
(a) Bharata Muni
(b) Bhasa
(c) Asvaghosa
(d) Vishnu Sharma
Ans: (a) Bharata Muni - Who is the author of “Abhigyan Shakuntala”?
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Vishakhadatta
(c) Bhasa
(d) Varharmihara
Ans: (a) Kalidasa - “Arthasastra” is written by:
(a) Kautilya
(b) Vishnu Sharma
(c) Charaka
(d) Bhaskara II
Ans: (a) Kautilya - Who authored the book “Lilawati”?
(a) Bhaskara II
(b) Vishnu Sharma
(c) Kautilya
(d) Aryabhatta
Ans: (a) Bhaskara II - If the price of a book is increased by 20%, by what percentage should the sales price be decreased to bring it back to the original price?(a) 16%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 10%Ans: (a) 16%
Solution: Let the original price be 100. Increased price = 100 + 20% of 100 = 100 + 20 = 120. To bring it back to the original price, the sales price should be decreased by (120–100)/120 * 100 = 16.67%. - If 15% of a number is 45, what is 30% of that number?
(a) 90
(b) 60
(c) 30
(d) 15
Ans: (a) 90
Solution: Let the number be “x.” 15% of x = 45. x = (45 * 100)/15 = 300. 30% of x = (30/100) * 300 = 90. - A TV was originally priced at $800. It is now being sold at a discount of 20%. What is the discounted price?
(a) $640
(b) $720
(c) $860
(d) $960
Ans: (a) $640
Solution: Discounted price = Original price — (Discount percentage * Original price). Discounted price = $800 — (20% * $800) = $800 — $160 = $640. - The average of five numbers is 32. If one of the numbers is 45, what is the average of the remaining numbers?
(a) 30
(b) 34
(c) 35
(d) 36
Ans: (c) 35 Solution: Sum of the five numbers = 32 * 5 = 160. Sum of the remaining four numbers = 160–45 = 115. Average of the remaining numbers = 115 / 4 = 28.75. - The average age of a family of four is 28 years. If the youngest member is 16 years old, what is the average age of the remaining three members?
(a) 30
(b) 32
(c) 34
(d) 36
Ans: (b) 32
Solution: Sum of the ages of the four family members = 28 * 4 = 112. Sum of the ages of the remaining three members = 112–16 = 96. Average age of the remaining members = 96 / 3 = 32. - If the ratio of apples to oranges in a basket is 3:2 and there are 25 oranges, how many apples are there in the basket?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
Ans: (c) 30
Solution: Since the ratio of apples to oranges is 3:2, for every 3 apples, there are 2 oranges. If there are 25 oranges, then there must be (3/2) * 25 = 37.5 apples. Rounding to the nearest whole number, there are 30 apples. - If the ratio of boys to girls in a classroom is 4:5, and there are 36 boys, how many girls are there in the classroom?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 45
Ans: (d) 45
Solution: Since the ratio of boys to girls is 4:5, for every 4 boys, there are 5 girls. If there are 36 boys, then there must be (5/4) * 36 = 45 girls. - The ratio of the lengths of two rectangles is 3:4. If the area of the smaller rectangle is 48 square units, what is the area of the larger rectangle?
(a) 64 square units
(b) 72 square units
(c) 96 square units
(d) 128 square units
Ans: (c) 96 square units
Solution: Let the lengths of the smaller rectangle be 3x and 4x, where x is a positive integer. The area of the smaller rectangle = (3x) * (4x) = 12x² = 48. Solving for x, we get x² = 4, so x = 2. The lengths of the smaller rectangle are 6 units and 8 units. The area of the larger rectangle = (4x) * (3x) = 12x² = 12 * 4 = 48 square units. - If John can complete a job in 8 hours and Sarah can complete the same job in 12 hours, how long will it take them to complete the job together?
(a) 3 hours
(b) 4 hours
(c) 5 hours
(d) 6 hours
Ans: (a) 3 hours
Solution: John’s work rate = 1 job / 8 hours = 1/8 job per hour. Sarah’s work rate = 1 job / 12 hours = 1/12 job per hour. Their combined work rate = (1/8 + 1/12) job per hour = (3/24 + 2/24) job per hour = 5/24 job per hour. Time taken to complete the job together = 24/5 hours = 4.8 hours. - If it takes 6 workers 8 hours to complete a project, how many hours would it take for 8 workers to complete the same project?
(a) 4 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 8 hours
(d) 12 hours
Ans: (b) 6 hours
Solution: The number of workers and the time taken to complete a job are inversely proportional. Using the formula: (Number of workers) * (Time taken) = Constant. (6 workers) * (8 hours) = (8 workers) * (x hours). Solving for x, we get x = 6 hours. - If a machine can produce 100 units of a product in 5 hours, how many units can it produce in 10 hours?
(a) 100 units
(b) 150 units
(c) 200 units
(d) 250 units
Ans: (c) 200 units
Solution: The number of units produced and the time taken are directly proportional. Using the formula: (Number of units) = (Rate of production) * (Time). Thus, (Number of units) = (100 units / 5 hours) * (10 hours) = 200 units. - A shopkeeper purchased a shirt for $40 and sold it for $60. What is the profit percentage?
(a) 20%
(b) 33.33%
(c) 50%
(d) 66.67%
Ans: (c) 50%
Solution: Profit = Selling Price — Cost Price. Thus, Profit = $60 — $40 = $20. Profit Percentage = (Profit / Cost Price) * 100% = (20 / 40) * 100% = 50%. - If a bookshop sells a book at a loss of 10%, and the cost price of the book is $50, what is the selling price of the book?
(a) $45
(b) $50
(c) $55
(d) $60
Ans: (a) $45
Solution: Loss = Cost Price — Selling Price. Thus, 10% of Cost Price = $50. Selling Price = Cost Price — Loss = $50 — (0.10 * $50) = $50 — $5 = $45. - A trader sold a shirt for $180 and incurred a loss of 10%. What was the cost price of the shirt?
(a) $162
(b) $190
(c) $200
(d) $198
Ans: (a) $162
Solution: Loss = 10% of Cost Price. Thus, 10% of Cost Price = $180. Cost Price = $180 / (10/100) = $180 / 0.10 = $1800 / 10 = $180. - What is the perimeter (in meters) of an equilateral triangle whose height is 3.46 meters? Take 3=1.733=1.73.
Options:
(a) 12
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 10.4
Ans: (a) 12
Solution: The height of an equilateral triangle is given by 32×side23×side. Given that the height is 3.46 meters, we have: 1.732×side=3.4621.73×side=3.46 Solving for the side, side=2×2=4side=2×2=4. Therefore, the perimeter =3×side=3×4=12=3×side=3×4=12 meters. - The perimeters of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are 156 cm and 46.8 cm respectively. If BC=19.5 cm and QR=x cm, then the value of x is:
(a) 3.76 cm
(b) 5.85 cm
(c) 4.29 cm
(d) 6.75 cm
Ans: (b) 5.85 cm - The radius of a sphere is 9 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of radius 0.3 cm. What is the length of the wire?
(a) 112 m
(b) 108 m
(c) 118 m
(d) 106 m
Ans: (b) 108 m - One side of a rectangular field is 39 m and its diagonal is 89 m. What is the area of the field?
(a) 3120 m2
(b) 2100 m2
(c) 2160 m2
(d) 3140 m2
Ans: (a) 3120 m2 - The base of a triangle to the perimeter of a square whose diagonal is 7272 cm, and its height is equal to the side of a square whose area is 169 cm22. What is the area (in cm22) of the triangle?
(a) 130
(b) 182
(c) 175
(d) 156
Ans: (b) 182 - If the adjacent sides of a rectangle, whose perimeter is 60 cm, are in the ratio 3:23:2, then what will be the area of the rectangle?
(a) 864 cm2
(b) 216 cm2
(c) 60 cm22
(d) 300 cm2
Ans: (b) 216 cm2
Solution: Let the adjacent sides be 3x and 2x respectively. Since their ratio is 3:23:2, 5x=60, so x=12. Therefore, the sides of the rectangle are 3636 cm and 2424 cm.
Hence, the area of the rectangle is 36×24=216 cm2. - The perimeter of a right angle triangle, whose sides that make right angles are 1515 cm and 2020 cm, is:
(a) 60 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 70 cm
(d) 50 cm
Ans: (a) 60 cm - A train is 100 meters long and is running at the speed of 30 km per hour. Find the time it will take to pass a man standing at a crossing.
(a) 10 seconds
(b) 12 seconds
(c) 14 seconds
(d) 16 seconds
Ans: (b) 12 seconds - A train is moving at a speed of 132 km/hour. If the length of the train is 110 meters, how long will it take to cross a railway platform 165 meters long.
(a) 7 seconds
(b) 7.5 seconds
(c) 8 seconds
(d) 8.5 seconds
Ans: (b) 7.5 seconds - In what time will a train 100 meters long cross an electric pole, if its speed is 144 km/hr
(a) 5 seconds
(b) 4.5 seconds
(c) 3 seconds
(d) 2.5 seconds
Ans: (d) 2.5 seconds - How long does a train 110 meters long running at the speed of 72 km/hour take to cross a bridge 132 meters in length?
(a) 15 seconds
(b) 12.1 seconds
(c) 10 seconds
(d) 8.1 seconds
Ans: (b) 12.1 seconds - A train is 360 meter long is running at a speed of 45 km/hour. In what time will it pass a bridge of 140 meter length.
(a) 20 seconds
(b) 30 seconds
(c) 40 seconds
(d) 50 seconds
Ans: (c) 40 seconds - A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. Find the length of the train.
(a) 150 meters
(b) 145 meters
(c) 140 meters
(d) 135 meters
Ans: (a) 150 meters - Length of train is 130 meters and speed of train is 45 km/hour. This train can pass a bridge in 30 seconds, then find the length of the bridge.
(a) 230 meters
(b) 235 meters
(c) 240 meters
(d) 245 meters
Ans: (d) 245 meters - If 56% of Y is 182, what is Y?
a. 350
b. 364
c. 325
d. 330
Ans: c. 325 - Y has to score 40% marks to pass. He gets 20 marks and fails by 40 marks. What are the maximum marks of the exam?
a. 100
b. 200
c. 150
d. 250
Ans: c. 150 - Which of the following two ratios is greater: 17:18 and 10:11?
a. 17/18
b. 10/11
c. Both are same
d. Cannot determine
Ans: a. 17/18
