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Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | July 3rd Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

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  1. Which of the following rulers built the first temple at the Mahabodhi Temple Complex?
    (a) Emperor Ashoka
    (b) Harshavardhana
    (c) Chandragupta Maurya
    (d) Samudragupta
    Ans. (a) Emperor Ashoka
  2. In which century does the present Mahabodhi Temple date from?
    (a) 2nd century B.C.
    (b) 3rd century A.D.
    (c) 5th or 6th centuries A.D.
    (d) 8th century A.D.
    Ans. (c) 5th or 6th centuries A.D.
  3. The Mahabodhi Temple Complex is located on the banks of which river?
    (a) Ganges
    (b) Yamuna
    (c) Godavari
    (d) Niranjana
    Ans. (d) Niranjana
  4. Which UNESCO status does the Mahabodhi Temple Complex hold?
    (a) World Heritage Site
    (b) Intangible Cultural Heritage
    (c) Biosphere Reserve
    (d) Geopark
    Ans. (a) World Heritage Site
  5. What is the primary aim of the e-office platform?
    (a) Reduce paper usage
    (b) Streamline operations and enhance efficiency
    (c) Increase employee count
    (d) Introduce new technology
    Ans. (b) Streamline operations and enhance efficiency
  6. Which organization is responsible for the implementation of the e-office platform?
    (a) ISRO
    (b) DRDO
    (c) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
    (d) CSIR
    Ans. (c) National Informatics Centre (NIC)
  7. What is the purpose of the SPARROW application within the e-office platform?
    (a) Managing inventory
    (b) Processing Annual Performance Appraisal Reports (APAR)
    (c) Handling financial transactions
    (d) Coordinating meetings
    Ans. (b) Processing Annual Performance Appraisal Reports (APAR)
  8. What does CHAPEA stand for?
    (a) Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog
    (b) Comprehensive Health and Physical Evaluation Assignment
    (c) Critical Habitat and Planetary Exploration Assessment
    (d) Crew Habitat and Performance Evaluation Analog
    Ans. (a) Crew Health and Performance Exploration Analog
  9. Where was the CHAPEA project’s habitat located?
    (a) Kennedy Space Center
    (b) Johnson Space Center
    (c) Jet Propulsion Laboratory
    (d) Goddard Space Flight Center
    Ans. (b) Johnson Space Center
  10. What were some of the conditions simulated in the CHAPEA project?
    (a) Weightlessness and radiation
    (b) Resource limitations and isolation
    (c) Extreme temperatures and high pressure
    (d) Zero gravity and vacuum environment
    Ans. (b) Resource limitations and isolation
  11. What is India’s projected population in 2024 according to the report?
    (a) 1.25 billion
    (b) 1.35 billion
    (c) 1.45 billion
    (d) 1.55 billion
    Ans. (c) 1.45 billion
  12. By what year is the global population expected to peak at around 10.3 billion people?
    (a) 2060s
    (b) 2070s
    (c) 2080s
    (d) 2090s
    Ans. (c) 2080s
  13. What is the current global fertility rate according to the report?
    (a) 1.75 live births per woman
    (b) 2.25 live births per woman
    (c) 2.75 live births per woman
    (d) 3.25 live births per woman
    Ans. (b) 2.25 live births per woman
  14. What is the primary objective of the Agri-SURE initiative?
    (a) Promote urban agriculture
    (b) Support start-ups and agripreneurs in agriculture and allied sectors
    (c) Increase export of agricultural products
    (d) Develop new farming techniques
    Ans. (b) Support start-ups and agripreneurs in agriculture and allied sectors
  15. What is the total funding allocated for the Agri-SURE initiative?
    (a) ₹500 crore
    (b) ₹750 crore
    (c) ₹1000 crore
    (d) ₹1250 crore
    Ans. (b) ₹750 crore
  16. Which organization is managing the Agri-SURE fund?
    (a) NABARD
    (b) Ministry of Agriculture
    (c) NABVENTURES
    (d) FICCI
    Ans. (c) NABVENTURES
  17. What are the main focus areas of the Agri-SURE initiative?
    (a) Urban development and infrastructure
    (b) Innovative, technology-driven agricultural initiatives and farm produce value chain
    (c) International trade and export
    (d) Rural tourism and heritage conservation
    Ans. (b) Innovative, technology-driven agricultural initiatives and farm produce value chain
  18. How many agri start-ups are expected to be supported under the Agri-SURE initiative?
    (a) 50
    (b) 65
    (c) 85
    (d) 100
    Ans. (c) 85
  19. What is the investment size limit for each start-up under the Agri-SURE initiative?
    (a) ₹10 crore
    (b) ₹15 crore
    (c) ₹20 crore
    (d) ₹25 crore
    Ans. (d) ₹25 crore
  20. Which of the following is NOT a contribution to the Agri-SURE fund?
    (a) NABARD
    (b) Ministry of Agriculture
    (c) Private investors
    (d) Ministry of Rural Development
    Ans. (d) Ministry of Rural Development
  21. Which of the following is the primary purpose of Google Fi Wireless’ ‘Number Lock’ feature?
    (a) To enhance call quality
    (b) To prevent SIM swapping
    (c) To reduce data charges
    (d) To increase battery life
    Answer:
    (b) To prevent SIM swapping
  22. What do fraudsters gain access to through SIM swap scams?
    (a) Social media accounts only
    (b) Emails only
    (c) Calls, texts, and two-factor authentication codes
    (d) Photos and videos only
    Answer:
    (c) Calls, texts, and two-factor authentication codes
  23. Which of the following methods do fraudsters use to gather information for SIM swapping?
    (a) Direct phone calls to the victim
    (b) Visiting the victim’s home
    (c) Phishing or vishing
    (d) Social media advertisements
    Answer:
    (c) Phishing or vishing
  24. Why do fraudsters give missed calls to victims in a SIM swap scam?
    (a) To steal the phone physically
    (b) To make the victim aware of the scam
    (c) To cause the victim to leave their phone unattended
    (d) To recharge the victim’s account
    Answer:
    (c) To cause the victim to leave their phone unattended
  25. Which river does the Manjeera Wildlife Sanctuary follow?
    (a) Krishna
    (b) Godavari
    (c) Manjeera
    (d) Cauvery
    Answer:
    (c) Manjeera
  26. In which district of Telangana is the Manjeera Wildlife Sanctuary situated?
    (a) Hyderabad
    (b) Warangal
    (c) Medak
    (d) Nalgonda
    Answer:
    (c) Medak
  27. Which type of vegetation is dominant in the Manjeera Wildlife Sanctuary?
    (a) Tropical rainforest
    (b) Dry Savannah
    (c) Alpine meadows
    (d) Mangroves
    Answer:
    (b) Dry Savannah
  28. Which reptile is notably found in the Manjeera Wildlife Sanctuary?
    (a) Indian cobra
    (b) Mugger crocodile
    (c) Green sea turtle
    (d) King cobra
    Answer:
    (b) Mugger crocodile
  29. What is the primary goal of the e-FAST India initiative?
    (a) To promote electric vehicles
    (b) To decarbonize road-based freight transportation
    (c) To develop smart cities
    (d) To enhance digital banking
    Answer:
    (b) To decarbonize road-based freight transportation
  30. In which year was the e-FAST India initiative launched?
    (a) 2019
    (b) 2020
    (c) 2021
    (d) 2022
    Answer:
    (d) 2022
  31. Which of the following is not a stakeholder in the e-FAST India initiative?
    (a) Original Equipment Manufacturers
    (b) Logistics Service Providers
    (c) Financial institutions
    (d) Shippers
    Answer:
    (c) Financial institutions
  32. Where is the National Geophysical Research Institute (NGRI) located?
    (a) New Delhi
    (b) Kolkata
    (c) Hyderabad
    (d) Chennai
    Answer:
    (c) Hyderabad
  33. In which year was the National Geophysical Research Institute (NGRI) established?
    (a) 1951
    (b) 1961
    (c) 1971
    (d) 1981
    Answer:
    (b) 1961
  34. What is one of the missions of the NGRI?
    (a) Promote space exploration
    (b) Conduct research in Earth’s complex structure and processes
    (c) Develop renewable energy technologies
    (d) Enhance artificial intelligence
    Answer:
    (b) Conduct research in Earth’s complex structure and processes
  35. Which organization collaborated with NITI Aayog to launch the NITI GearShift Challenge?
    (a) WHO
    (b) IIM Bangalore
    (c) UNICEF
    (d) NASA
    Answer:
    (b) IIM Bangalore
  36. What is the main focus of the NITI GearShift Challenge?
    (a) Promoting tourism in India
    (b) Developing business models for zero-emission trucks
    (c) Enhancing digital literacy
    (d) Reducing urban traffic congestion
    Answer:
    (b) Developing business models for zero-emission trucks
  37. Which group is not explicitly invited to participate in the NITI GearShift Challenge?
    (a) Students
    (b) Transport service practitioners
    (c) Academics
    (d) Politicians
    Answer:
    (d) Politicians
  38. Which of the following is a research theme at NGRI?
    (a) Climate change mitigation
    (b) Geodynamics
    (c) Space weather
    (d) Marine biology
    Answer:(b) Geodynamics
  39. Which type of aquatic vegetation is found in the Manjeera Wildlife Sanctuary?
    (a) Only submergent
    (b) Only emergent
    (c) Both submergent and emergent
    (d) Neither submergent nor emergent
    Answer:(c) Both submergent and emergent
  40. Which of the following aquatic species can be found in the Manjeera Wildlife Sanctuary?
    (a) Dolphins
    (b) Whales
    (c) Catla fish
    (d) Sea horses
    Answer: (c) Catla fish
  41. Why is India hosting the second Asia Pacific (APAC) ministerial conference on civil aviation?
    (a) To celebrate ICAO’s anniversary
    (b) To promote regional cooperation
    (c) To address aviation safety issues
    (d) To discuss environmental regulations
    Answer: (b) To promote regional cooperation
  42. When was the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) established?
    (a) 1944
    (b) 1945
    (c) 1947
    (d) 1950
    Answer: (c) 1947
  43. Where are the headquarters of the ICAO located?
    (a) New York, USA
    (b) Geneva, Switzerland
    (c) Montreal, Canada
    (d) Paris, France
    Answer: (c) Montreal, Canada
  44. What is one of the main purposes of ICAO?
    (a) Regulating international trade
    (b) Promoting tourism
    (c) Setting aviation safety standards
    (d) Enforcing maritime laws
    Answer: (c) Setting aviation safety standards
  45. How often does the ICAO Assembly meet?
    (a) Annually
    (b) Biennially
    (c) Every three years
    (d) Every five years
    Answer: (c) Every three years
  46. What is the primary focus of the World Heritage Young Professionals Forum?
    (a) Economic development
    (b) Cultural exchange and heritage conservation
    (c) Political cooperation
    (d) Technological innovation
    Answer: (b) Cultural exchange and heritage conservation
  47. Which organization collaborates with the Indian government to host the World Heritage Young Professionals Forum?
    (a) UNESCO
    (b) WHO
    (c) WTO
    (d) FAO
    Answer: (a) UNESCO
  48. What is a key sub-theme addressed at the World Heritage Young Professionals Forum?
    (a) Space exploration
    (b) Global trade
    (c) Climate change impact on World Heritage sites
    (d) Financial management
    Answer: (c) Climate change impact on World Heritage sites
  49. What does the India Young Professional Scheme allow?
    (a) Unlimited immigration to the UK
    (b) Degree-holding citizens to live and work in each other’s countries for two years
    (c) Citizens to pursue higher education abroad
    (d) Temporary work permits for seasonal work
    Answer: (b) Degree-holding citizens to live and work in each other’s countries for two years
  50. Which of the following is a requirement for eligibility under the India Young Professional Scheme?
    (a) Must be at least 25 years old
    (b) Must have £5,000 in savings
    (c) Must hold a bachelor’s degree or higher
    (d) Must have a job offer from a UK company
    Answer: (c) Must hold a bachelor’s degree or higher
  51. What is the primary purpose of the U-WIN portal?
    (a) To manage travel itineraries
    (b) To maintain a digital record of routine immunizations
    (c) To track educational achievements
    (d) To record employment history
    Answer: (b) To maintain a digital record of routine immunizations
  52. Which population is targeted by the U-WIN portal?
    (a) Elderly citizens
    (b) College students
    (c) Pregnant women and children under 5 years
    (d) Healthcare professionals
    Answer: (c) Pregnant women and children under 5 years
  53. What is a key feature of the U-WIN portal?
    (a) E-learning courses
    (b) Digital payment processing
    (c) QR-based, digitally verifiable e-vaccination certificates
    (d) Online shopping
    Answer: (c) QR-based, digitally verifiable e-vaccination certificates
  54. What is the main goal of the FishMIP Initiative?
    (a) To improve global trade policies
    (b) To understand long-term impacts of climate change on marine ecosystems and fisheries
    (c) To promote tourism in coastal areas
    (d) To develop new fishing technologies
    Answer: (b) To understand long-term impacts of climate change on marine ecosystems and fisheries
  55. When was the FishMIP Initiative officially launched?
    (a) 2010
    (b) 2011
    (c) 2013
    (d) 2015
    Answer: (c) 2013
  56. Which organization collaborated with FishMIP to address climate change impacts?
    (a) WHO
    (b) IMF
    (c) FAO
    (d) WTO
    Answer: (c) FAO
  57. What significant prediction did the FishMIP report make?
    (a) Increase in global fish biomass
    (b) Decline in exploitable fish biomass by more than 10% by mid-century under high-emissions scenarios
    (c) Stabilization of marine ecosystems
    (d) No significant change in fish populations
    Answer: (b) Decline in exploitable fish biomass by more than 10% by mid-century under high-emissions scenarios
  58. What is the overarching theme maintained by FishMIP 2.0?
    (a) Global trade policies
    (b) Financial stability
    (c) Climate change
    (d) Technological advancement
    Answer: (c) Climate change
  59. What key feature differentiates FishMIP 2.0 from its predecessor?
    (a) Focus on terrestrial ecosystems
    (b) Broader set of policy-related questions relevant to food security and marine resource management
    (c) Emphasis on technological innovation
    (d) Shift towards urban development issues
    Answer: (b) Broader set of policy-related questions relevant to food security and marine resource management
  60. Why was the U-WIN portal created?
    (a) To provide a platform for social networking
    (b) To enhance vaccination record-keeping and facilitate healthcare access
    (c) To manage international trade documentation
    (d) To support educational initiatives
    Answer: (b) To enhance vaccination record-keeping and facilitate healthcare access
  61. When was the Ratna Bhandar of the Lord Jagannath Temple in Puri last opened before 2024?
    (a) 1905
    (b) 1926
    (c) 1978
    (d) 1985
    Ans. (c)
  62. How many types of gold ornaments were recorded in the Ratna Bhandar during the 1978 inventory?
    (a) 454
    (b) 293
    (c) 400
    (d) 500
    Ans. (a)
  63. What was the weight of the silver ornaments found in the Ratna Bhandar in 1978?
    (a) 22,153 ‘bhari’
    (b) 12,883 ‘bhari’
    (c) 10,000 ‘bhari’
    (d) 15,000 ‘bhari’
    Ans. (a)
  64. What is the Bhitar Bhandar?
    (a) Items used daily
    (b) Items used exclusively for rituals
    (c) Items never used
    (d) Items used during festivals
    Ans. (c)
  65. Who was the Odisha Governor when the Ratna Bhandar was opened in 1978?
    (a) Bhagabat Dayal Sharma
    (b) Biju Patnaik
    (c) Naveen Patnaik
    (d) Janaki Ballabh Patnaik
    Ans. (a)
  66. In which district of Odisha is the Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary located?
    (a) Puri
    (b) Bargarh
    (c) Sambalpur
    (d) Cuttack
    Ans. (b)
  67. Which river is associated with the Hirakud Dam near Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary?
    (a) Ganges
    (b) Mahanadi
    (c) Brahmaputra
    (d) Godavari
    Ans. (b)
  68. What type of vegetation predominantly covers Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary?
    (a) Evergreen forest
    (b) Dry deciduous forest
    (c) Mangrove forest
    (d) Tropical rainforest
    Ans. (b)
  69. Which animal is being translocated to Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary from Sambalpur Zoo?
    (a) Bengal Tiger
    (b) Indian Leopard
    (c) Spotted Deer
    (d) Sambar Deer
    Ans. (c)
  70. What year did the Union government approve the proposal to declare the periphery areas of Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary as eco-sensitive zones (ESZ)?
    (a) 2010
    (b) 2014
    (c) 2016
    (d) 2018
    Ans. (c)
  71. Which new animals are set to arrive at Sambalpur Zoo from various zoos across the country?
    (a) Asiatic Lions
    (b) Royal Bengal Tigers
    (c) Indian Rhinos
    (d) Sloth Bears
    Ans. (b)
  72. What is the binomial name of the Royal Bengal Tiger?
    (a) Panthera Leo
    (b) Panthera Pardus
    (c) Panthera Tigris
    (d) Panthera Onca
    Ans. (c)
  73. What unique habitat do Royal Bengal Tigers inhabit?
    (a) Desert
    (b) Mangrove forests
    (c) Snow-covered mountains
    (d) Tropical rainforests
    Ans. (b)
  74. How many cubs does a tigress typically deliver per litter?
    (a) 2-3
    (b) 4-5
    (c) 6-7
    (d) 8-9
    Ans. (b)
  75. What is the gestation period of a Royal Bengal Tiger?
    (a) 2 months
    (b) 3 months
    (c) 4 months
    (d) 5 months
    Ans. (b)
  76. What is the primary goal of translocating spotted deer to Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary?
    (a) To increase tourist attractions
    (b) To boost the deer population and reduce zoo overcrowding
    (c) To conduct scientific research
    (d) To balance the ecosystem
    Ans. (b)
  77. Which festival coincided with the opening of the Ratna Bhandar in 2024?
    (a) Durga Puja
    (b) Diwali
    (c) Rath Yatra
    (d) Holi
    Ans. (c)
  78. What is the primary conservation status of the Royal Bengal Tiger according to the IUCN?
    (a) Vulnerable
    (b) Endangered
    (c) Critically Endangered
    (d) Near Threatened
    Ans. (b)
  79. Which type of ceremonial articles are found in the Ratna Bhandar?
    (a) Daily use items
    (b) Items used exclusively for rituals
    (c) Items never used
    (d) Items used for festivals only
    Ans. (b)
  80. What is the geographical range of the Royal Bengal Tiger?
    (a) Only India
    (b) India and Nepal
    (c) India, Bhutan, Nepal, Myanmar, Bangladesh, and China
    (d) India, Bangladesh, and Sri Lanka
    Ans. (c)
  81. Why have Punjab, West Bengal, and Delhi refused to participate in the PM-SHRI scheme?
    (a) Lack of infrastructure
    (b) Political reasons
    (c) Financial constraints
    (d) Policy differences
    Ans: (b) Political reasons
  82. What action did the Education Ministry take in response to these states’ refusal to participate in the PM-SHRI scheme?
    (a) Increased funding
    (b) Halted funds under the SSA
    (c) Implemented a new scheme
    (d) Initiated legal proceedings
    Ans: (b) Halted funds under the SSA
  83. What is the main objective of the PM-SHRI scheme?
    (a) To improve healthcare facilities
    (b) To establish over 14,500 PM-SHRI Schools
    (c) To provide employment opportunities
    (d) To develop rural infrastructure
    Ans: (b) To establish over 14,500 PM-SHRI Schools
  84. Which policy does the PM-SHRI scheme align with?
    (a) Make in India
    (b) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
    (c) National Education Policy 2020
    (d) Digital India
    Ans: (c) National Education Policy 2020
  85. What feature is NOT part of the PM-SHRI schools?
    (a) Cognitive development focus
    (b) Holistic growth
    (c) Online-only classes
    (d) Inquiry-driven learning
    Ans: (c) Online-only classes
  86. What does ASMITA stand for?
    (a) Augmenting Study Materials in Indian Languages through Translation and Academic Writing
    (b) Advanced Study Materials in Indian Technology and Arts
    (c) Academic Study and Management in Indian Teaching
    (d) Augmented Studies in Modern Indian Languages
    Ans: (a) Augmenting Study Materials in Indian Languages through Translation and Academic Writing
  87. How many books does the ASMITA project aim to develop within five years?
    (a) 1,000
    (b) 5,000
    (c) 10,000
    (d) 22,000
    Ans: (d) 22,000
  88. Which organization is NOT involved in the ASMITA project?
    (a) UGC
    (b) Bharatiya Bhasha Samiti
    (c) ISRO
    (d) Ministry of Education
    Ans: (c) ISRO
  89. What is the primary goal of the ASMITA project?
    (a) Promote sports in schools
    (b) Integrate Indian languages into the education system
    (c) Develop new technology for schools
    (d) Create digital libraries
    Ans: (b) Integrate Indian languages into the education system
  90. Which step is NOT part of the SOP for book writing under the ASMITA project?
    (a) Identification of nodal officers
    (b) Writing and editing
    (c) Review and plagiarism check
    (d) International publication
    Ans: (d) International publication
  91. Srijan Portal and Positive Indigenisation List
    Who developed the Srijan portal?
    (a) Ministry of Education
    (b) Department of Defence Production
    (c) Ministry of Home Affairs
    (d) Ministry of External Affairs
    Ans: (b) Department of Defence Production
  92. How many items are included in the fifth Positive Indigenisation List?
    (a) 100
    (b) 200
    (c) 346
    (d) 500
    Ans: (c) 346
  93. What is the purpose of the Srijan portal?
    (a) Import foreign goods
    (b) Display items for indigenization by private sectors
    (c) Export Indian goods
    (d) Track military operations
    Ans: (b) Display items for indigenization by private sectors
  94. Which ministry oversees the Srijan portal?
    (a) Ministry of Defence
    (b) Ministry of Finance
    (c) Ministry of Commerce
    (d) Ministry of Science and Technology
    Ans: (a) Ministry of Defence
  95. What information does the Srijan portal provide?
    (a) Tourist destinations
    (b) Items suitable for indigenization
    (c) Foreign trade policies
    (d) Agricultural products
    Ans: (b) Items suitable for indigenization
  96. Jerdon’s Courser and Bhojshala Complex
    What is the common name of Rhinoptilus bitorquatus?
    (a) Bengal Florican
    (b) Indian Bustard
    (c) Jerdon’s Courser
    (d) Great Indian Hornbill
    Ans: (c) Jerdon’s Courser
  97. Where is Jerdon’s Courser found?
    (a) Western Ghats
    (b) Eastern Ghats
    (c) Himalayas
    (d) Sundarbans
    Ans: (b) Eastern Ghats
  98. What is the conservation status of Jerdon’s Courser?
    (a) Endangered
    (b) Vulnerable
    (c) Critically Endangered
    (d) Near Threatened
    Ans: (c) Critically Endangered
  99. Who constructed the Bhojshala complex?
    (a) Alauddin Khilji
    (b) Raja Bhoja
    (c) Sher Shah Suri
    (d) Akbar
    Ans: (b) Raja Bhoja
  100. Which district is the Bhojshala complex located in?
    (a) Bhopal
    (b) Dhar
    (c) Indore
    (d) Jabalpur
    Ans: (b) Dhar
  101. Why was the Union Minister for Science & Technology recently in the news?
    (a) Launched a new vaccine
    (b) Inaugurated Asia’s first Pre-clinical Network Facility for health research
    (c) Signed a health cooperation agreement with WHO
    (d) Announced a new healthcare policy
    Ans. (b)
  102. Which organization is responsible for the new Pre-clinical Network Facility in Faridabad?
    (a) WHO
    (b) UNICEF
    (c) CEPI
    (d) GAVI
    Ans. (c)
  103. When was the Coalition of Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) launched?
    (a) 2015
    (b) 2016
    (c) 2017
    (d) 2018
    Ans. (c)
  104. Which of the following was NOT a founder of CEPI?
    (a) Government of India
    (b) Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation
    (c) WHO
    (d) Wellcome Trust
    Ans. (c)
  105. What is the central goal of CEPI’s Pandemic-Beating Plan (2022-2026)?
    (a) Eradicate all infectious diseases
    (b) Achieve global vaccination coverage
    (c) Develop vaccines within 100 days of an outbreak
    (d) Establish healthcare facilities in rural areas
    Ans. (c)
  106. What makes the MV Sea Change notable?
    (a) First electric ferry in the world
    (b) First ferry powered entirely by hydrogen fuel
    (c) Largest passenger ferry
    (d) First solar-powered ferry
    Ans. (b)
  107. Where was the MV Sea Change recently launched?
    (a) New York
    (b) Los Angeles
    (c) San Francisco
    (d) Miami
    Ans. (c)
  108. How many passengers can the MV Sea Change accommodate?
    (a) 50
    (b) 75
    (c) 100
    (d) 150
    Ans. (b)
  109. What is the maximum speed of the MV Sea Change?
    (a) 10 knots
    (b) 15 knots
    (c) 20 knots
    (d) 25 knots
    Ans. (c)
  110. Which company built the MV Sea Change?
    (a) Hyundai Heavy Industries
    (b) All American Marine Shipyard
    (c) Maersk
    (d) Mitsubishi Shipbuilding
    Ans. (b)
  111. What is the aim of boosting the capital base of NaBFID to 1 trillion?
    (a) Develop new healthcare facilities
    (b) Strengthen infrastructure financing
    (c) Increase agricultural output
    (d) Expand educational institutions
    Ans. (b)
  112. When was NaBFID established?
    (a) 2019
    (b) 2020
    (c) 2021
    (d) 2022
    Ans. (c)
  113. Which act led to the establishment of NaBFID?
    (a) National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development Act, 2020
    (b) National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development Act, 2021
    (c) Infrastructure Development Act, 2021
    (d) Financing Infrastructure and Development Act, 2020
    Ans. (b)
  114. Under which entity is NaBFID regulated?
    (a) SEBI
    (b) IRDAI
    (c) RBI
    (d) Ministry of Finance
    Ans. (c)
  115. What is one of the primary objectives of NaBFID?
    (a) Provide short-term loans for small businesses
    (b) Develop the stock market
    (c) Address gaps in long-term finance for infrastructure
    (d) Promote export financing
    Ans. (c)
  116. Which ministry monitors the CSC SPV?
    (a) Ministry of Health
    (b) Ministry of Finance
    (c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
    (d) Ministry of Home Affairs
    Ans. (c)
  117. When did the CSC SPV celebrate its 15th anniversary?
    (a) 2019
    (b) 2020
    (c) 2021
    (d) 2022
    Ans. (d)
  118. What is the primary goal of CSCs?
    (a) Provide healthcare services
    (b) Deliver electronic services to villages
    (c) Promote tourism
    (d) Facilitate international trade
    Ans. (b) 
  119. Which institute issued a warning about late blight disease in potatoes?
    (a) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
    (b) Central Potato Research Institute (CPRI)
    (c) National Horticulture Board
    (d) Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
    Ans. (b)

     

  120. What weather condition favors the spread of late blight disease?
    (a) Hot and dry
    (b) Cool and wet
    (c) Warm and sunny
    (d) Cold and dry
    Ans. (b)
  121. What is the target age group for the Khelo India Rising Talent Identification (KIRTI) program?
    (a) 6 to 15 years
    (b) 9 to 18 years
    (c) 12 to 20 years
    (d) 15 to 25 years
    Ans: (b) 9 to 18 years
  122. What is one of the main objectives of the KIRTI program?
    (a) Promote cultural festivals
    (b) Identify talent from every part of the country
    (c) Enhance school curriculum
    (d) Develop IT skills in children
    Ans: (b) Identify talent from every part of the country
  123. How does the KIRTI program aim to reduce addiction to drugs and gadgets among children?
    (a) Through music and arts programs
    (b) By promoting sports activities
    (c) Through academic competitions
    (d) By offering counseling sessions
    Ans: (b) By promoting sports activities
  124. How many centers were initially launched under the KIRTI program?
    (a) 20
    (b) 30
    (c) 50
    (d) 100
    Ans: (c) 50
  125. In the first phase, how many applicants were assessed under the KIRTI program?
    (a) 10,000
    (b) 25,000
    (c) 50,000
    (d) 100,000
    Ans: (c) 50,000
  126. Which of the following sports is NOT included in the first phase of the KIRTI program?
    (a) Athletics
    (b) Boxing
    (c) Swimming
    (d) Hockey
    Ans: (c) Swimming
  127. What is the target number of assessments for the fiscal year 2024-25 under the KIRTI program?
    (a) 10 lakh
    (b) 15 lakh
    (c) 20 lakh
    (d) 25 lakh
    Ans: (c) 20 lakh
  128. What technology is being used in the KIRTI program to predict athletic potential?
    (a) Virtual Reality
    (b) Blockchain
    (c) AI-based data analytics
    (d) Cloud Computing
    Ans: (c) AI-based data analytics
  129. Which approach does the KIRTI program use to focus on localized talent identification?
    (a) Centralized Approach
    (b) Decentralized Approach
    (c) Urban-focused Approach
    (d) National Approach
    Ans: (b) Decentralized Approach
  130. The KIRTI program aligns with which broader scheme’s objectives?
    (a) Digital India
    (b) Make in India
    (c) Khelo India Scheme
    (d) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
    Ans: (c) Khelo India Scheme
    Top 20 MCQs on The Voicebox Programme
  131. Which organization partnered with Netflix India to launch “The Voicebox” program?
    (a) National Film Development Corporation (NFDC)
    (b) Film and Television Institute of India (FTII)
    (c) Satyajit Ray Film and Television Institute (SRFTI)
    (d) Indian Film Industry (IFI)
    Ans: (a) National Film Development Corporation (NFDC)
  132. Which of the following languages is NOT covered under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) training for voice-over artists in “The Voicebox” program?
    (a) English
    (b) Hindi
    (c) Kannada
    (d) Marathi
    Ans: (c) Kannada
  133. What is the eligibility criteria for the participants of “The Voicebox” program?
    (a) Minimum five years of experience in media and entertainment
    (b) Open to all with no experience required
    (c) Professionals with more than two years of experience in the media and entertainment sector
    (d) Students currently enrolled in media courses
    Ans: (c) Professionals with more than two years of experience in the media and entertainment sector
  134. Who sponsors “The Voicebox” program?
    (a) Ministry of Culture, India
    (b) Netflix Fund for Creative Equity
    (c) UNESCO
    (d) Indian Film Industry Fund
    Ans: (b) Netflix Fund for Creative Equity
  135. How many participants are selected for each batch in “The Voicebox” program?
    (a) 20
    (b) 25
    (c) 30
    (d) 35
    Ans: (c) 30
  136. What percentage of participants in “The Voicebox” program must be women?
    (a) At least 30%
    (b) At least 40%
    (c) At least 50%
    (d) At least 60%
    Ans: (c) At least 50%
  137. Which institution is the training partner for “The Voicebox” program?
    (a) National Institute of Design (NID)
    (b) Pearl Academy
    (c) Srishti School of Art, Design and Technology
    (d) Symbiosis Institute of Design
    Ans: (b) Pearl Academy
  138. What special project will seven top participants from each batch contribute to?
    (a) Stories of the Indian Independence Movement
    (b) Documentaries on modern India
    (c) Azaadi ki Amrit Kahaniya
    (d) Narratives of Indian folklore
    Ans: (c) Azaadi ki Amrit Kahaniya
  139. Which country recently joined the United Nations Water Convention, becoming the 10th African nation to do so?
    (a) Ghana
    (b) Nigeria
    (c) Ivory Coast
    (d) Kenya
    Ans: (c) Ivory Coast
  140. When was the UN Water Convention adopted?
    (a) 1990
    (b) 1992
    (c) 1994
    (d) 1996
    Ans: (b) 1992
  141. The UN Water Convention is also known as the Convention on the Protection and Use of which resources?
    (a) Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes
    (b) National Rivers and International Lakes
    (c) Domestic Waterways and International Oceans
    (d) Regional Waterways and Seas
    Ans: (a) Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes

     

  142. What is a key purpose of the UN Water Convention?
    (a) Promote global trade
    (b) Prevent conflicts and promote peace
    (c) Develop technological infrastructure
    (d) Enhance global education systems
    Ans: (b) Prevent conflicts and promote peace

     

  143. When did the UN Water Convention enter into force?
    (a) 1994
    (b) 1996
    (c) 1998
    (d) 2000
    Ans: (b) 1996

     

  144. Which amendment allowed all UN Member States to accede to the UN Water Convention?
    (a) 2014 Amendment
    (b) 2016 Amendment
    (c) 2018 Amendment
    (d) 2020 Amendment
    Ans: (b) 2016 Amendment

     

  145. Scientists suggest LUCA could have formed how long after the Earth was formed?
    (a) A few million years
    (b) A few hundred million years
    (c) A billion years
    (d) A few billion years
    Ans: (b) A few hundred million years

     

  146. What does LUCA stand for?
    (a) Last Universal Cellular Ancestor
    (b) Last Universal Common Ancestor
    (c) Last Unique Common Ancestor
    (d) Last Unicellular Common Ancestor
    Ans: (b) Last Universal Common Ancestor

     

  147. LUCA is hypothesized to be the common ancestor of which life forms?
    (a) Only single-celled organisms
    (b) Only complex organisms
    (c) All modern cellular life
    (d) Only aquatic life
    Ans: (c) All modern cellular life

     

  148. How long ago did LUCA exist?
    (a) 3.5 billion years
    (b) 4.2 billion years
    (c) 2 billion years
    (d) 1 billion years
    Ans: (b) 4.2 billion years

     

  149. Which feature is shared by all cellular organisms due to LUCA?
    (a) Same energy currency (ATP)
    (b) Ability to fly
    (c) Photosynthesis
    (d) Bioluminescence
    Ans: (a) Same energy currency (ATP)

     

  150. What triggered the classification of ‘enemy property’ in India?
    (a) Migration to the USA
    (b) Citizenship of Pakistan and China post partition and wars
    (c) Global financial crises
    (d) Political rebellion
    Ans: (b) Citizenship of Pakistan and China post partition and wars
Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | July 3rd Week 2024_3.1