The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August-2 PDF
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August-2
- What is the logical and meaningful arrangement of the following words?
- Knee
- Heel
- Ankle
- Thigh
- Calf
a) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
c) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
Ans: d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4 - Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order:
- Gateway of India
- World
- Mumbai
- India
- Maharashtra
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
c) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
Ans: b) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 - What is the logical and meaningful order for the following words?
- Bronze
- Gold
- Silver
- Platinum
- Iron
a) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
c) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans: b) 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 - Arrange the given words in a logical and meaningful order:
- Writing
- Book
- Seller
- Idea
- Feedback
- Reader
a) 4, 1, 2, 3, 6, 5
b) 4, 1, 2, 6, 3, 5
c) 4, 1, 3, 6, 5, 2
d) 4, 1, 2, 6, 5, 3
Ans: d) 4, 1, 2, 6, 5, 3 - What is the logical and meaningful order for the following?
- World Cup Semi Final Matches
- World Cup Finals Match
- Organizing the World Cup
- Finalizing the participating teams
- Winner of the World Cup
a) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
b) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
d) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
Ans: c) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 - What is the logical order of the given phrases?
- World
- Mumbai
- Gateway of India
- Asia
- Maharashtra
- India
a) 3, 2, 5, 6, 1, 4
b) 3, 2, 6, 5, 4, 1
c) 3, 2, 5, 4, 6, 1
d) 3, 2, 5, 6, 4, 1
Ans: d) 3, 2, 5, 6, 4, 1 - Arrange the following words as they appear in the English Dictionary:
- Chairman
- Challan
- Chaos
- Champion
- Changing
a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
b) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Ans: a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 - Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary:
- Radiance
- Rainbow
- Radical
- Radiology
- Railing
a) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
b) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
c) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
d) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
Ans: c) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 - Arrange the following words in the order they appear in an English dictionary:
- Dementia
- Demand
- Dearth
- Demon
- Daemon
a) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
b) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
c) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
d) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
Ans: a) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 - Select the option that gives a meaningful sequence of the given words:
- Billion
- Trillion
- Hundred
- Million
- Thousand
a) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
b) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
c) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
d) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
Ans: a) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4 - Five books labelled B, G, N, P and T are kept one above the other(Not necessarily in the same order). Only one book is kept between N and G. B is just above P. B is above N. G is not above N. Which book is at the top?(a) G
(b) P
(c) B
(d) T
Ans: (c) B - Five articles K,L,P,R and T, are kept one above the other(not necessarily in the same order). K is just above T and just below R. L is just above P and just below T. Which article is at the second position from the bottom?(a) T
(b) P
(c) K
(d) L
Ans: (d) L - Six boys R1, R2, R3, R4, R5 and R6 are sitting in a row facing towards the north (Not necessarily in the same order). There are three boys between R4 and R2. R4 is not at any of the ends. Only three boys are between R1 and R5. R3 is towards the left of R6. R1 is at one of the ends. R2 is towards the right of R4. Which of the following statements is ?(a) R1 is towards the right of R4
(b) R4 is second to the left of R6
(c) R5 is at one of the ends
(d) R3 is to the immediate right of R6
Ans: (b) R4 is second to the left of R6 - Six cars labelled D, F, H, J, L and N are parked around a circular path facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). H is third to the right of N. J is to the immediate left of D, F is second to the left of N, D is second to the left of F, Which car is parked second to the right of H?(a) F
(b) N
(c) J
(d) L
Ans: (d) L - Five tables T1, T2, T3, T4 and T5 are kept one above the other (Not necessarily in the same order). Number of tables above T4 are the same as the number of tables below T5. T3 is just above T1. T5 is at the bottom. There are two tables between T2 and T5. Which of the following is the position of T1?(a) T1 is just above T5
(b) T1 is just below T5
(c) T1 is three places below T2
(d) T2 is two places below T1
Ans: (a) T1 is just above T5 - Five balls L1, L2, L3, L4 and L5 are kept one above the other (not necessarily in the same order). L1 is just above L5 and just below L4. L2 is just above L3 and just below L5. How many balls are above L2?(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 1
Ans: (b) 3 - Six sellers G, H, J, K, C and M are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). M is second to the left of (c) H is to the immediate right of G. K is second to the right of J. C is to the immediate left of K. Which of the following pair of sellers represents the immediate neighbours of J and G respectively?(a) CK, HM
(b) CM, HM
(c) KH, MC
(d) CM,KH
Ans: (d) CM,KH - Six friends B, D, F, H, J and L are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). B is to the immediate right of L. D is second to the left of J. F is second to the left of H. L is second to the right of H. Who is sitting third to the left of F?(a) D
(b) B
(c) J
(d) L
Ans: (c) J - Six friends, C, E, G, I K and M, are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre and at equal distance from each other (not necessarily in the same order). E is second to the right of C, K is to the immediate right of G. G and I are facing towards each other. Moving towards the left of I, how many friends are sitting between I and M?(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 2
Ans: (b) 3 - Six employees L, N, P, R, T and V are sitting around circular table facing towards centre(not necessarily in the same order),V is second to the left of N. L is to the immediate left of P. R is second to the left of P. P is third to the right of N. Who is sitting immediately right of V?(a) R
(b) T
(c) P
(d) N
Ans: (b) T - The ratio of present ages of Asha and Lata is 5:6. If the difference between their ages is 6 years, then what will be Lata’s age after 5 years?(a) 45
(b) 41
(c) 35
(d) 40Ans: (b) 41 - Vishal is three times as old as Saksham. After 8 years, he will be two times as old as Saksham. After 8 years, what will be Vishal’s age?(a) 48 years
(b) 24 years
(c) 32 years
(d) 40 yearsAns: (d) 40 years - The sum of the ages of 4 friends A, B, C, and D is 70 years. What would be the total of their ages 5 years later?(a) 85
(b) 65
(c) 90
(d) 75Ans: (c) 90 - The sum of Vishal and Aditi’s current ages is 105 years. If Aditi is 25 years younger than Vishal, then what is the current age of Pritam who is 7 years older than Aditi?(a) 32 years
(b) 72 years
(c) 47 years
(d) 40 yearsAns: (c) 47 years - 10 years ago, a father’s age was 3 and 1/2 times that of his son, and 10 years from now, the father’s age will be 2 and 1/4 times that of the son. What will be the sum of the ages of the father and the son at present?(a) 100 years
(b) 110 years
(c) 115 years
(d) 120 yearsAns: (b) 110 years - The sum of the current ages of Asma and her grandfather is 80 years. 10 years from now, Asma’s age will be one-fourth of her grandfather’s age. What is Asma’s current age?(a) 16 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 10 yearsAns: (d) 10 years - Aarav’s mother was 3 times as old as Aarav 5 years ago. After 5 years, she will be twice as old as Aarav. How old is Aarav today?(a) 15 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 20 yearsAns: (a) 15 years - X is 5 years older than Y. The total of the current ages of X and Y is 33 years. What will be the age of Y after 7 years?(a) 22 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 14 years
(d) 21 yearsAns: (d) 21 years - A mother told her son, “I was of your current age when you were born.” If the son was 16 five years ago, what is the current age of the mother?(a) 32
(b) 38
(c) 37
(d) 42Ans: (d) 42 - The sum of the ages of a mother, daughter, and son is 96 years. What will be the sum of their ages after 5 years?(a) 101
(b) 111
(c) 105
(d) 110Ans: (b) 111 - In a coded message, SLOW MOVE, GET BACKWARDS, FIRE AWAY is written as VFMD ZMWE, BEN PCTLDCOXU, QHOE CDCI.
Based on this coding scheme, spot the codes for following words
SALTYa. UCFNI
b. UCFIN
c. UCINF
d. UCHIN
Ans: UCFNI - Read the following information to Ans the given questions
In a coded message, SLOW MOVE, GET BACKWARDS, FIRE AWAY is written as VFMD ZMWE, BEN PCTLDCOXU, QHOE CDCI.
Based on this coding scheme, spot the codes for following words
BRICKSa. POHTUL
b. POHLLU
c. POHTLU
d. POHULT
Ans: POHTLU - Read the following information to Ans the given questions
In a coded message, SLOW MOVE, GET BACKWARDS, FIRE AWAY is written as VFMD ZMWE, BEN PCTLDCOXU, QHOE CDCI.
Based on this coding scheme, spot the codes for following words
FIERCEa. QHEHTE
b. QHEEOT
c. QHETOE
d. QHEOTE
Ans: QHEOTE - In the following question, choose the code form.In a code language MOBILE is written as ASDFGH, STORK is written as PLSQW. How is MOTORBIKE written in that code?a. ASLSQDFWH
b. ASLSQDHWH
c. ASLSGHQDW
d. ASLSASFWH
Ans: ASLSQDFWH5) In each of the following questions, choose the code form.In a certain code, MEN is written as ABC and DARK is written as LSTZ. How can READ be written in this code?a. TCSL
b. TBSL
c. TASL
d. TLSL
Ans: TBSL - In a certain code language, ‘it be pee’ means ‘dogs are blue’, ‘sik hee’ means ‘large horses’ and ‘pee mit hee’ means ‘horses are pigs’.How is ‘pig’ written in this code?a. Hee
b. Pee
c. Sik
d. Mit
Ans: Mit - In a certain code language, ‘it be pee’ means ‘dogs are blue’, ‘sik hee’ means ‘large horses’ and ‘pee mit hee’ means ‘horses are pigs’.How is ‘pigs are large horses’ written in this code?a. Mit pee sik hee
b. Sik it pee be
c. Cannot be determined
d. None of these
Ans: Mit pee sik hee - In a certain code language, ‘it be pee’ means ‘dogs are blue’, ‘sik hee’ means ‘large horses’ and ‘pee mit hee’ means ‘horses are pigs’.How is ‘dogs’ written in that code?a. It
b. Be
c. Pee
d. Cannot be determined
Ans: Cannot be determined - In a certain code language, ‘it be pee’ means ‘dogs are blue’, ‘sik hee’ means ‘large horses’ and ‘pee mit hee’ means ‘horses are pigs’.How is ‘large’ written in that code?a. Hee
b. Sik
c. Pee
d. None of these
Ans: Sik - In the following question, choose the code form.In a code language, ‘mok dan sil’ means ‘big bad wrestler’, ‘fit kon dan’ means ‘wrestler is good’, ‘cold tir fit’ means ‘he is new’.Which word stands for ‘is’ in that language?a. Fit
b. Kon
c. Dan
d. Mok
Ans: Fit - Read the following information and Ans the question below.In a certain code language, ‘sea is deep’ means ‘213’, ‘sky is blue’ means ‘514’ and ‘sea looks blue’ means ‘264’What number is the code for ‘sea’?a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
Ans: 2 - Read the following information and Ans the question below.In a certain code language, ‘sea is deep’ means ‘213’, ‘sky is blue’ means ‘514’ and ‘sea looks blue’ means ‘264’What number is the code for ‘is’?a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
Ans Explanation
Ans: 1 - Read the following information and Ans the question below.In a certain code language, ‘sea is deep’ means ‘213’, ‘sky is blue’ means ‘514’ and ‘sea looks blue’ means ‘264’What number is the code for ‘sky’?a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
Ans: 5 - Read the following information and Ans the question below.In a certain code language, ‘sea is deep’ means ‘213’, ‘sky is blue’ means ‘514’ and ‘sea looks blue’ means ‘264’What number is the code for ‘deep’?a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
Ans: 3 - Read the following information and Ans the question below.In a certain code language, ‘sea is deep’ means ‘213’, ‘sky is blue’ means ‘514’ and ‘sea looks blue’ means ‘264’What number is the code for ‘blue’?a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
Ans: 4 - In the following question, choose the code form.If BATMAN is coded as 123416, PERMAN is coded as 987416, then TAPER is coded as?a. 32987
b. 92897
c. 38972
d. 32978
Ans: 32987 - In the following question, choose the code form.If R=19, RON = 50, then what FONTS equal to?a. 75
b. 76
c. 77
d. 78
e. 79
Ans: 79 - In the following question, choose the code form.If ANY = 40, MANY = 53 then MANIAC = ?a. 41
b. 42
c. 43
d. 44
e. 45
Ans: 41 - In the following question, choose the code form.If ACID is written as 1C3D, PAMPER is written as P1MP2R, then how will BOMBAY be writtena. B4MB1Y
b. B3MB1Y
c. B5MB2Y
d. B4MB2Y
Ans: B4MB1YSo, the code for BOMBAY becomes B4MB1Y - In the following question, choose the code form.If in a certain language, MORALE is coded as 296137, CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913, how is the word REAL-MOLE coded in that language?a. 67193237
b. 67132937
c. 67123937
d. 67172937
Ans: 67132937 - If R=19, RON = 50, then what FONTS equal to?
a. 75
b. 76
c. 77
d. 78
e. 79
Ans: e. 79 - If BATMAN is coded as 123416, PERMAN is coded as 987416, then TAPER is coded as?
a. 32987
b. 92897
c. 38972
d. 32978
Ans: a. 32987 - What is the minimum number of wins required for a team to guarantee advance (or possible advance) to the next stage?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
Ans: b. 6 - Choose the odd pair of words
a. Volume – Litre
b. Resistance – Ohm
c. Time – Seconds
d. Length – Metre
e. Pressure – Barometer
Ans: e. Pressure – Barometer - Choose the odd pair.
a. Graphite – Pencil lead
b. Lampblack – Tyre
c. Diamond – Glass-cutter
d. Coke – Shoe polish
Ans: d. Coke – Shoe polish - Who will be the neighbors of Dalton if Dalton is placed in the position of Eddie?
a. Charlie and Abby
b. Fantom and B-dawg
c. Only B-dawg
d. Only Abby
Ans: a. Charlie and Abby - Which of the following are in the same row?
a. Fantom, B-dawg, Charlie
b. Charlie, Eddie, B-dawg
c. Dalton, B-dawg, Fantom
d. Abby, B-dawg, Fantom
Ans: c. Dalton, B-dawg, Fantom - Find the wrong term in the number series: 15, 16, 20, 30, 45, 70
a. 16
b. 30
c. 45
d. 70
Ans: b. 30 - Find the wrong term in the number series: 10, 14, 28, 34, 64, 68, 136
a. 28
b. 34
c. 64
d. 68 - In a coded message, SLOW MOVE, GET BACKWARDS, FIRE AWAY is written as VFMD ZMWE, BEN PCTLDCOXU, QHOE CDCI.
Based on this coding scheme, spot the codes for following words
SALTYa. UCFNI
b. UCFIN
c. UCINF
d. UCHIN
Ans: UCFNI - What are the collections of Vedic hymns or mantras known as?
a) Jnati
b) Bali
c) Samhita
d) Vidatha
Ans: c) Samhita - Which river was known as Purushni in the Vedic period?
a) Ravi
b) Chenab
c) Sutlej
d) Beas
Ans: a) Ravi - According to Vedic theory, which statement is false?
a) The Brahmans, or priests, came from Purusha’s ears
b) The Vaishyas, or the commoners, came from Purusha’s thighs
c) The Kshatriyas, or warrior rulers, came from Purusha’s arms
d) The Shudras, or laborers and servants, came from Purusha’s feet
Ans: a) The Brahmans, or priests, came from Purusha’s ears - What did the title ‘gopati’ mean in the Vedic Age?
a) lord of the universe
b) lord of the people
c) lord of land
d) lord of cattle
Ans: d) lord of cattle - The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ on the state emblem have been taken from which Upanishad?
a) Katha
b) Prasna
c) Kena
d) Mundaka
Ans: d) Mundaka - Which term among the Vedangas denotes ‘Ritual’?
a) Vyakarana
b) Chada
c) Kalpa
d) Shiksha
Ans: c) Kalpa - How many books or mandalas is the Rig Veda divided into?
a) 34
b) 10
c) 8
d) 12
Ans: b) 10 - Evidence of ploughed fields has been found in which Harappan era site?
a) Mohenjodaro
b) Chanhudaro
c) Kalibangan
d) Harappa
Ans: c) Kalibangan - In which state is the archaeological site of Surkotada situated?
a) Rajasthan
b) Karnataka
c) Haryana
d) Gujarat
Ans: d) Gujarat - What is the Rigvedic name of the river Ravi?
a) Vitasa
b) Asikini
c) Shutudri
d) Parushni
Ans: d) Parushni - The Hanging Gardens of Babylon are associated with which ancient culture?
a) Egyptian
b) Mesopotamian
c) Chinese
d) Harappan
Ans: b) Mesopotamian - In which state is the archaeological site Inamgaon situated?
a) Karnataka
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Maharashtra
Ans: d) Maharashtra - During which period were ostriches found in India?
a) Palaeolithic Period
b) Neolithic Period
c) Mesolithic Period
d) Megalithic Period
Ans: a) Palaeolithic Period - Which of the following is INLY matched?
a) Sama-Veda-knowledge of Science
b) Rig Veda-knowledge of the Hymns of Praise
c) Atharva-Veda-knowledge of the magic formulas
d) Yajur-Veda-knowledge of the sacrificial formulas
Ans: a) Sama-Veda-knowledge of Science - Which of the following was a port city of the Indus Valley Civilization?
a) Kalibangan
b) Rakhigarhi
c) Lothal
d) Dholavira
Ans: c) Lothal - Which of the following is an ancient work written by Banabhatta?
a) Kadambari
b) Mrichchhakatika
c) Meghaduta
d) Gita Govinda
Ans: a) Kadambari - What does the term ‘Jina’ signify in Jain Philosophy?
a) Iord
b) Free from fetters
c) Worthy
d) The conquerorAns: d) The conqueror - Which Jain text contains the biographies of the Jain Tirthankaras, notably Parshvanath and Mahavira?
a) Uttaradhyayana
b) Adi Purana
c) Mahapurana
d) Kalpa SutraAns: d) Kalpa Sutra - In which state was Lord Mahavira born?
a) Maharashtra
b) Karnataka
c) Bihar
d) GujaratAns: c) Bihar - Which holy city is recognized as the birthplace of the first and fourth Jain Tirthankaras?
a) Varanasi
b) Dwaraka
c) Ayodhya
d) GayaAns: c) Ayodhya - Where was Gautama Buddha born?(a) Sarnath
(b) Lumbini
(c) Kushinagar
(d) Bodh Gaya
Ans: (b) Lumbini - Which state is home to the Lomas Rishi Cave, constructed for Buddhist monks?(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Bihar
Ans: (d) Bihar - Which architectural element is associated with the design of a Buddhist Stupa?(a) Gopuram
(b) Mandapam
(c) Garbhagriha
(d) Harmika
Ans: (d) Harmika - In which city was the third Buddhist council held?(a) Shravasti
(b) Taxila
(c) Pataliputra
(d) Rangoon
Ans: (c) Pataliputra - Which Mauryan ruler embraced Buddhism?(a) Samudragupta
(b) Brihadratha
(c) Ashoka
(d) Chandragupta
Ans: (c) Ashoka - Which historical site is located in Jogad, Odisha?(a) Royal semicircular auditorium of Gupta dynasty
(b) Ashoka’s rock inscription site
(c) Ancient artwork site of Maurya Empire
(d) Palace of the Nawabs of Bengal
Ans: (b) Ashoka’s rock inscription site - The ‘Gandhara’ School of Art was influenced by art from which European country?(a) Italy
(b) Belgium
(c) Hungary
(d) Greece
Ans: (d) Greece - Who was the ruler of the Pratihara dynasty?(a) Mihira Bhoja
(b) Rashtrakuta
(c) Chola
(d) Chalukya
Ans: (a) Mihira Bhoja - Which Pratihara ruler is credited with building the present-day city of Bhopal?(a) Mahendra Bhoja
(b) Rajyapala
(c) Vijayasena
(d) Mihir Bhoja
Ans: (d) Mihir Bhoja - What were the settlements of peasants under the Chola Dynasty known as?(a) Nadu
(b) Muvendavelan
(c) Ur
(d) Taluka
Ans: (c) Ur - What type of rainfall is prevalent in most parts of India?
(a) Cyclonic
(b) Convectional
(c) Elusive
(d) Orographic
Ans: B
Explanation: Most of India’s rainfall is convectional. Convectional rainfall occurs when warm air rises, expands, and cools, leading to condensation and precipitation, commonly seen in equatorial regions. - Which weather phenomenon is rainfall in India not associated with?(a) Orography(b) Convection(c) Cyclones(d) AnticyclonesAns: D
Explanation: Rainfall in India is not associated with anticyclones, which are high-pressure systems where winds move outward.
- Which part of India receives rainfall from both the South-West and North-West monsoons?(a) Tamil Nadu(b) Odisha(c) Lakshadweep Islands(d) Andaman and Nicobar IslandsAns: D
Explanation: Andaman and Nicobar Islands receive rainfall from both the South-West and North-West monsoons, as they are located in a region influenced by both monsoon systems.
- Which type of rainfall occurs mainly in the afternoon in equatorial regions?(a) Cyclonic(b) Convectional(c) Orographic(d) FrontalAns: B
Explanation: Convectional rainfall occurs mainly in the afternoon in equatorial regions when warm air rises, cools, and condenses into precipitation.
- What causes the formation of cumulus or cumulonimbus clouds associated with convectional rainfall?(a) Warm air sinking(b) Cold air rising(c) Warm air rising(d) Stable atmospheric conditionsAns: C
Explanation: Cumulus or cumulonimbus clouds form due to warm air rising and expanding, leading to convectional rainfall.
- In which direction do winds move in an anticyclone in the Northern Hemisphere?(a) Clockwise(b) Counterclockwise(c) No specific direction(d) Variable directionAns: A
Explanation: In the Northern Hemisphere, winds move clockwise around an anticyclone, which is a high-pressure system.
- Which region of India is primarily affected by orographic rainfall?(a) Coastal areas(b) Desert regions(c) Hilly and mountainous areas(d) PlainsAns: C
Explanation: Orographic rainfall occurs when moist air is forced to rise over hilly or mountainous terrain, leading to precipitation on the windward side.
- What type of rainfall is associated with cyclones in India?(a) Orographic(b) Convectional(c) Cyclonic(d) FrontalAns: C
Explanation: Cyclonic rainfall occurs when moist air converges and rises around a low-pressure system, leading to precipitation.
- Which factor is NOT a criterion for determining physical fitness in candidates for Indian Army recruitment?(a) Normal hearing(b) Binocular vision(c) Color vision: CP-III or better(d) Ability to lift heavy weightsAns: D
Explanation: Physical fitness criteria for Indian Army recruitment include normal hearing, binocular vision, and specific color vision standards, but not the ability to lift heavy weights.
- What is the minimum expansion required for chest measurement in candidates for Indian Army recruitment?(a) 3 cm(b) 4 cm(c) 5 cm(d) 6 cmAns: C
Explanation: Candidates for Indian Army recruitment are required to have a well-developed chest with a minimum expansion of 5 cm.
- Which of the following characteristics are associated with the dry monsoon forest of India?
(a) Annual rainfall is below 50 cm
(b) The trees are short-rooted
(c) Thorny shrubs and grassland
(d) Mango, Mahua, Sisam, and Keeker are the prominent trees.Ans: C
Explanation: The dry monsoon forest of India is characterized by thorny shrubs, grasslands, and prominent trees like mango, mahua, sisam, and keeker. - The Paddy fields of India are located in the areas of annual rainfall:
(a) 120 cm
(b) 140 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 80 cmAns: CExplanation: Paddy fields in India are typically found in areas with annual rainfall of around 100 cm. - Which region gets the first monsoon in summer?
(a) Himalayas
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Gangetic PlainAns: B
Explanation: The Western Ghats receive the first monsoon in summer as the wet monsoon winds approach the west coast of India. - The northeastern hills that block the South-West Monsoon winds and cause heavy rains in Assam are:
(a) Arakan Yoma and Pegu Yoma
(b) Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia hills
(c) Barail and Patkai hills
(d) Khasi and Pegu YomaAns: B
Explanation: Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia hills block the South-West Monsoon winds, causing heavy rains in Assam. - Which of the following factors influence the location of paddy fields in India?
(a) Temperature
(b) Soil fertility
(c) Annual rainfall
(d) All of the aboveAns: D
Explanation: The location of paddy fields in India is influenced by factors like temperature, soil fertility, and annual rainfall. - Which Indian state is known for its extensive cultivation of paddy?
(a) Punjab
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) RajasthanAns: C
Explanation: Kerala is known for its extensive cultivation of paddy due to its suitable climatic conditions. - What is the primary factor contributing to the heavy rainfall in Assam?
(a) Western disturbances
(b) South-West Monsoon winds
(c) Cyclonic storms
(d) Orographic rainfallAns: D
Explanation: Orographic rainfall, caused by the northeastern hills, is the primary factor contributing to heavy rainfall in Assam. - Which type of forests are commonly found in regions with a long dry season followed by heavy rainfall?
(a) Tropical rainforests
(b) Coniferous forests
(c) Dry deciduous forests
(d) Mangrove forestsAns: C
Explanation: Dry deciduous forests are commonly found in regions with a long dry season followed by heavy rainfall, such as the monsoon regions of India. - The South-West Monsoon in India is characterized by:
(a) Dry weather conditions
(b) Onset in June and withdrawal in September
(c) Maximum rainfall in the eastern coastal areas
(d) Originating from the Arabian SeaAns: B
Explanation: The South-West Monsoon in India typically begins in June and withdraws in September. - Which region of India receives the highest annual rainfall?
(a) Western Rajasthan
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(d) Eastern HimalayasAns: B
Explanation: The Western Ghats region of India receives the highest annual rainfall due to orographic lifting of moist air from the Arabian Sea. - 21. The average annual temperature of a meteorological station is 26°C, its average annual rainfall is 63 cm, and the annual range of temperature is 9°(c) The station in question is ________
(a) Allahabad
(b) Chennai
(c) Cherapunji
(d) KolkataAns: B
Explanation: The characteristics mentioned are consistent with Chennai, which has a relatively moderate average annual temperature, significant rainfall, and a moderate annual temperature range.22. The reason for Rajasthan being deficient in rainfall is ________
(a) The monsoon fails to reach this area
(b) It is too hot
(c) There is no water available, and thus the winds remain dry
(d) The winds do not come across any barrier to cause necessary uplift to be cooled Ans: D
Explanation: Rajasthan’s deficiency in rainfall is primarily due to the absence of barriers to cause necessary uplift for cooling of the winds, resulting in scanty rainfall.23. The extreme of temperature between summer and winter is quite low in the southern part of peninsular India mainly because ________
(a) The adjoining oceans moderate the temperature
(b) The sky is generally cloudy
(c) The sun’s rays are almost vertical throughout the year
(d) Strong winds flow throughout the yearAns: A
Explanation: The moderation of temperature extremes in the southern part of peninsular India is primarily due to the influence of the adjoining oceans, which moderate temperature variations.24. Which region of India receives the highest annual rainfall?
(a) Western Rajasthan
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(d) Eastern HimalayasAns: B
Explanation: The Western Ghats region of India receives the highest annual rainfall due to orographic lifting of moist air from the Arabian Sea.25. The region of India where the summer monsoon arrives first is:
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Gujarat
(d) AssamAns: A
Explanation: Kerala is the first region in India to receive the summer monsoon.26. The term “break in monsoon” refers to:
(a) A period of heavy rainfall during the monsoon season
(b) The cessation of rainfall during the monsoon season
(c) A sudden change in wind direction during the monsoon season
(d) The onset of the monsoon seasonAns: B
Explanation: “Break in monsoon” refers to the temporary cessation or reduction of rainfall during the monsoon season.27. Which Indian state receives the least amount of rainfall during the monsoon season?
(a) Kerala
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Assam
(d) OdishaAns: B
Explanation: Rajasthan receives the least amount of rainfall during the monsoon season due to its arid climate.28. The phenomenon of “retreating monsoon” refers to:
(a) The onset of the monsoon season
(b) The withdrawal of the monsoon from the Indian subcontinent
(c) A period of heavy rainfall during the monsoon season
(d) The reversal of wind direction during the monsoon seasonAns: B
Explanation: “Retreating monsoon” refers to the withdrawal of the monsoon from the Indian subcontinent, typically occurring in the autumn months.29. Which of the following factors does NOT influence the distribution of rainfall in India?
(a) Topography
(b) Ocean currents
(c) Altitude
(d) LatitudeAns: D
Explanation: While latitude plays a role in determining climate, it is not a significant factor in influencing the distribution of rainfall in India.30. The term “monsoon” is derived from the Arabic word:
(a) Mausim
(b) Monsun
(c) Monsoon
(d) MoussonAns: A
Explanation: The term “monsoon” is derived from the Arabic word “mausim,” meaning season. - What is the synonym of “prudent”?
a) Foolish
b) Judicious
c) Careless
d) Unwise
Ans: b) Judicious - Which word is the antonym of “humdrum”?
a) Monotonous
b) Boring
c) Exciting
d) Dull
Ans: c) Exciting - What does the verb “brace” mean?
a) To reduce
b) To fortify
c) To weaken
d) To calm
Ans: b) To fortify - Which word is a synonym of “incense”?
a) Anger
b) Please
c) Calm
d) Enrage
Ans: d) Enrage - What does “ostensibly” mean?
a) Authorization
b) Denial
c) Concealedly
d) Apparently
Ans: d) Apparently - Which word is an antonym of “slugfest”?
a) Spoil
b) Exchange
c) Leave
d) Fight
Ans: c) Leave - What does a “solicitor” do?
a) Endeavor
b) Mend
c) Solicit sales
d) Door to door salesperson
Ans: d) Door to door salesperson - What is a synonym of “judicious”?
a) Prudent
b) Imprudent
c) Shrewd
d) Unwise
Ans: a) Prudent - Which word is an antonym of “boring”?
a) Exciting
b) Humdrum
c) Dull
d) Monotonous
Ans: a) Exciting - What does the verb “fortify” mean?
a) To reduce
b) To anger
c) To strengthen
d) To calm
Ans: c) To strengthen - Which word is a synonym of “enrage”?
a) Anger
b) Please
c) Calm
d) Incense
Ans: d) Incense - What is the meaning of “concealedly”?
a) Authorization
b) Denial
c) Ostensibly
d) Secretly
Ans: d) Secretly - Which word is an antonym of “spoil”?
a) Slugfest
b) Exciting
c) Leave
d) Enhance
Ans: d) Enhance - What does a “mend” do?
a) Solicit sales
b) Endeavor
c) Repair
d) Door to door salesperson
Ans: c) Repair - What is the synonym of “shrewd”?
a) Prudent
b) Imprudent
c) Judicious
d) Unwise
Ans: a) Prudent - Which word is an antonym of “dull”?
a) Humdrum
b) Boring
c) Exciting
d) Monotonous
Ans: c) Exciting - What does the verb “reduce” mean?
a) To strengthen
b) To anger
c) To decrease
d) To calm
Ans: c) To decrease - Which word is a synonym of “please”?
a) Anger
b) Enrage
c) Calm
d) Incense
Ans: c) Calm - What is the antonym of “authorization”?
a) Concealedly
b) Denial
c) Ostensibly
d) Apparently
Ans: b) Denial - What does the noun “endeavor” mean?
a) Solicit sales
b) Repair
c) Effort
d) Door to door salesperson
Ans: c) Effort - Which article should fill the blank in the sentence: “___ cat is sitting on ___ wall.”
a) A, the
b) The, the
c) The, a
d) A, a
Ans: d) A, a - Choose the preposition to complete the sentence: “She is interested ___ music.”
a) on
b) in
c) at
d) with
Ans: b) in - Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: “The ___ news of his arrival spread quickly throughout the village.”
a) startling
b) startle
c) startled
d) startlingly
Ans: a) startling - Arrange the following jumbled sentences into a coherent paragraph:
i) Imran Khan’s popularity remains strong despite challenges.
ii) His party’s candidates won seats despite unfavorable circumstances.
iii) The recent national polls in Pakistan showcased the influence of key individuals.
iv) General Asim Munir attempted to undermine Imran Khan’s electoral success.
a) iii, i, iv, ii
b) ii, iv, i, iii
c) iv, i, ii, iii
d) iii, iv, ii, i
Ans: c) iv, i, ii, iii - What is the synonym of “resilient”?
a) Fragile
b) Strong
c) Weak
d) Brittle
Ans: b) Strong - Identify the form of the verb: “He ____ a book every day.”
a) reads
b) read
c) reading
d) readed
Ans: a) reads - Identify the sentence with the punctuation:
a) She said, “I will be there soon”.
b) She said, I will be there soon.
c) She said I will be there soon.
d) She said, “I will be there soon.”
Ans: d) She said, “I will be there soon.” - Fill in the blank with the appropriate word: “The committee members discussed the issue ________.”
a) thoroughly
b) loud
c) happy
d) beautifully
Ans: a) thoroughly - The ___________ was explored by scientists for potential new species.
a) forest
b) desert
c) ocean
d) mountain
Ans: c) ocean - Select the appropriate word to complete the sentence:
She ___________ to become a doctor since she was a child.
a) dreams
b) dreaming
c) dreamt
d) dream
Ans: a) dreams - Who initiated the construction of the famous Jagannath temple of Puri?(a) Anangabhima III
(b) Chodaganga
(c) Narasingha deva I
(d) Bhanu deva IV
Ans: B [Chodaganga] - From which place in Odisha were rock carvings discovered?(a) Koraput
(b) Kalahandi
(c) Puri
(d) Balasore
Ans: B [Kalahandi] - What was the capital of The Nala dynasty?(a) Sambalpur
(b) Sundergarh
(c) Balangir
(d) Pushkari
Ans: D [Pushkari] - According to Ramayana, what was the name of Odisha?(a) Utkalpuri
(b) Kalingaraj
(c) Kalinganagara
(d) Oriya
Ans: C [Kalinganagara]
5. Who was a famous poet and a contemporary of Rajaraja II?(a) Dandin
(b) Utbi
(c) Jayadeva
(d) Tulsidasa
Ans: C [Jayadeva] - Which administrative provinces were in Odisha?(a) Cuttack
(b) Ganjam
(c) Koraput
(d) All of the above
Ans: D [All of the above] - What taxes levied by the British were the main reason for the Prajamandal Movement?(a) Rasad
(b) Magan
(c) Begari
(d) All of the above
Ans: D [All of the above] - What is the female literacy rate of Odisha according to the census 2011?(a) 64.36%
(b) 73.45%
(c) 82.40%
(d) None of the above
Ans: A [64.36%] - When soil remains in its original position, what is it called?(a) Indigenous
(b) In situ
(c) Ex situ
(d) None of the above
Ans: B [In situ] - From where does the Mahanadi river originate?(a) Amarkantak hill
(b) Chotanagpur plateau
(c) Maikal Hill
(d) None of the above
Ans: A [Amarkantak Hill] - What percent of the total area of India is Odisha?
(a) 2.43%
(b) 1.93%
(c) 7.43%
(d) 4.73%
[ Ans: D] - The capital city of Odisha Bhubaneswar situated in which district?
(a) Deogarh
(b) Koraput
(c) Khordha
(d) Balasore
[ Ans: C] - Which portion of Odisha is a part of the Chhotanagpur plateau?
(a) Northern & Western
(b) Northern
(c) Western
(d) South Eastern
[ Ans: A] - Which city of Odisha bears the meaning “Your Village” in Sadri language?
(a) Puri
(b) Bhubaneswar
(c) Rourkela
(d) Balasore
[ Ans: C] - Which among the following is/ are the ingredients of Soil?
- Organic matter
- Inorganic or Mineral fraction
- Air
- Water
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 & 4
(c) 1 & 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
[ Ans: D] - Which one is responsible for rainfall in Odisha?
(a) North-East Monsoon
(b) Westerly Jet stream
(c) South-west monsoon
(d) None of the above
[ Ans: C] - Hirakud dam is built over which river?
(a) Baitarani
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Subarnarekha
(d) Rushikulya
[ Ans: B] - Which amount of rainfall is needed for Jute production in Odisha?
(a) 150-200 cm
(b) 50-75 cm
(c) 100-150 cm
(d) 200-250 cm
[ Ans: A] - What is the rank of Odisha in terms of dependence on forests for fuelwood?
(a) 1st
(b) 2nd
(c) 4th
(d) 7th
[ Ans: B] - Which city is situated between Mahanadi and its arm Kathajodi river?
(a) Cuttack
(b) Rourkela
(c) Bhadrak
(d) Sambalpur
[ Ans: A] - What was Odisha’s rank in terms of GDP for the year 2019-20?
(a) 10th
(b) 16th
(c) 18th
(d) 20th
Ans: B [16th] - Which of the following major industries are situated in the Paradip area of Odisha?
- Fertilizer
- Sea-food processing
- Petroleum
Choose the option:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) None of the above
Ans: C [1, 2 & 3] - Talcher Thermal Power station receives its coal supply from which of the following places?
(a) Mahanadi Coal Field Limited
(b) Rushukulya Coal Field
(c) Korba Coal Field
(d) Jharia Coal field
Ans: A [Mahanadi Coal Field Limited] - In which year was the Odisha Renewable Energy Development Agency (ORED(a) established?
(a) 1980
(b) 1984
(c) 1994
(d) 1996
Ans: B [1984] - What is the smallest National Highway in Odisha?
(a) NH-130 C
(b) NH-19 B
(c) NH-112 C
(d) NH-105
Ans: A [NH-130 C] - Which day is celebrated as Odia Journalism Day?
(a) 4th March
(b) 4th April
(c) 4th July
(d) 4th August
Ans: D [4th August] - Which of the following are English journals of Odisha?
- Cuttack Standard
- Orissa Patriot
- Utkal Hiteisini
- Samvad Vahika
Choose the option:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans: B [1 & 2] - In which year did the chief commissioner of Nagpur order the replacement of Odia by the Hindi language?
(a) 1844
(b) 1849
(c) 1895
(d) 1899
Ans: C [1895] - On 23rd December 1947, the administration of Garajat state was transferred to the government of Odisha by which act?
(a) Act for better government of Odisha
(b) Extra-Provincial Jurisdiction Act
(c) Charter act of 1948
(d) Government of Odisha Act
Ans: B [Extra-Provincial Jurisdiction Act] - Where is the headquarters of the Odisha Human Rights Commission located?
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Cuttack
(c) Balasore
(d) Puri
Ans: A [Bhubaneswar] - Which one of the following diseases is caused by protozoa?
(a) Malaria
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Cholera
(d) Pneumonia
Ans. (a) Malaria Explanation: Malaria is caused by a protozoa parasite called Plasmodium and its carrier is the female Anopheles mosquito. - Which of the following organs are affected by malaria?
(a) Heart
(b) Kidney
(c) Spleen
(d) Stomach
Ans. (c) Spleen Explanation: The spleen is affected by malaria. It often becomes enlarged in malaria patients. - Which human organ is responsible for alcohol detoxification?
(a) Lung
(b) Liver
(c) Kidney
(d) Intestines
Ans. (b) Liver Explanation: The liver is responsible for alcohol detoxification. It detoxifies harmful substances through complex chemical reactions. - Which substance is responsible for Arthritis in the joints of the body?
(a) Albumin
(b) Cholesterol
(c) Urea
(d) Uric acid
Ans. (d) Uric acid Explanation: Arthritis is caused by the deposition of uric acid in joints and fluids within the body, a condition known as gout. - Dropsy disease is caused by which of the following substances?
(a) Mustard oil
(b) Kerosene oil
(c) Sugar
(d) Salt
Ans. (a) Mustard oil Explanation: Dropsy disease, characterized by body tissue swelling due to fluid accumulation, is caused by the intake of adulterated mustard oil. - Diarrhoea is caused by which of the following vectors?
(a) Amoeba
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungus
(d) Rotavirus
Ans. (d) Rotavirus Explanation: Rotavirus is a group of RNA viruses and the most common cause of severe diarrhea among infants and young children. - Hysteria is commonly found in which group?
(a) Young men
(b) Young women
(c) Old women
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Young women Explanation: Hysteria is commonly found in young women and is characterized by symptoms like anxiety, discomfort, and faintness. - Which disease is caused by swelling of the membrane over the spinal cord and brain?
(a) Paralysis
(b) Leukemia
(c) Meningitis
(d) Sclerosis
Ans. (c) Meningitis Explanation: Meningitis is caused by the inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. - Anthophobia is the fear of which of the following options?
(a) Cats
(b) Water
(c) Fruits
(d) Flowers
Ans. (d) FlowersExplanation: Anthophobia is the fear of flowers. - Which of the following diseases is only found in African-Americans?
(a) Sickle cell Anemia
(b) Filariasis
(c) Trypanosomiasis
(d) Hemophilia
Ans. (c) Trypanosomiasis Explanation: Trypanosomiasis, also known as Sleeping Sickness, is caused by the African parasites Trypanosoma brucei and is transmitted by the tsetse fly found only in Sub-Saharan Africa. - Who is known as the Father of Medicine?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Hippocrates
(c) Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
(d) Antoine Lavoisier
Ans. (b) Hippocrates Explanation: Hippocrates is regarded as the Father of Medicine. Aristotle, Antoni van Leeuwenhoek, and Antoine Lavoisier are known for their contributions to other scientific fields. - Which of the following non-infectious diseases is the most lethal?
(a) Cancer
(b) Diabetes
(c) AIDS
(d) Obesity
Ans. (a) Cancer Explanation: Cancer is the deadliest non-infectious disease, causing millions of deaths annually worldwide. - Which vitamin is essential for proper blood clotting?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K
Ans. (d) Vitamin K Explanation: Vitamin K is crucial for blood clotting and preventing excessive bleeding. - What causes the disease known as jaundice?
(a) Bacterial infection
(b) Viral infection
(c) Liver dysfunction
(d) Kidney dysfunction
Ans. (c) Liver dysfunction Explanation: Jaundice is typically caused by liver dysfunction, leading to a buildup of bilirubin in the bloodstream. - Which of the following organs is primarily affected by tuberculosis?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidneys
(c) Lungs
(d) Heart
Ans. (c) Lungs Explanation: Tuberculosis primarily affects the lungs, although it can also affect other organs in the body. - What is the primary cause of peptic ulcers?
(a) Bacterial infection
(b) Excessive alcohol consumption
(c) Chronic stress
(d) Spicy food intake
Ans. (a) Bacterial infection Explanation: Peptic ulcers are primarily caused by infection with the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. - Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of insulin?
(a) Diabetes
(b) Hypertension
(c) Hyperthyroidism
(d) Asthma
Ans. (a) Diabetes Explanation: Diabetes is caused by a deficiency of insulin or the body’s inability to use insulin effectively. - What is the main symptom of anemia?
(a) Fever
(b) Fatigue
(c) Joint pain
(d) Shortness of breath
Ans. (b) Fatigue Explanation: Fatigue is the primary symptom of anemia, which is characterized by a deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin. - Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of vitamin D?
(a) Rickets
(b) Scurvy
(c) Beriberi
(d) Pellagra
Ans. (a) Rickets - Which of the following diseases has been eradicated?(a) Smallpox
(b) Rinderpest
(c) Polio
(d) All of the aboveAns. (d) All of the above
Explanation: Smallpox, Rinderpest, and Polio have all been successfully eradicated - What is a characteristic of a bird?
(a) Cold-blooded vertebrates
(b) Three-chambered heart
(c) Warm-blooded vertebrates
(d) None of these
Ans: C [Warm-blooded vertebrates] - Guanine from fish scales is used in the production of which of the following?
(a) Nail polish and lipsticks
(b) Paints and plastics
(c) Necklaces and pendants
(d) None of these
Ans: A [Nail polish and lipsticks] - How many senses do humans typically have?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) None of these
Ans: B [Five] - What is a long and complex structure that originates from the glomerulus?
(a) Renal Corpuscle
(b) Renal tubule
(c) Cortical nephron
(d) None of these
Ans: B [Renal tubule]5. Where is the large intestine located?
(a) Below the waist near the abdominal cavity
(b) Above the waist near the abdominal cavity
(c) Upper abdomen on the left side
(d) None of these
Ans: A [Below the waist near the abdominal cavity] - Which of the following is a fungal disease?
(a) Athlete’s foot
(b) Madura foot
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C [Both 1 and 2] - Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between
(a) Bacteria and fungi
(b) Algae and fungi
(c) Fungi and roots of higher plants
(d) Blue green algae and roots of higher plants
Ans: C [Fungi and roots of higher plants] - Which nonpathogenic product is used in various crops as well as horticulture and ornamental plants?
(a) Azotobacter
(b) Fungi
(c) Tricho-Card
(d) None of these
Ans: C [Tricho-Card] - Which chemical is used to obtain a precipitate of pure DNA?
(a) Methanol
(b) Ether
(c) HCl
(d) Ethanol
Ans: D [Ethanol] - What is Blubber?
(a) A layer of thick fat
(b) A device to trap insects by some aquatic
(c) A milky secretion of rubber plant
(d) Fungal infection of rice plants
Ans: A [A layer of thick fat] - What is a fungal skin infection that usually begins between the toes called?
(a) Influenza
(b) Athlete’s foot
(c) Typhoid
(d) None of these
Ans: B [Athlete’s foot] - Which of the following pairs of plant hormones is inly matched?
(a) Cytokinins – senescence
(b) Abscisic acid – transpiration
(c) Auxins – apical dominance
(d) Gibberellins – bud and seed dormancy
Ans: B [Abscisic acid – transpiration] - Which element found in water is responsible for cancer?
(a) Iron
(b) Arsenic
(c) Chlorine
(d) Fluorine
Ans: B [Arsenic] - What are Lipids?
(a) Lipids are monosaccharides
(b) Lipids do not provide energy to cells
(c) Fruits are a good source of lipids
(d) Cholesterol and trans fatty acids are types of Lipids
Ans: D [Cholesterol and trans fatty acids are types of Lipids]15. Which cells in the pancreas produce Insulin?
(a) Estrogen
(b) Corpus epididymis
(c) Thymus
(d) Islets of Langerhans
Ans: D [Islets of Langerhans] - Insectivorous plants grow in soil deficient in which nutrient?
(a) Calcium
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Water
(d) Magnesium
Ans: B [Nitrogen] - The release of which of the following into ponds and wells helps in controlling mosquitoes?
(a) Dogfish
(b) Gambusia fish
(c) Snail
(d) Crab
Ans: B [Gambusia fish] - Chlorophyll-containing autotrophic thallophytes are called _____:
(a) Algae
(b) Lichens
(c) Fungi
(d) Bryophytes
Ans: A [Algae] - The Bhopal gas tragedy is associated with the leakage of:
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) nitrogen dioxide
(c) sulphur dioxide
(d) methyl isocyanate
Ans: D [methyl isocyanate] - Benzene cannot undergo:
(a) Substitution
(b) Addition
(c) Elimination
(d) Oxidation
Ans: C [Elimination] - What is the term known as a giant growth of algae?
(a) Panic boom
(b) Algal boom
(c) Herbal boom
(d) Patkai boom
Ans: B [Algal boom] - Who among the following discovered the cell wall?
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Boveri
(c) J Rhodin
(d) Van Beneden
Ans: A [Robert Hooke] - What are the major types of cytoskeleton filaments?
(a) Actin filaments
(b) Microtubules
(c) Intermediate filaments
(d) All of them
Ans: D [All of them] - How many cells are in the human brain?
(a) Roughly 171 billion cells
(b) Roughly 200 billion cells
(c) Roughly 151 billion cells
(d) Roughly 250 billion cells
Ans: A [Roughly 171 billion cells] - Angiosperms are the main plant because__?
(a) Domestication by man
(b) Power of adapting in diverse habitats
(c) Self-pollination property
(d) Property of producing a large number of seeds
Ans: B [Power of adapting in diverse habitats] - Which of the following is a plant without seed vascular tissue?
(a) Angiosperm
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Gymnosperms
Ans: B [Pteridophytes] - Which of the following is absent in the phloem of pteridophytes?
(a) Bast fibers
(b) Companion cells
(c) Phloem parenchyma
(d) Sieve cells
Ans: B [Companion cells] - Consider the following:
Turtles
Alligators
Crocodiles
FrogWhich of the above are reptiles?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C [Only 1, 2 and 3] - Wool is the fiber derived from the fur of animals of the ___ family.
(a) Caprinae
(b) Moschidae
(c) Suidae
(d) Antilocapridae
Ans: A [Caprinae] - To which one of the following categories does the adipose tissue belong?
(a) Connective
(b) Epithelial
(c) Neural
(d) Muscular
Ans: A [Connective] - Namdapha National Park is located in which of the following states?
(a) Assam
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Manipur
(d) Mizoram
Ans: B [Arunachal Pradesh] - Which among the following states in India has the maximum number of protected areas viz. wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Ans: C [Madhya Pradesh] - Which among the following confers the “Equator Prize” to recognize outstanding community efforts to reduce poverty through the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity?
(a) United Nations Environment Programme
(b) United Nations Development Programme
(c) World Food Organization
(d) World Bank
Ans: B [United Nations Development Programme] - Which among the following is a biodiversity hotspot?
(a) Thar
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Aravalli Hills
(d) Eastern Ghats
Ans: B [Western Ghats] - Asiatic lion is the state animal of which of the following states?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Haryana
(c) Punjab
(d) Gujarat
Ans: D [Gujarat] - Which among the following National Park in India is also called the last house of White-winged Wood Duck?
(a) Salim Ali National Park, Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Nameri National Park, Assam
(c) Ghana National Park, Rajasthan
(d) Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary, Haryana
Ans: B [Nameri National Park, Assam] - Which among the following ministry gives Medini Puraskar every year?
(a) Ministry of Culture
(b) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(c) Ministry of Law
(d) Ministry of Finance
Ans: B [Ministry of Environment and Forests] - On the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee, which among the following offices was set up in India?
(a) Central Vigilance Commission
(b) Central Economic Intelligence Bureau
(c) Foreign Investment Promotion Board
(d) Khadi and Village Industries Commission
Ans: A [Central Vigilance Commission] - How many numbers of Biogeographic zones are present in India?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans: C [10] - Along with Jatropha, the seed oil of which among the following plants has been found to be useful in diesel generators being explored in hundreds of projects throughout India and other developing countries as feedstock for biodiesel?
(a) Arachis hypogea
(b) Pongamia pinnata
(c) Butea monosperma
(d) Pterocarpus santalinius
Ans: B [Pongamia pinnata] - In which state is the Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary located?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: A [Tamil Nadu] - Which of the following industries is the most polluting among the four?
(a) Cement
(b) Synthetic Rubber
(c) Food Processing
(d) Stone Crushing
Ans: A [Cement] - Where is the Jaduguda Mine, the most important uranium mine in India, located?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Bihar
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: B [Jharkhand] - What happens when a large number of people are enclosed in a room?
(a) Oxygen decreases and carbon dioxide increases
(b) Oxygen increases and carbon dioxide decreases
(c) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide decrease
(d) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide increase
Ans: A [Oxygen decreases and carbon dioxide increases] - Which statement ly describes autotrophic succession?
(a) In this succession, initially green plants are more in number
(b) This succession is brought about by the living members of the particular community
(c) This succession occurs when habitation is created on barren land
(d) This succession is brought about by external forces
Ans: A [In this succession, initially green plants are more in number] - Which of the following can be categorized as quantitative pollutants?
(a) Carbon Dioxide
(b) Carbon Monoxide
(c) DDT
(d) Methane
Select the Ans from the codes given below:
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 1,2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: C [1,2 and 4 only] - What is true about oil spills?
(a) Oil spills increase the Biological Oxygen Demand
(b) Oil spills reduce the oxygen in sea water
Select the Ans from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: C [Both]
What is true about Persistent Organic Pollutants?
(a) They remain intact for a long period of time
(b) They are capable of bio-accumulation - Select the Ans from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: C [Both] - Which nation’s seaport is “The Port of Chittagong”?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Pakistan
(c) Iran
(d) India
Ans: A [Bangladesh] - Where is the Great Blue Hole located?
(a) The Bahamas
(b) Barbados
(c) Argentina
(d) Belize
Ans: D [Belize] - Where is the headquarters of Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)?
(a) Dehradun
(b) Ranchi
(c) Shimla
(d) Bhopal
Ans: A [Dehradun] - Where is the principal bench of the National Green Tribunal?
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Lucknow
Ans: B [New Delhi] - Who is the chairperson of the National Green Tribunal?
(a) Retired Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Retired Judge of the High Court
(c) Retired Judge of the District Court
(d) Retired Judge of the Subordinate Court
Ans: A [Retired Judge of the Supreme Court] - Which of the following are the harmful effects of Carbon Monoxide?
- Shortness of breath
- Short supply of oxygen in blood
- Inactivates nerves
- Cause unconsciousness
Select the Ans from the codes given below:
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 1,2 and 3 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 2,3 and 4 only
Ans: A [1,2,3,4] - Which of the following Indian Wetland sites is in the Montreux Record?
(a) Chilika Lake
(b) Kaziranga National park
(c) Keoladeo National Park
(d) None of the above is true
Ans: C [Keoladeo National Park] - Which of the following statements are about tropical moist deciduous forests?
- Moist deciduous forests are found throughout India except in the western and the north-western regions.
- The trees of tropical moist deciduous forests are tall, have broad trunks, branching trunks and roots to hold
- them firmly to the ground.
Select the option from the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 & 2
Ans: C [Both 1 & 2] - Which of the following statements are regarding Montane Wet Temperate Forests?
- Trunks have large girth.
- Branches are clothed with mosses, ferns and other epiphytes
- The trees rarely achieve a height of more than 6 meters.
- Select the option from the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: D [1, 2 & 3] - In which of the following type of cultivation a patch of land is cleared, vegetation is burned and the ash is mixed with the soil thus adding nutrients to the soil?
(a) Shifting Cultivation
(b) Crop Rotation
(c) Subsistence Farming
(d) None of the above
Ans: A [Shifting Cultivation] - The National Lake Conservation Programme considers lakes as standing water bodies of how much depth?
(a) 1 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 4 m
Ans: C [3 m] - Which of the following are the environmental benefits of estuarine ecosystem?
- Estuaries help in water quality regulation and groundwater recharge.
- They are the habitat, breeding and nursery grounds for plants and animals.
- They are useful for commercial fishing.
- Select the option from the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: D [1, 2 & 3] - Which exercise focuses on joint army training between India and Mongolia?
(a) Nomadic Elephant
(b) Garuda Shakti
(c) Shakti Exercise
(d) Varuna Exercise
Ans: (a) Nomadic Elephant - India conducts Exercise Varuna with which country?
(a) France
(b) Indonesia
(c) US
(d) Japan
Ans: (a) France - Which exercise is conducted between India and Japan?
(a) Dharma Guardian
(b) Mitra Shakti
(c) SILINEX
(d) Samudra Shakti
Ans: (a) Dharma Guardian - India conducts Exercise Cope India with which country?
(a) France
(b) US
(c) Indonesia
(d) Japan
Ans: (b) US - Which military exercise is conducted between India and Myanmar?
(a) Prabal Dostyk
(b) Khanjar
(c) Ekuverin
(d) IMBEX
Ans: (d) IMBEX - India conducts which exercise with Thailand?
(a) Maitree Exercise
(b) Siam Bharat
(c) Varuna Exercise
(d) Yudh Abhyas
Ans: (a) Maitree Exercise - Which exercise involves joint training between India and France?
(a) Varuna Exercise
(b) Shakti Exercise
(c) Garuda Exercise
(d) Dharma Guardian
Ans: (b) Shakti Exercise - India conducts Exercise Samudra Shakti with which country?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Maldives
(d) Bangladesh
Ans: (a) Indonesia - Which exercise is a bilateral one between India and the US?
(a) Yudh Abhyas
(b) Vajra Prahar
(c) Cope India
(d) Garuda Shakti
Ans: (a) Yudh Abhyas - What is the name of the exercise between India and Sri Lanka focusing on maritime cooperation?
(a) Mitra Shakti
(b) SILINEX
(c) Maitree Exercise
(d) Siam Bharat
Ans: (b) SILINEX - Which exercise is conducted between India and the Maldives?
(a) Ekuverin
(b) IMBEX
(c) IMCOR
(d) Al Nagah
Ans: (a) Ekuverin - India conducts Exercise Khanjar with which country?
(a) Kyrgyzstan
(b) Kazakhstan
(c) Oman
(d) The Maldives
Ans: (a) Kyrgyzstan - Which exercise is conducted between India and Oman focusing on maritime security?
(a) Al Nagah
(b) Naseem Al Bahr
(c) Eastern Bridge
(d) Lamitiye
Ans: (b) Naseem Al Bahr - India conducts Exercise Prabal Dostyk with which country?
(a) Kazakhstan
(b) Kyrgyzstan
(c) The Maldives
(d) Myanmar
Ans: (a) Kazakhstan - What is the name of the exercise between India and Kazakhstan?
(a) Prabal Dostyk
(b) Konkan
(c) Indradhanush
(d) Khanjar
Ans: (a) Prabal Dostyk - The exercise ‘Hand in Hand’ is conducted between India and which other country?
(a) China
(b) Thailand
(c) Myanmar
(d) Nepal
Ans: (a) China - Which exercise does India conduct with the UK focusing on maritime cooperation?
(a) Konkan
(b) Ajaya Warrior
(c) Indradhanush
(d) Eastern Bridge
Ans: (a) Konkan - India conducts which exercise with Myanmar focusing on joint army training?
(a) IMBEX
(b) SHAKTI
(c) Nomadic Elephant
(d) Vinbax
Ans: (a) IMBEX - What is the name of the exercise between India and Seychelles?
(a) Lamitiye
(b) Eastern Bridge
(c) Al Nagah
(d) Garuda Exercise
Ans: (a) Lamitiye - India conducts Exercise VINBAX with which country?
(a) Vietnam
(b) Thailand
(c) Myanmar
(d) Sri Lanka
Ans: (a) Vietnam - India conducts Exercise Indra with which country?
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) France
(d) Sri Lanka
Ans: (b) Russia - India conducts Exercise Varuna with which country?
(a) France
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Bangladesh
Ans: (a) France - Which exercise is conducted between India and Indonesia?
(a) Garuda Shakti
(b) Samudra Shakti
(c) IND-INDO CORPAT
(d) Shakti Exercise
Ans: (b) Samudra Shakti - Which edition of the Ekuverin exercise was conducted from 11th to 24th June 2023?
(a) 13th Edition
(b) 12th Edition
(c) 4th Edition
(d) 13th August 2012
Ans: (b) 12th Edition - Where was the 13th edition of the Bold Kurukshetra exercise conducted?
(a) Mahajan Field Firing Range, Bikaner
(b) Jodhpur Military Station
(c) Chaubatia, Uttarakhand
(d) Maldives
Ans: (b) Jodhpur Military Station - In which month and year was the 10th edition of the Khanjar exercise conducted?
(a) Kyrgyzstan
(b) March 2023
(c) 10th Edition
(d) Bishkek
Ans: (b) March 2023 - Where was the 10th edition of the Khanjar military exercise conducted?
(a) Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan
(b) March 2023
(c) 10th Edition
(d) Bold Kurukshetra
Ans: (a) Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan - Which exercise is conducted between India and Oman?
(a) Al Nagah
(b) Eastern Bridge
(c) Naseem Al Bahr
(d) Lamitiye
Ans: (b) Eastern Bridge - India conducts Exercise Ajaya Warrior with which country?
(a) UK
(b) Seychelles
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam
Ans: (a) UK - What is the name of the exercise between India and Vietnam?
(a) VINBAX
(b) Khanjar
(c) Lamitiye
(d) Indradhanush
Ans: (a) VINBAX - Which of the following temple of Odisha is a Panchayatana temple?
(a) Brahmeshwar Temple
(b) Daiteswar Temple
(c) Khichakeswari Temple
(d) Mukteswar Temple
Ans: A [Brahmeshwar Temple] - Which of the following caves of Odisha is a limestone cave?
(a) Ratnagiri Cave
(b) Borra Caves
(c) Gupteswar Cave
(d) None of the above
Ans: C [Gupteswar Cave] - Which of the following forts is regarded as the biggest medieval fort in Odisha?
(a) Nilagiri
(b) Sisupalgarh
(c) Barabati
(d) Raibania
Ans: D [Raibania] - Which among the following is/are the themes of the wall paintings of the Juang tribal community?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 1 & 3
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: D [1, 2 & 3] - Sabai grass is mainly grown in which of the following districts of Odisha?
(a) Mayurbhanj
(b) Cuttack
(c) Kalahandi
(d) Sambalpur
Ans: A [Mayurbhanj] - Chandrabhaga Fair is famous in which of the following district of Odisha?
(a) Cuttack
(b) Puri
(c) Balasore
(d) Sambalpur
Ans: B [Puri] - According to the Hindu Calendar, The Makar Sankranti falls under which of the following lunar month?
(a) Magha
(b) Jyestha
(c) Falgun
(d) Chaitra
Ans: A [Magha] - Gamha Purnima in Odisha is observed in which of the following lunar month?
(a) Magha
(b) Shravan
(c) Chaitra
(d) None of the above
Ans: B [Shravan] - Bikalananda Kar is associated with which of the following cuisines of Odisha?
(a) Pitha
(b) Rasgulla
(c) Chhenapoda
(d) Rasabali
Ans: B [Rasgulla] - Dhabaleswar of Cuttack district and Barkul of Khordha district are famous for which of the following sports activities?
(a) Football
(b) Field Hockey
(c) Canoeing and Boating
(d) Wrestling
Ans: C [Canoeing and Boating] - Which among the following information about the Jayadev Award of Odisha is true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 1 & 3
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: D [1, 2 & 3] - Odisha Cricket association was formed in which of the following year?
(a) 1940
(b) 1947
(c) 1949
(d) 1951
Ans: C [1949] - The Biju Patnaik University of Technology is situated in which of the following places of Odisha?
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Rourkela
(c) Cuttack
(d) Sambalpur
Ans: B [Rourkela] - Marriages within the blood relations are practiced by which of the following tribes of Odisha?
(a) Bhumias
(b) Bondas
(c) Koyas
(d) Gonds
Ans: D [Gonds] - Which of the following tribes of Odisha are treated as low among the other tribes?
(a) Dharuas
(b) Matias
(c) Didayis
(d) Koyas
Ans: B [Matias] - As per the census 2011, what is the population growth rate of Odisha?
(a) 14.05%
(b) 17.13%
(c) 19.22%
(d) None of the above
Ans: A [14.05%] - As per the census 2011, what is the population density of Odisha?
(a) 290
(b) 270
(c) 220
(d) 210
Ans: B [270] - As per the census 2011, which district of Odisha has the lowest literacy rate?
(a) Puri
(b) Kandhamal
(c) Kalahandi
(d) Nabarangpur
Ans: D [Nabarangpur] - The first Khelo India University Games was held in which of the following cities of Odisha?
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Cuttack
(c) Rourkela
(d) Balasore
Ans: A [Bhubaneswar] - Which of the following is the state animal of Odisha?
(a) Wild Water Buffalo
(b) Gaur
(c) Sambar Deer
(d) Sloth Bear Mongoose
Ans: C [Sambar Deer] - What was the pre-historic name of Odisha?
(a) Utkala
(b) Kalinga
(c) Kosala
(d) Udra
Ans: (d) Udra - Who built the world-famous Konark temple?
(a) Narasimhadeva I
(b) Bhanudeva IV
(c) Chodagangadeva
(d) Rajarajadeva
Ans: (a) Narasimhadeva I - When did the Muslim rule begin in Odisha?
(a) 1568
(b) 1578
(c) 1588
(d) 1582
Ans: (a) 1568 - Which British General captured Balasore?
(a) Captain Morgan
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Warren Hastings
Ans: (a) Captain Morgan - What were the two important centers of the Brahmo Movement in Odisha?
(a) Puri and Cuttack
(b) Balasore and Puri
(c) Cuttack and Balasore
(d) Khurdha and Puri
Ans: (c) Cuttack and Balasore - Who was the founder of the Bhoi dynasty in Odisha?
(a) Govinda Vidyadhar
(b) Chakra Pratap
(c) Janardhan Vidyadhar
(d) Narasimha Jena
Ans: (b) Chakra Pratap - When did the Barabati fort fall into the hands of the British?
(a) 1798
(b) 1800
(c) 1803
(d) 1812
Ans: . (c) 1803 - Who formed the ‘Utkal Brahmo Samaj’ at Cuttack?
(a) Keshab Chandra Sen
(b) Pratap Chandra
(c) Rammohan Roy
(d) Haranath Bhattacharya
Ans: (d) Haranath Bhattacharya - When was the Salt Law broken in Inchudi of Balasore?
(a) 6th April 1930
(b) 14th April 1930
(c) 12th April 1930
(d) 13th April 1930
Ans: (b) 14th April 1930 - Who is famously known as ‘Utkala Gaurav’ in Odisha?
(a) Madhusudan Das
(b) Surendra Sai
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Krushna Chandra Dev
Ans: (a) Madhusudan Das - What is the recorded forest area of Odisha according to the India State of Forest Report, 2017?
(a) 61,204.17 sq km
(b) 39.31% of the state’s geographical area
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Ans: c) Both a and b - Which type of forest in Odisha is permanently marked for the production of timber or other forest produce, allowing grazing and cultivation?
(a) Reserved Forest
(b) Protected Forest
(c) Unclassed Forest
(d) None of the above
Ans: a) Reserved Forest - What percentage of Odisha’s total forest area is constituted by Reserved Forests according to the India State of Forest Report, 2017?
a) 58.90%
b) 40.75%
c) 0.35%
d) None of the above
Ans: a) 58.90% - Which type of forest in Odisha allows grazing and cultivation with minor restrictions?
a) Reserved Forest
b) Protected Forest
c) Unclassed Forest
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Protected Forest - What is the percentage of Odisha’s total forest area constituted by Unclassed Forests according to the India State of Forest Report, 2017?
a) 58.90%
b) 40.75%
c) 0.35%
d) None of the above
Ans: c) 0.35% - Which forest divisions in Odisha host the described forests?
(a) Sundergarh, Balangir, Angul, Sambalpur, Keonjhar
(b) Dhenkanal, Athgarh, Puri, Mayurbhanj, Nayagarh
(c) Cuttack, Jajpur, Jagatsinghpur, Bhadrak, Kendrapara
(d) Bargarh, Jharsuguda, Deogarh, Nuapada, Gajapati
Ans: (b) Dhenkanal, Athgarh, Puri, Mayurbhanj, Nayagarh - What is the minimum elevation above which these forests are found?
(a) 100 meters
(b) 400 meters
(c) 600 meters
(d) 800 meters
Ans: (c) 600 meters - Which of the following is a characteristic of the top storey trees in these forests?
(a) Evergreen foliage
(b) Absence of bamboo growth
(c) Leafless for a short span
(d) Tall and straight trunks
Ans: (c) Leafless for a short span - What type of trees typically form the second storey in these forests?
(a) Deciduous trees
(b) Bamboo
(c) Evergreen trees
(d) Thorny shrubs
Ans: (c) Evergreen trees - Which of the following tree species is NOT mentioned as important in these forests?
(a) Mango
(b) Arjun
(c) Bamboo
(d) Mankarkendu
Ans: (c) Bamboo - What type of forests cover the smallest area in Odisha?
a) Tropical Rainforests
b) Deciduous Forests
c) Mangrove Forests
d) Coniferous Forests
Ans: c) Mangrove Forests - Which regions of Odisha are primarily home to mangrove forests?
a) Northern Plains
b) Western Ghats
c) Sea-Coast
d) Eastern Plateau
Ans: c) Sea-Coast - Which river’s delta hosts a significant portion of Odisha’s mangrove forests?
a) Ganges
b) Godavari
c) Mahanadi
d) Brahmaputra
Ans: c) Mahanadi - What is the maximum area covered by mangrove forests in Bhitarkanika?
a) 10,987 hectares
b) 12,987 hectares
c) 14,987 hectares
d) 16,987 hectares
Ans: c) 14,987 hectares - Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of mangrove plants?
a) Salt-tolerant
b) Found in freshwater only
c) Found in inter-tidal regions
d) Thrive in brackish water
Ans: b) Found in freshwater only - What purpose do mangrove forests serve in coastal areas?
a) Increase sea erosion
b) Provide habitat for urban development
c) Protect against cyclones and tidal surges
d) Accelerate tidal surge
Ans: c) Protect against cyclones and tidal surges - What is the nickname given to the tidal forests of the Mahanadi mouth?
a) Mini Sundarbans
b) Lesser Sundarbans
c) Little Sundarbans
d) Tiny Sundarbans
Ans: c) Little Sundarbans - Which species is predominant in Odisha’s mangrove forests?
a) Sundari
b) Karika
c) Bani
d) Hental
Ans: d) Hental - What is the significance of Iron wood plantation in Puri coast?
a) Provides habitat for wildlife
b) Serves as a tourist attraction
c) Provides fuel to the people
d) Prevents sea erosion
Ans: c) Provides fuel to the people - What feature separates mangrove forests from the cultivated zone in Odisha?
a) Desert
b) Grassland
c) Wetland
d) Mountain range
Ans: b) Grassland - When was the Odisha Forest Development Corporation Limited (OFD(c) established?
(a) 1962
(b) 1979
(c) 1990
(d) 1985
Ans: (c) 1990 - What are the objectives of OFDC?
(a) To exploit forest resources unfairly
(b) To provide unfair wages to forest laborers
(c) To promote forest-based industries in the state
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) To promote forest-based industries in the state - When did the Odisha State Forest Department come into existence?
(a) 1883-84
(b) 1912
(c) 1936
(d) 1983
Ans: (c) 1936 - What was the Odisha Forest Department initially a part of?
(a) Bengal
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (a) Bengal - Which divisions were created within the Odisha Forest Division in 1912?
(a) Angul and Puri
(b) Angul and Sambalpur
(c) Puri and Sambalpur
(d) Cuttack and Berhampur
Ans: (a) Angul and Puri - What are the primary objectives of the Odisha State Forest Department?
(a) Exploitation of forest resources
(b) Conserving natural heritage
(c) Reducing sustainability
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Conserving natural heritage - Which policy guidelines does the Department of Forest and Environment Odisha follow?
(a) National Forest Policy, 1990
(b) Odisha Forest Sector Vision 2030
(c) Joint Forest Management Resolution, 2001
(d) National Forest Policy, 1988
Ans: (d) National Forest Policy, 1988 - What is the aim of the Department of Forest and Environment Odisha?
(a) Exploitation of forest resources
(b) Regeneration and extension of forest and tree cover
(c) Environmental degradation
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b) Regeneration and extension of forest and tree cover - Which corporation was NOT merged to form OFDC?
(a) Odisha Forest Corporation
(b) Simlipal Forest Development Corporation Limited
(c) Odisha Composite Board
(d) Bihar Plantation Development Corporation Limited
Ans: (d) Bihar Plantation Development Corporation Limited - What does OFDC aim to provide to the government?
(a) Insufficient revenue
(b) Fair wages
(c) Unscientific exploitation of forest resources
(d) Sufficient revenue
Ans: (d) Sufficient revenue - The Ghumsar Uprising was led by which leader?(a) Surendra Sai
(b) Madhubandhu Acharya
(c) Chakara Bissoyi
(d) Laxman Naik
Ans: (c) Chakara Bissoyi - The Bhuyan Uprising in Odisha occurred during which year?(a) 1848
(b) 1855
(c) 1860
(d) 1869
Ans: (b) 1855 - The great famine of 1866 in Odisha was also known as?(a) Chakara Famine
(b) Garjan Famine
(c) Na-Anka Famine
(d) Konark Famine
Ans: (c) Na-Anka Famine - The estimated death toll of the 1866 famine in Odisha was about how many?(a) 100,000
(b) 500,000
(c) 1,000,000
(d) 1,500,000
Ans: (c) 1,000,000 - Which socio-religious movement started in Odisha during the British colonial period?(a) Brahmo Movement
(b) Arya Samaj
(c) Mahima Dharma
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - The Portuguese established their settlements in Odisha around which year?(a) 1525
(b) 1625
(c) 1725
(d) 1825
Ans: (b) 1625 - In which district did the Portuguese establish their settlements in Odisha?(a) Ganjam
(b) Puri
(c) Balasore
(d) Cuttack
Ans: (c) Balasore - The first British factory was established in Odisha at which place?(a) Puri
(b) Cuttack
(c) Pipili
(d) Balasore
Ans: (d) Balasore - Who was the leader of the Praja Revolt in Odisha?(a) Madhubandhu Acharya
(b) Surendra Sai
(c) Chakara Bissoyi
(d) Gopabandhu Das
Ans: (b) Surendra Sai - The Satya Mahima Dharma was founded by?(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Chakara Bissoyi
(c) Madhubandhu Acharya
(d) Mahima Gosain
Ans: (d) Mahima Gosain - Which movement in Odisha aimed at abolishing caste discrimination and promoting equality?(a) Brahmo Movement
(b) Satya Mahima Dharma
(c) Arya Samaj
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - The Revolt of 1857 was led in Odisha by?(a) Laxman Naik
(b) Chakara Bissoyi
(c) Madhubandhu Acharya
(d) Surendra Sai
Ans: (d) Surendra Sai - The Portuguese influence in Odisha began to decline in which century?(a) 16th century
(b) 17th century
(c) 18th century
(d) 19th century
Ans: (b) 17th century - The Portuguese built which structures in Odisha?(a) Churches
(b) Temples
(c) Mosques
(d) Palaces
Ans: (a) Churches - The educational reforms in Odisha during British rule focused primarily on what?(a) Western education
(b) Traditional education
(c) Vocational training
(d) Religious education
Ans: (a) Western education - Which major factor contributed to the famine in Odisha in 1866?(a) Drought
(b) Flood
(c) Cyclone
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a) Drought - The Britishers could not establish their settlements properly in Odisha during which period?(a) Until the 15th century
(b) Until the 17th century
(c) Until the 19th century
(d) Until the 21st century
Ans: (b) Until the 17th century - The decline of Portuguese influence in Odisha allowed which European power to gain strength in the region?(a) French
(b) Dutch
(c) British
(d) Spanish
Ans: (c) British - Which movement aimed at eradicating superstition and promoting social reform in Odisha?(a) Brahmo Movement
(b) Arya Samaj
(c) Satya Mahima Dharma
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - In what year did General Robert Clive acquire the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha?(a) 1757
(b) 1765
(c) 1770
(d) 1780
Ans: (b) 1765 - Who granted the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha to the East India Company?(a) Tipu Sultan
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Hyder Ali
Ans: (c) Shah Alam II - Which present-day district was included in the Northern Circars obtained by the East India Company?(a) Puri
(b) Cuttack
(c) Ganjam
(d) Khurda
Ans: (c) Ganjam - The Northern Circars consisted of which areas?(a) Puri and Khurda
(b) Cuttack and Balasore
(c) Chicacole, Rajahmundry, Ellore, and Guntur
(d) Sambalpur and Balangir
Ans: (c) Chicacole, Rajahmundry, Ellore, and Guntur - What was the first settlement made by the British East India Company in Odisha?
(a) Puri
(b) Cuttack
(c) Jagatsinghpur (Harishpur)
(d) Balasore
Ans: (c) Jagatsinghpur (Harishpur) - Which part of Odisha did the British East India Company acquire from the Northern Circars?
(a) Coastal Odisha
(b) Central Odisha
(c) Western Odisha
(d) Northern Odisha
Ans: (a) Coastal Odisha - How did the acquisition of Oriya-speaking tracts help the British authorities?
(a) It facilitated trade routes
(b) It helped them conquer Odisha with ease
(c) It provided them with natural resources
(d) It established diplomatic relations with the local rulers
Ans: (b) It helped them conquer Odisha with ease - Which region did the British East India Company obtain along with the Northern Circars?(a) Madras
(b) Midnapore
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Calcutta
Ans: (b) Midnapore - The British established their control in Odisha after which battle?
(a) Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Karnal
(d) Battle of Panipat
Ans: (b) Battle of Buxar - Which Oriya-speaking tracts were acquired by the British authorities?(a) Only Midnapore
(b) Both South and North tracts
(c) Only Ganjam
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Both South and North tracts - What year did the British East India Company acquire the Northern Circars?
(a) 1750
(b) 1765
(c) 1770
(d) 1780
Ans: (b) 1765 - Why did the British establish their first settlement in Harishpur (Jagatsinghpur)?
(a) It was strategically located
(b) It was the capital of Odisha
(c) It was rich in natural resources
(d) It was the birthplace of General Robert Clive
Ans: (a) It was strategically located - What impact did the acquisition of Oriya-speaking tracts have on British control in Odisha?
(a) It made it harder to control the region
(b) It led to resistance from local rulers
(c) It facilitated British expansion in the region
(d) It had no significant impact
Ans: (c) It facilitated British expansion in the region - When did the first agitation against the British take place in Odisha?
(a) 1803
(b) 1804
(c) 1827
(d) 1857
Ans: (b) 1804 - During whose tenure did the first agitation against the British take place in Odisha?
(a) Raja Jai Singh
(b) Raja Pratap Singh
(c) Mukunda Deva II
(d) Raja Ravi Verma
Ans: (c) Mukunda Deva II - When was Baji Rout born?
(a) 11 October 1938
(b) 5 October 1926
(c) 15 August 1947
(d) 30 January 1948
Ans: (b) 5 October 1926 - What was Baji Rout’s profession?
(a) Farmer
(b) Soldier
(c) Boatman
(d) Teacher
Ans: (c) Boatman - What did Baji Rout refuse to do for the Indian Imperial Police?
(a) Guide them to a hideout
(b) Ferry them across the Brahmani River
(c) Provide them with food and water
(d) Give them shelter for the night
Ans: (b) Ferry them across the Brahmani River - Where did the incident involving Baji Rout and the Indian Imperial Police take place?
(a) Puri Beach
(b) Chilika Lake
(c) Mahanadi River
(d) Nilakanthapur Ghat, Bhuban, Dhenkanal district
Ans: (d) Nilakanthapur Ghat, Bhuban, Dhenkanal district - On what date did Baji Rout lose his life for refusing to comply with the Indian Imperial Police?(a) 5 October 1926
(b) 11 October 1938
(c) 26 January 1950
(d) 15 August 1947
Ans: (b) 11 October 1938 - Who gave the slogan “Tum mujhe khoon do, main tumhe azaadi doonga”?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Sardar Patel
Ans: (b) Subhash Chandra Bose - The slogan “Karo ya maro” was given by which Indian freedom fighter?(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Bhagat Singh
Ans: (c) Mahatma Gandhi - Which freedom fighter is associated with the slogan “Inquilab Zindabad”?
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (a) Bhagat Singh - “Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab hamare dil me hai” was a slogan given by which freedom fighter?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Ramprasad Bismil
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans: (c) Ramprasad Bismil - Who popularized the slogan “Satyameva Jayate”?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya
Ans: (d) Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya - When was Madhusudan Das born?
(a) 4 February 1934
(b) 28 April 1848
(c) 1 April 1936
(d) 15 August 1947
Ans: (b) 28 April 1848 - What organization did Madhusudan Das found in 1903?
(a) Utkal Sabha
(b) Odisha Union
(c) Utkal Sammilani
(d) Indian National Congress
Ans: (c) Utkal Sammilani - When is Madhusudan Das’s birthday celebrated as Lawyers’ Day in Odisha?
(a) 28 April
(b) 4 February
(c) 15 August
(d) 1 April
Ans: (a) 28 April - What is one of the titles given to Madhusudan Das?
(a) Mahatma
(b) Bapu
(c) Utkal Gouraba (Pride of Utkal)
(d) Deshbandhu
Ans: (c) Utkal Gouraba (Pride of Utkal) - Madhusudan Das was known for campaigning for the unification of which Indian region?
(a) Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Odisha
(d) Punjab
Ans: (c) Odisha - What is the nickname given to Parbati Giri?
(a) Rani of Jhansi
(b) Utkal Gouraba
(c) Mother Teresa of Western Odisha
(d) Nightingale of Odisha
Ans: (c) Mother Teresa of Western Odisha - In which year did Parbati Giri pass away?
(a) 1942
(b) 1950
(c) 1995
(d) 2005
Ans: (c) 1995 - Which Indian state is associated with both Sarala Devi and Parbati Giri?(a) West Bengal
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Odisha
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (c) Odisha - In which field was Sarala Devi a prominent figure?
(a) Music and Arts
(b) Freedom movement
(c) Agriculture
(d) Business
Ans: (b) Freedom movement - Who is considered Odisha’s first lady freedom fighter?
(a) Parbati Giri
(b) Sarala Devi
(c) Madhusudan Das
(d) Jayee Rajguru
Ans: (b) Sarala Devi - Who is Sarala Devi?
(a) A prominent social reformer from Maharashtra
(b) The first female graduate from Odisha
(c) A prominent freedom fighter from Odisha
(d) A musician known for her classical singing
Ans: (c) A prominent freedom fighter from Odisha - When did Mahatma Gandhi first visit Odisha?
(a) March 23, 1921
(b) April 15, 1922
(c) February 10, 1923
(d) May 30, 1924
Ans: (a) March 23, 1921 - What significant event was taking place on Mahatma Gandhi’s first visit to Odisha?
(a) Diwali
(b) Holi
(c) Dola Purnima
(d) Pongal
Ans: (c) Dola Purnima - Where did Mahatma Gandhi conduct his first meeting in Odisha on March 24, 1921?
(a) Puri Beach
(b) Gandhi Padia in Bhadrak
(c) Qadam-e-Rasool in Cuttack
(d) Brahmapur Stadium
Ans: (c) Qadam-e-Rasool in Cuttack - Who gave the title “Utkalmani” to Gopabandhu Das?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Prafulla Chandra Roy
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose
Ans: (c) Prafulla Chandra Roy - What does the title “Utkalmani” mean?
(a) The Brave Heart of Odisha
(b) The Teacher of Odisha
(c) The Jewel of Odisha
(d) The Voice of Odisha
Ans: (c) The Jewel of Odisha - In which district is Sakhigopal, the place where Gopabandhu Das established the Satyabadi High School, located?
(a) Cuttack
(b) Puri
(c) Khordha
(d) Balasore
Ans: (b) Puri - What was the name of the monthly literary magazine launched by Gopabandhu Das?
(a) Satyabadi
(b) Utkal Deepika
(c) Prajatantra
(d) The Odisha Review
Ans: (a) Satyabadi - Which body of water borders Odisha on the east?
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Pacific Ocean
Ans: (c) Bay of Bengal
