Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of Weekly Current affairs.
Download ADDA247 Odia APP – Appear Latest Exam Test Series & Live Classes
- Who was Bir Lachit Borphukan?
a) A Mughal emperor
b) A revered Ahom general
c) A Chinese explorer
d) A British diplomat
Answer: b) A revered Ahom general - In which battle did Bir Lachit Borphukan successfully thwart the Mughal army’s attempt to conquer Assam?
a) Battle of Plassey
b) Battle of Panipat
c) Battle of Saraighat
d) Battle of Buxar
Answer: c) Battle of Saraighat - When was the Statue of Valour unveiled?
a) March 9, 2022
b) March 9, 2023
c) March 9, 2024
d) March 9, 2025
Answer: c) March 9, 2024 - Which Indian Prime Minister unveiled the Statue of Valour?
a) Indira Gandhi
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Narendra Modi
d) Manmohan Singh
Answer: c) Narendra Modi - What is the objective of the Lachit Barphukan Maidam Development Project?
a) Promoting agriculture
b) Commemorating the legacy of Bir Lachit Borphukan
c) Building infrastructure for industrial development
d) Enhancing educational facilities
Answer: b) Commemorating the legacy of Bir Lachit Borphukan - Who founded the Ahom Kingdom?
a) Chaolung Sukaphaa
b) Lachit Borphukan
c) Jayadhwaj Singha
d) Ahom Sukaphaa
Answer: a) Chaolung Sukaphaa - Where did the Ahoms originate from?
a) Europe
b) Southeast Asia
c) Middle East
d) Africa
Answer: b) Southeast Asia - What was Bir Lachit Borphukan’s initial role in the military?
a) Infantry officer
b) Navy officer
c) Cavalry officer
d) Artillery officer
Answer: c) Cavalry officer - When was the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary established?
a) 1960
b) 1973
c) 1985
d) 2000
Answer: b) 1973 - Which river flows through the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary?
a) Ganges
b) Brahmaputra
c) Kabini
d) Yamuna
Answer: c) Kabini - Which forest range was affected by the recent fire in Kerala?
a) Muthanga
b) Kurichiat
c) Tholpetty
d) Sulthan Bathery
Answer: d) Sulthan Bathery - What is one of the major threats to the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary?
a) Heavy rainfall
b) Alien plant species encroachment
c) Excessive tourism
d) Lack of wildlife population
Answer: b) Alien plant species encroachment - Which of the following animals is NOT found in the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary?
a) Bengal tiger
b) Gaur
c) African elephant
d) Asiatic wild dog
Answer: c) African elephant - What is the ecological importance of the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary?
a) Home to over 500 known species
b) Home to over 1,000 known species
c) Home to over 3,700 known species
d) Home to over 5,000 known species
Answer: c) Home to over 3,700 known species - Which kingdom was involved in the Battle of Saraighat?
a) Mughal Empire
b) British Empire
c) Ahom Kingdom
d) Maratha Empire
Answer: c) Ahom Kingdom - Which mountain range is the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary a part of?
a) Himalayas
b) Western Ghats
c) Aravalli Range
d) Eastern Ghats
Answer: b) Western Ghats - What is the primary objective of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve?
a) Promoting industrial growth
b) Conserving biodiversity
c) Developing urban infrastructure
d) Expanding agricultural land
Answer: b) Conserving biodiversity - What is the significance of the Statue of Valour?
a) Commemorating a famous poet
b) Honoring a military general
c) Celebrating a political leader
d) Recognizing a scientist
Answer: b) Honoring a military general - Which river is Kabini, a tributary of?
a) Ganges
b) Brahmaputra
c) Godavari
d) Kaveri
Answer: d) Kaveri - What is the historical importance of the Ahom Kingdom?
a) Known for its rule over northern India
b) Famous for its maritime trade
c) Renowned for its well-organized military and diverse population
d) Notable for its religious tolerance
Answer: c) Renowned for its well-organized military and diverse population - Where did the significant fire break out recently, causing destruction?
A) Nalabana Bird Sanctuary
B) Mangalajodi
C) Chilika Lake
D) Khurda district
Answer: A) Nalabana Bird Sanctuary - When did the Nalabana Bird Sanctuary receive official recognition?
A) 1987
B) 1990
C) 2000
D) 1975
Answer: A) 1987 - What is the approximate size of the Nalabana Bird Sanctuary?
A) 10 sq km
B) 20 sq km
C) 16 sq km
D) 25 sq km
Answer: C) 16 sq km - What happens to Nalabana Island during the monsoon season?
A) It disappears
B) It expands
C) It remains the same
D) It sinks
Answer: A) It disappears - Which birds primarily gather at Nalabana and Mangalajodi?
A) Migratory birds
B) Resident birds
C) Waterfowl
D) Birds of prey
Answer: A) Migratory birds - When do migratory birds begin arriving at Chilika?
A) November
B) January
C) March
D) September
Answer: A) November - Where do migratory birds come from to seek respite at Chilika?
A) Siberia, China, Japan
B) Africa, Europe, Australia
C) North America, South America
D) India, Pakistan, Bangladesh
Answer: A) Siberia, China, Japan - What is the distinction of Chilika Lake?
A) Asia’s largest freshwater lake
B) Asia’s largest saltwater lake
C) Asia’s largest brackish water lagoon
D) Asia’s largest man-made lake
Answer: C) Asia’s largest brackish water lagoon - What is being advocated for in Odisha beyond Class III?
A) Extension of multilingual education (MLE)
B) Introduction of vocational training
C) Infrastructure development
D) Sports education promotion
Answer: A) Extension of multilingual education (MLE) - How many tribal languages are there in Odisha?
A) 21
B) 50
C) 74
D) 100
Answer: A) 21 - How many tribal languages have received regularization for tribal language teachers?
A) 32
B) 64
C) 50
D) 100Answer: B) 64 - Which group suggests a linguistic survey of tribals for MLE?
A) Education experts
B) Tribal leaders
C) Anthropologists
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above - At which classes is the tribal language teaching system currently limited?
A) Class I to III
B) Class IV to VI
C) Class VII to IX
D) Class X to XII
Answer: A) Class I to III - What is one objective of MLE?
A) To assimilate tribal children into urban culture
B) To improve tribal students’ reading and writing skills
C) To phase out tribal languages
D) To neglect tribal culture
Answer: B) To improve tribal students’ reading and writing skills - How many tribes have been enlisted as Scheduled Tribes in Odisha?
A) 32
B) 50
C) 62
D) 100
Answer: C) 62 - Which tribe is numerically very large and widely distributed?
A) Bondo
B) Kondh
C) Mankirdia
D) Chenchu
Answer: B) Kondh - What is the purpose of introducing state and national languages at early stages in MLE?
A) To confuse tribal children
B) To discourage tribal languages
C) To mainstream tribal children
D) To isolate tribal children
Answer: C) To mainstream tribal children - What is the objective of developing respect among tribal children for their language and culture?
A) To assimilate them into mainstream culture
B) To preserve tribal languages and culture
C) To erase tribal identity
D) To make them feel inferior
Answer: B) To preserve tribal languages and culture - Which of the following is NOT a broad objective of MLE?
A) To improve tribal students’ reading and writing skills
B) To ensure equity and quality education to tribal children
C) To promote tribal migration to urban areas
D) To develop respect among tribal children for their language and culture
Answer: C) To promote tribal migration to urban areas - In which developed language could MLE be extended up to the Higher Secondary or even Graduation level?
A) Kondh
B) Santhali
C) Gond
D) Saora
Answer: B) Santhali - What are the names of the voter mascots introduced in Sambalpur in 2024?
A) Voter Bhai and Voter Didi
B) Voter Dada and Voter Nani
C) Voter Anna and Voter Amma
D) Voter Mama and Voter Mausi
Answer: B) Voter Dada and Voter Nani - What is the objective of the ‘No voter to be left behind’ initiative in Sambalpur?
A) To increase voter turnout among elderly citizens
B) To ensure maximum voter participation and awareness
C) To promote a specific political party
D) To discourage voters from participating in the electoral process
Answer: B) To ensure maximum voter participation and awareness - What is the focus of the voter mascots’ campaign in urban areas of Sambalpur district?
A) Spreading awareness about climate change
B) Promoting local businesses
C) Educating people about election-related procedures
D) Advocating for animal rights
Answer: C) Educating people about election-related procedures - In which month did Odisha record the highest inflation rate in 2024?
A) January
B) February
C) March
D) June
Answer: C) March - What was the inflation rate in Odisha in March 2024?
A) 3.75%
B) 6.46%
C) 7.05%
D) 8.73%
Answer: C) 7.05% - What were the inflation rates in rural and urban areas of Odisha in March 2024?
A) Rural: 6.46%, Urban: 7.05%
B) Rural: 7.05%, Urban: 6.46%
C) Rural: 7.27%, Urban: 6.46%
D) Rural: 6.46%, Urban: 7.27%
Answer: D) Rural: 6.46%, Urban: 7.27% - Which state had the highest inflation rates among those with populations exceeding 50 lakh?
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Odisha
C) Maharashtra
D) Karnataka
Answer: B) Odisha - What was the inflation rate in Odisha in June 2023?
A) 3.75%
B) 6.46%
C) 7.05%
D) 8.73%
Answer: A) 3.75% - What percentage of inflation was recorded for vegetables in Odisha?
A) 28.34%
B) 17.71%
C) 11.4%
D) 10.33%
Answer: A) 28.34% - Which crucial probiotic strain was discovered in the tribal beverage ‘handia’?
A) Lactobacillus acidophilus
B) Bifidobacterium bifidum
C) Levilactobacillus brevis ILSH3 (H3)
D) Escherichia coli
Answer: C) Levilactobacillus brevis ILSH3 (H3) - What significant compound was identified during the genome sequencing of the probiotic strain in ‘handia’?
A) Vitamin C
B) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C) Iron
D) Calcium
Answer: B) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) - What are the physiological effects of Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)?
A) Anti-anxiety, hypotensive, and diuretic properties
B) Energy-boosting and appetite-suppressing effects
C) Memory-enhancing and cognitive-boosting effects
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Anti-anxiety, hypotensive, and diuretic properties - Which bacterium was isolated from ‘handia’ and found to have promising probiotic potential?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Levilactobacillus brevis ILSH3 (H3)
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: C) Levilactobacillus brevis ILSH3 (H3) - What metabolites are produced by Levilactobacillus brevis?
A) Lactic acid and acetic acid
B) Ethanol and methanol
C) Glucose and fructose
D) Carbon dioxide and water
Answer: A) Lactic acid and acetic acid - What is the function of GABA in mammals?
A) Stimulating appetite
B) Enhancing muscle growth
C) Acting as an inhibitory neurotransmitter
D) Increasing heart rate
Answer: C) Acting as an inhibitory neurotransmitter - What types of genes were identified in the genome of Levilactobacillus brevis ILSH3 (H3)?
A) Pathogenic genes
B) Immunomodulatory genes
C) Genes related to caffeine metabolism
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Immunomodulatory genes - How many distinct genes were identified in the genome of Levilactobacillus brevis ILSH3 (H3)?
A) 15
B) 25
C) 35
D) 45
Answer: B) 25 - What is the role of the identified genes related to low pH conditions?
A) Enhancing taste and flavor
B) Reducing acidity
C) Mitigating adverse effects induced by low pH
D) None of the above
Answer: C) Mitigating adverse effects induced by low pH - What industry could benefit from the presence of GABA in ‘handia’?
A) Automotive
B) Construction
C) Food and pharmaceutical
D) Electronics
Answer: C) Food and pharmaceutical - What makes Levilactobacillus brevis ILSH3 (H3) a promising probiotic candidate?
A) Its ability to cause diseases
B) Its production of harmful toxins
C) Its antimicrobial properties
D) Its resistance to antibiotics
Answer: C) Its antimicrobial properties - What is the primary purpose of the Queqiao-2 satellite launched by the China National Space Administration (CNSA)?
A) Weather monitoring
B) Lunar communications relay
C) Earth observation
D) Satellite imaging
Answer: B) Lunar communications relay - Until when is the Queqiao-2 satellite planned to operate?
A) 2025
B) 2030
C) 2040
D) Indefinitely
Answer: B) 2030 - What is the diameter of the parabolic antenna featured on the Queqiao-2 satellite?
A) 2.5 meters
B) 3.8 meters
C) 4.2 meters
D) 5.0 meters
Answer: C) 4.2 meters - Which lunar mission will the Queqiao-2 satellite support?
A) Chang’e-5
B) Chang’e-6
C) Chang’e-7
D) Chang’e-8
Answer: B) Chang’e-6 - What are the names of the two experimental CubeSats deployed as part of the Queqiao-2 mission?
A) Luna-1 and Luna-2
B) Tiandu-1 and Tiandu-2
C) Chang’e-1 and Chang’e-2
D) Yutu-1 and Yutu-2
Answer: B) Tiandu-1 and Tiandu-2 - Which country reportedly carried out attacks on Israel in response to Israeli airstrikes in Syria?
A) Iraq
B) Syria
C) Iran
D) Lebanon
Answer: C) Iran - When did the attacks on Israel reportedly occur?
A) April 5
B) April 10
C) April 12
D) April 15
Answer: C) April 12 - What amplified concerns following the attacks on Israel by Iran?
A) Potential economic collapse
B) Potential wider conflict in the Middle East
C) Political instability in Europe
D) Humanitarian crisis in Africa
Answer: B) Potential wider conflict in the Middle East - Before the 1979 Islamic Revolution, what was the nature of Iran-Israel relations?
A) Hostile
B) Cordial
C) Indifferent
D) Non-existent
Answer: B) Cordial - What changed Iran’s stance towards Israel after the 1979 Islamic Revolution?
A) Increased trade relations
B) Adoption of anti-Israel stance
C) Mutual defense pact
D) Establishment of diplomatic ties
Answer: B) Adoption of anti-Israel stance - Which organization in Lebanon receives support from Iran and opposes Israel?
A) ISIS
B) Al-Qaeda
C) Hezbollah
D) Hamas
Answer: C) Hezbollah - What impact does the conflict between Iran and Israel have on India’s oil supplies?
A) No impact
B) Decreased prices
C) Increased prices
D) Stable prices
Answer: C) Increased prices - How much of India’s oil supplies come from the West Asia region?
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Answer: D) 80% - What could be the potential impact of the Iran-Israel conflict on India’s strategic ties with major Arab countries?
A) Strengthening
B) No impact
C) Weakening
D) Indifference
Answer: C) Weakening - What percentage of India’s oil supplies does it rely on from the West Asia region?
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Answer: D) 80% - Which country is India’s strong ally in the West Asia region?
A) Iran
B) Israel
C) Saudi Arabia
D) Turkey
Answer: C) Saudi Arabia - What is the primary impact of the Iran-Israel conflict on India’s economy?
A) Economic growth
B) Stability
C) Inflation
D) Deflation
Answer: C) Inflation - What is the primary concern of the international community regarding the Iran-Israel conflict?
A) Economic collapse
B) Humanitarian crisis
C) Wider regional conflict
D) Political instability
Answer: C) Wider regional conflict - What type of attacks have been exchanged between Iran and Israel?
A) Nuclear attacks
B) Cyberattacks
C) Economic attacks
D) Diplomatic attacks
Answer: B) Cyberattacks - What is the primary reason for Israel viewing Iran’s nuclear program as a threat?
A) Economic competition
B) Territorial expansion
C) Religious differences
D) Threat to its existence
Answer: D) Threat to its existence - What is the primary purpose of ISRO’s PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM) in the PSLV-C58/XPoSat mission?
A) Solar energy harvesting
B) Debris mitigation
C) Telecommunication
D) Navigation and control
Answer: B) Debris mitigation - Which space agency initiated the ‘Zero Debris charter’ with the aim of achieving zero space debris by 2030?
A) NASA
B) ESA
C) ISRO
D) JAXA
Answer: B) ESA - What technology does ISRO’s POEM utilize for navigation and control?
A) GPS
B) NavIC satellite constellation
C) GLONASS
D) BeiDou
Answer: B) NavIC satellite constellation - What is the significance of Operation Meghdoot launched by the Indian Army in 1984?
A) It marked the first landing of an IAF helicopter on the Siachen Glacier.
B) It aimed to secure the strategically crucial region dominating Northern Ladakh.
C) It established state-of-the-art medical infrastructure on the Siachen Glacier.
D) It initiated advancements in the supply chain for personnel stationed at forward posts.
Answer: B) It aimed to secure the strategically crucial region dominating Northern Ladakh. - Which of the following is NOT a component of POEM’s navigation, guidance, and control (NGC) system?
A) Sun sensors
B) Magnetometer
C) Radar
D) Gyroscopes
Answer: C) Radar - What is the primary aim of the Space Debris Mitigation Guidelines 2002 endorsed by the U.N.?
A) To encourage intentional destruction of space debris
B) To limit the impact of space debris on the geosynchronous orbit
C) To discourage the presence of spacecraft in low Earth orbit
D) To increase the number of objects placed in space
Answer: B) To limit the impact of space debris on the geosynchronous orbit - What does the CRD2 project initiated by Japan aim to achieve?
A) Achieve zero space debris by 2030
B) Develop technologies for tracking and removing existing debris
C) Improve connectivity in remote regions
D) Secure the Siachen Glacier
Answer: B) Develop technologies for tracking and removing existing debris - Which organization developed the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM)?
A) Indian Army
B) Indian Air Force
C) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
D) European Space Agency
Answer: C) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre - What notable achievement did the Indian Army commemorate regarding the Siachen Glacier?
A) 40 years of Operation Meghdoot
B) Successful landing of an IAF helicopter
C) Implementation of heavy-lift helicopters
D) Establishment of telemedicine nodes
Answer: A) 40 years of Operation Meghdoot - Which country’s space agency initiated the Orbital Debris Program in 1979?
A) India
B) United States
C) Russia
D) China
Answer: B) United States - What technology does POEM utilize for ground station communication?
A) Telecommunication towers
B) Satellite communication
C) Radio waves
D) Telecommand system
Answer: D) Telecommand system - What is the primary focus of NASA’s Orbital Debris Program?
A) Launching satellites
B) Tracking asteroids
C) Reducing orbital debris
D) Studying black holes
Answer: C) Reducing orbital debris - What technology does POEM use for power generation?
A) Nuclear energy
B) Solar panels
C) Wind turbines
D) Hydroelectric power
Answer: B) Solar panels - What is the main concern associated with LEO debris?
A) Impact on geosynchronous orbit
B) Collisions with operational satellites
C) Interference with radio signals
D) Disruption of GPS systems
Answer: B) Collisions with operational satellites - Which region did Operation Meghdoot aim to secure?
A) Southern Ladakh
B) Siachen Glacier
C) Himalayan foothills
D) Kargil sector
Answer: B) Siachen Glacier - What is the significance of ISRO’s NavIC satellite constellation for POEM?
A) It provides weather forecasts
B) It facilitates navigation and control
C) It studies space debris
D) It communicates with ground stations
Answer: B) It facilitates navigation and control - Which agency endorsed the Space Debris Mitigation Guidelines 2002?
A) NASA
B) European Space Agency
C) Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee
D) United Nations
Answer: C) Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee - What is the aim of ISRO’s POEM with regard to space debris?
A) Intentional creation of space debris
B) Removal of existing space debris
C) Mitigation of space debris
D) Increase in space debris
Answer: C) Mitigation of space debris - What technology does POEM utilize for orientation and stability?
A) Solar sails
B) Helium control thrusters
C) Rocket engines
D) Parachutes
Answer: B) Helium control thrusters - What aspect of ISRO’s POEM contributes to its innovative design?
A) Use of conventional rocket fuel
B) Integration of telecommunication towers
C) Mounting solar panels on the rocket’s fourth stage
D) Deployment of weather monitoring instruments
Answer: C) Mounting solar panels on the rocket’s fourth stage - What is the main objective of decorating polling booths with tribal paintings in Gajapati district, Odisha?
A) To promote tourism in tribal areas
B) To celebrate tribal culture and engage tribal communities in the democratic process
C) To attract more voters from urban areas
D) To showcase the artistic skills of the local artisans
Answer: B) To celebrate tribal culture and engage tribal communities in the democratic process - Which vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) in Odisha is specifically targeted by the initiative of decorating polling booths with tribal paintings?
A) Santhal
B) Souras
C) Dongria Kondh
D) Gonds
Answer: B) Souras - What is the specialty of the Sora community regarding their cultural practices?
A) They are known for their expertise in pottery
B) They excel in weaving traditional textiles
C) They adorn their homes and villages with murals during festivals and ceremonies
D) They are skilled in traditional dance forms
Answer: C) They adorn their homes and villages with murals during festivals and ceremonies - Which region is predominantly inhabited by the Sora community in India?
A) Southern Tamil Nadu
B) Northern Uttar Pradesh
C) Southern Odisha and north coastal Andhra Pradesh
D) Western Rajasthan
Answer: C) Southern Odisha and north coastal Andhra Pradesh - What is the significance of the AUS service introduced by AIIMS-Bhubaneswar?
A) It aims to provide free healthcare services to all residents of Odisha
B) It is a new initiative to promote medical tourism in Odisha
C) It provides advanced treatment for patients suffering from severe urinary incontinence
D) It focuses on research in the field of artificial intelligence in healthcare
Answer: C) It provides advanced treatment for patients suffering from severe urinary incontinence - Which patients are the primary target for the AUS implantation procedure?
A) Those with dental issues
B) Those with respiratory disorders
C) Those with urinary incontinence not responding to traditional therapies
D) Those with cardiac problems
Answer: C) Those with urinary incontinence not responding to traditional therapies - What is the main reason behind the renovation of ponds and ditches in the Bhitarkanika forest block?
A) To enhance the aesthetic appeal of the forest
B) To provide a better habitat for fish species
C) To ensure an adequate water supply for hoofed animals and wild boars
D) To facilitate water sports activities for tourists
Answer: C) To ensure an adequate water supply for hoofed animals and wild boars - Which organization has implemented measures to protect wildlife in Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature)
B) UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization)
C) Forest Department
D) Greenpeace
Answer: C) Forest Department - What is the significance of Dangamal Crocodile Research Centre in Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) It serves as a rehabilitation center for injured crocodiles
B) It is a research facility studying crocodile behavior
C) It houses a hatchery for crocodile eggs
D) It is a tourist attraction showcasing different crocodile species
Answer: C) It houses a hatchery for crocodile eggs - Which river does not contribute to the network of creeks and canals in Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) Brahmani
B) Baitarani
C) Mahanadi
D) Dhamra
Answer: C) Mahanadi - Which mangrove ecosystem is the largest in India after the Sunderbans?
A) Chilika Lake
B) Bhitarkanika National Park
C) Sundarbans
D) Rann of Kutch
Answer: B) Bhitarkanika National Park - What is the Ramsar site status of Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) It was designated as a Ramsar site on September 16, 1998
B) It received Ramsar site status in August 2002
C) It is yet to be recognized as a Ramsar site
D) It lost its Ramsar site status in 2005
Answer: B) It received Ramsar site status in August 2002 - What type of ecosystem characterizes Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) Desert
B) Rainforest
C) Mangrove
D) Alpine
Answer: C) Mangrove - Which species of crocodile is renowned in Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) Nile Crocodile
B) American Crocodile
C) Saltwater Crocodile
D) Gharial
Answer: C) Saltwater Crocodile - What is the unique feature of Gahirmatha Beach in Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) It hosts a large population of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles
B) It is a popular destination for beach sports
C) It has the highest lighthouse in India
D) It is known for its black sand beaches
Answer: A) It hosts a large population of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles - Which of the following animals is not found in Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) Monkeys
B) Tigers
C) Jackals
D) Jungle Cats
Answer: B) Tigers - What is the primary reason for implementing measures to protect wildlife in Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) To boost ecotourism in the region
B) To preserve the biodiversity of the park
C) To facilitate hunting activities for locals
D) To create a controlled environment for wildlife photography
Answer: B) To preserve the biodiversity of the park - Which river forms the eastern boundary of Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) Brahmani
B) Baitarani
C) Dhamra
D) Patasala
Answer: C) Dhamra - What is the size of Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) 100 square kilometers
B) 200 square kilometers
C) 145 square kilometers
D) 300 square kilometers
Answer: C) 145 square kilometers - What is the main focus of the initiative to protect wildlife from threats in Bhitarkanika National Park?
A) Protection from landslides
B) Preservation of cultural heritage sites
C) Mitigation of heatwaves, poaching, and fires
D) Conservation of archaeological sites
Answer: C) Mitigation of heatwaves, poaching, and fires - What is the primary objective of the Green Credit Programme (GCP)?
a) Encouraging deforestation
b) Promoting industrial growth
c) Investing in afforestation projects for green credits
d) Reducing environmental regulations
Answer: c) Investing in afforestation projects for green credits - Who coordinates the Green Credit Programme (GCP)?
a) Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
b) Ministry of Finance
c) Ministry of Agriculture
d) Ministry of Environment
Answer: d) Ministry of Environment - How are trees evaluated under the Green Credit Programme (GCP)?
a) Every planted tree is evaluated after one year
b) Trees are evaluated by the Ministry of Agriculture
c) Trees are evaluated by the ICFRE after two years
d) Trees are evaluated based on their height
Answer: c) Trees are evaluated by the ICFRE after two years - What can ‘green credits’ obtained under the GCP be used for?
a) Selling in the international market
b) Complying with forest laws and reporting under environmental norms
c) Trading on domestic stock exchanges
d) Investing in industrial projects
Answer: b) Complying with forest laws and reporting under environmental norms - Which sector of companies have shown interest in investing in the Green Credit Programme (GCP)?
a) Agriculture
b) Information Technology
c) Public sector
d) Healthcare
Answer: c) Public sector - What is the significance of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) in the GCP?
a) It evaluates planted trees
b) It issues guidelines for forest restoration
c) It coordinates the programme
d) It provides financial support
Answer: a) It evaluates planted trees - What change did the Ministry introduce regarding the minimum number of trees per hectare for reforestation?
a) Increased to 1,200 trees
b) Reduced to 1,000 trees
c) Left it to states to specify
d) Maintained at 1,100 trees
Answer: c) Left it to states to specify - What type of seedlings would be given preference under the GCP?
a) Hybrid species
b) Exotic species
c) Indigenous species
d) Non-fruit bearing species
Answer: c) Indigenous species - What is the aim of the Green Credit Programme regarding market-based mechanisms?
a) To discourage environmental actions
b) To promote government control
c) To incentivize positive environmental actions
d) To restrict afforestation
Answer: c) To incentivize positive environmental actions - What is the proposed future of green credits under the GCP?
a) They will remain non-tradeable
b) They will be traded on international markets
c) They will be made tradable on a domestic market platform
d) They will be abolished
Answer: c) They will be made tradable on a domestic market platform - When were Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) first used in India?
a) 1978
b) 1982
c) 1990
d) 2000
Answer: b) 1982 - What is the primary purpose of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)?
a) To complicate the voting process
b) To slow down the tallying of election results
c) To streamline the voting process
d) To make the voting process less accurate
Answer: c) To streamline the voting process - Which two units typically comprise an Electronic Voting Machine (EVM)?
a) Control unit and voter unit
b) Control unit and tally unit
c) Voting unit and counting unit
d) Control unit and balloting unit
Answer: d) Control unit and balloting unit - When was Voter-Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) first introduced in India?
a) 2009
b) 2014
c) 2019
d) 2020
Answer: b) 2014 - What does VVPAT stand for?
a) Verified Voter Paper Audit Trail
b) Validated Vote Paper Audit Trail
c) Voter-Verified Paper Audit Trail
d) Verified Vote Paper Authorization Trail
Answer: c) Voter-Verified Paper Audit Trail - What does VVPAT provide to voters?
a) A digital record of their vote
b) A physical printout of their vote
c) A digital verification code
d) A ballot paper to fill manually
Answer: b) A physical printout of their vote - Which tribunal expressed concerns about the presence of ‘forever chemicals’ in Chennai waterbodies?
a) Supreme Court
b) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
c) High Court of Chennai
d) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
Answer: b) National Green Tribunal (NGT) - What is the colloquial term used to refer to per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS)?
a) Everlasting substances
b) Persistent pollutants
c) Forever chemicals
d) Eternal compounds
Answer: c) Forever chemicals - What adverse health effects are associated with PFAS?
a) Hair growth
b) Liver damage
c) Weight loss
d) Improved immune system
Answer: b) Liver damage - What is the main concern regarding PFAS in Chennai waterbodies?
a) Presence of radioactive substances
b) Persistent flooding
c) Chemical contamination
d) Excessive algae growth
Answer: c) Chemical contamination - How many randomly selected polling booths currently undergo EVM-VVPAT cross-verification in a constituency?
a) Three
b) Five
c) Ten
d) Fifteen
Answer: b) Five - What is the significance of PFAS in terms of environmental degradation?
a) They degrade rapidly in the environment
b) They have no impact on the environment
c) They persist in the environment indefinitely
d) They are only present in remote areas
Answer: c) They persist in the environment indefinitely - In which Indian city did the study on PFAS contamination take place?
a) Mumbai
b) Delhi
c) Chennai
d) Kolkata
Answer: c) Chennai - What type of substances are PFAS?
a) Naturally occurring
b) Synthetic
c) Radioactive
d) Biodegradable
Answer: b) Synthetic - Which Indian state was the first to use Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs)?
a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Maharashtra
d) Gujarat
Answer: a) Kerala - How do voters interact with the balloting unit of an Electronic Voting Machine (EVM)?
a) By pressing buttons corresponding to their chosen candidates
b) By inserting a paper ballot into the machine
c) By speaking their vote aloud to an election official
d) By scanning a QR code on their voter ID card
Answer: a) By pressing buttons corresponding to their chosen candidates - What does the acronym PFAS stand for?
a) Polyfluoroalkyl solvents
b) Perfluoroalkyl substances
c) Persistent fluorine agents
d) Polyfluoroalkyl solutions
Answer: b) Perfluoroalkyl substances - What tribunal expressed concerns about the chemical contamination in Chennai water bodies?
a) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
b) International Court of Justice (ICJ)
c) Supreme Court of India
d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Answer: a) National Green Tribunal (NGT) - In which year were Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) first used in a by-election in India?
a) 1980
b) 1982
c) 1984
d) 1986
Answer: b) 1982 - What is the primary purpose of Voter-Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)?
a) To record votes electronically
b) To provide a physical printout of the voter’s ballot
c) To slow down the voting process
d) To increase the chance of tampering with votes
Answer: b) To provide a physical printout of the voter’s ballot
