Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of Weekly Current affairs.
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- When was NATO established?
A) 1945
B) 1949
C) 1955
D) 1961
Answer: B) 1949 - Which country recently joined NATO, becoming the 32nd member?
A) Russia
B) Sweden
C) Ukraine
D) Finland
Answer: B) Sweden - What major global risk does the World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report 2024 highlight?
A) Cyberattacks
B) Interstate armed conflict
C) Natural disasters
D) Economic recession
Answer: B) Interstate armed conflict - What triggered Sweden’s decision to join NATO?
A) Economic instability
B) Russia’s invasion of Ukraine
C) Climate change
D) Political unrest
Answer: B) Russia’s invasion of Ukraine - Which organization identified 188 glacial lakes in the Himalayan states that could potentially breach due to heavy rainfall?
A) United Nations
B) World Bank
C) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
D) International Red Cross
Answer: C) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) - What event led to the formation of NATO in 1949?
A) World War I
B) World War II
C) Cold War tensions
D) Vietnam War
Answer: C) Cold War tensions - What is the primary cause of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs)?
A) Earthquakes
B) Volcanic eruptions
C) Glacier melting
D) Heavy rainfall
Answer: C) Glacier melting - How many glacial lakes in Uttarakhand are categorized as highly sensitive (‘A’ category)?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 13
D) 20
Answer: A) 5 - Which district in Uttarakhand houses the highly sensitive Vasudhara Tal?
A) Chamoli
B) Pithoragarh
C) Rudraprayag
D) Almora
Answer: A) Chamoli - What is the primary concern of the Uttarakhand government regarding glacial lakes?
A) Soil erosion
B) Landslides
C) Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs)
D) Water scarcity
Answer: C) Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) - What has been the impact of recent GLOF events in Uttarakhand?
A) Economic growth
B) Loss of life and livelihoods
C) Increase in tourism
D) Infrastructure development
Answer: B) Loss of life and livelihoods - How many glacial lakes have been categorized in Uttarakhand based on risk levels?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 13
D) 20
Answer: C) 13 - What is the primary driver behind the increase in GLOF events in the Himalayan region?
A) Deforestation
B) Urbanization
C) Global warming
D) Geological activities
Answer: C) Global warming - Which country faces the risk of GLOFs along with India?
A) China
B) Nepal
C) Bhutan
D) Pakistan
Answer: D) Pakistan - What is the elevation range of the highly sensitive glacial lakes in Uttarakhand?
A) 2,000 to 3,000 meters
B) 3,000 to 4,000 meters
C) 4,000 to 5,000 meters
D) 5,000 to 6,000 meters
Answer: C) 4,000 to 5,000 meters - What does NATO’s open-door policy entail?
A) Free trade agreements
B) Commitment to defense spending
C) Non-intervention policy
D) Environmental protection initiatives
Answer: B) Commitment to defense spending - How many rounds of enlargement has NATO undergone?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) Several
Answer: D) Several - What event triggered Sweden’s decision to abandon its neutrality policy and join NATO?
A) Russian annexation of Crimea
B) US invasion of Iraq
C) Syrian civil war
D) China’s rise as a global superpower
Answer: A) Russian annexation of Crimea - Which report underscores the importance of NATO’s role in maintaining peace and security?
A) United Nations Development Report
B) World Health Organization’s Global Health Report
C) World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report
D) International Monetary Fund’s World Economic Outlook
Answer: C) World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report - How does NATO respond to European countries willing to join?
A) By closing its doors to prevent further expansion
B) By imposing economic sanctions
C) By maintaining an open-door policy
D) By promoting isolationist policies
Answer: C) By maintaining an open-door policy - What does the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958, govern?
A) Protection of flora and fauna in archaeological sites
B) Preservation of ancient monuments and archaeological sites
C) Regulation of tourist activities near archaeological sites
D) Promotion of industrial development in protected areas
Answer: B) Preservation of ancient monuments and archaeological sites - When was the Choudwar fort site declared Centrally protected?
A) 1958
B) 1937
C) 1965
D) 1942
Answer: B) 1937 - How many acres of land does the Choudwar fort site span across?
A) 1,200 acres
B) 1,350 acres
C) 1,450 acres
D) 1,600 acres
Answer: C) 1,450 acres - Who built the Choudwar fortress?
A) Chola dynasty
B) Gupta dynasty
C) Ganga dynasty
D) Maurya dynasty
Answer: C) Ganga dynasty - Which temple remains exist on the Choudwar fort site?
A) Kedaresvara temple
B) Laxman temple
C) Vishnu temple
D) Durga temple
Answer: A) Kedaresvara temple - Whose permission is required for excavation on protected land governed by the AMASR Act?
A) Local municipality
B) State government
C) Central government
D) Private landowners
Answer: C) Central government - In which district is the Choudwar fort located?
A) Puri
B) Cuttack
C) Bhubaneswar
D) Sambalpur
Answer: B) Cuttack - What is the current economy of Odisha according to the provided information?
A) USD 1.8 trillion
B) USD 937 billion
C) USD 93.7 billion
D) USD 937 million
Answer: C) USD 93.7 billion - By which year is Odisha unlikely to achieve its target of becoming a one trillion dollar economy?
A) 2030
B) 2040
C) 2050
D) 2047
Answer: A) 2030 - According to the report by India Ratings and Research (IRR), which states are expected to achieve a one trillion dollar economy by 2039?
A) Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Gujarat
B) Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh
C) Madhya Pradesh and Telangana
D) Andhra Pradesh and Kerala
Answer: A) Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Gujarat - Who has been appointed as the Chief Administrator of Shree Jagannath Temple Administration (SJTA) in Odisha’s Puri?
A) Ranjan Kumar Das
B) Vir Vikram Yadav
C) A 2007-Batch IAS officer
D) A 1996-Batch IAS officer
Answer: B) Vir Vikram Yadav - In which department did Ranjan Kumar Das previously serve as Special Secretary?
A) Law Department
B) Tourism Department
C) Culture Department
D) Odia Language, Literature, and Culture Department
Answer: D) Odia Language, Literature, and Culture Department - Which batch of IAS officer is Vir Vikram Yadav?
A) 1996
B) 2007
C) 2010
D) 2015
Answer: A) 1996 - When did Ranjan Kumar Das assume charge as Chief Administrator of SJTA?
A) April last year
B) May last year
C) June last year
D) July last year
Answer: B) May last year - What is the primary responsibility of the ASI?
A) Managing industrial development projects
B) Administering economic growth targets
C) Preserving ancient monuments and archaeological sites
D) Implementing tourism policies
Answer: C) Preserving ancient monuments and archaeological sites - What is the consequence of violating the AMASR Act, 1958?
A) Heavy fines
B) Imprisonment
C) Suspension of industrial activities
D) Legal action by the Central government
Answer: D) Legal action by the Central government - Which river flows beside the Choudwar fort site?
A) Godavari
B) Yamuna
C) Birupa
D) Kaveri
Answer: C) Birupa - How many forts were built by Chodagangadeva of the Ganga dynasty?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
Answer: C) Five - What is the rank of Odisha’s economy among sub-national economies according to the provided information?
A) 10th
B) 13th
C) 15th
D) 18th
Answer: B) 13th - What is the per capita income of Odisha according to the provided information?
A) USD 1,807
B) USD 2,500
C) USD 1,200
D) USD 2,000
Answer: A) USD 1,807 - What does CDP-SURAKSHA stand for?
A) Cluster Development Programme – Secure Resource Allocation, Knowledge, and Horticulture Assistance
B) Cluster Development Programme – System for Unified Resource Allocation, Knowledge, and Secure Horticulture Assistance
C) Crop Development Programme – Secure Unified Resource Allocation, Knowledge, and Horticulture Assistance
D) Crop Development Programme – System for Unified Resource Allocation, Knowledge, and Secure Horticulture Assistance
Answer: B) Cluster Development Programme – System for Unified Resource Allocation, Knowledge, and Secure Horticulture Assistance - How does CDP-SURAKSHA facilitate subsidy disbursal to farmers?
A) Through physical vouchers distributed at local government offices
B) Via direct bank transfers using e-RUPI vouchers
C) Through cash payments made at designated agricultural centers
D) By providing discount coupons for agricultural equipment purchases
Answer: B) Via direct bank transfers using e-RUPI vouchers - Which organization facilitates transactions through the e-RUPI vouchers for CDP-SURAKSHA?
A) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
B) World Bank
C) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
D) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Answer: C) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) - What is the main purpose of e-RUPI vouchers?
A) To provide discounts on online shopping platforms
B) To facilitate one-time subsidy payments without requiring digital banking access
C) To serve as a universal currency for international trade
D) To track agricultural produce prices in real-time
Answer: B) To facilitate one-time subsidy payments without requiring digital banking access - How many horticulture clusters are identified under the CDP, according to the information provided?
A) 12
B) 55
C) 9
D) 10
Answer: B) 55 - What is the expected coverage of horticulture clusters under the CDP initiative?
A) 1 lakh hectares
B) 10 lakh hectares
C) 9 lakh hectares
D) 5 lakh hectares
Answer: C) 9 lakh hectares - How many farmers are expected to benefit from the CDP initiative?
A) 8,250
B) 10,000
C) 1 lakh
D) 10 lakh
Answer: D) 10 lakh - What is the approximate private investment expected to be attracted by the CDP initiative?
A) Rs 8,250 crore
B) Rs 10 crore
C) Rs 1 lakh crore
D) Rs 100 crore
Answer: A) Rs 8,250 crore - How many clusters have been selected for the pilot phase of the CDP initiative?
A) 12
B) 55
C) 9
D) 10
Answer: A) 12 - What is the Suvidha Portal?
A) A platform for horticulture farmers to access subsidies
B) An online portal for political parties and candidates to submit permission requests
C) A weather forecasting website for agricultural purposes
D) A marketplace for agricultural equipment
Answer: B) An online portal for political parties and candidates to submit permission requests - Who manages the Suvidha Portal across state departments?
A) Local elected representatives
B) Political party volunteers
C) Nodal officers
D) Farmers’ associations
Answer: C) Nodal officers - What platforms is the Suvidha Portal companion app available on?
A) Android only
B) iOS only
C) Both Android and iOS
D) Windows Mobile
Answer: C) Both Android and iOS - What aspect of the Suvidha Portal promotes transparency?
A) Real-time tracking of applications
B) Offline submission options
C) Timestamped submissions
D) Both A and C
Answer: D) Both A and C - How many applications has the Suvidha Portal received since the announcement of General Elections 2024?
A) Over 10,000
B) Over 50,000
C) Over 100,000
D) Over 73,000
Answer: D) Over 73,000 - What is the main objective of the Election Commission concerning the Suvidha Portal?
A) To restrict access to permissions and clearances
B) To facilitate a fair, efficient, and transparent electoral environment
C) To delay the processing of permission requests
D) To favor certain political parties over others
Answer: B) To facilitate a fair, efficient, and transparent electoral environment - Which feature of the Suvidha Portal enables real-time tracking of request status?
A) SMS notifications
B) Timestamped submissions
C) Offline submission options
D) Companion app
Answer: D) Companion app - What is the purpose of the Suvidha Portal’s offline submission options?
A) To provide faster processing of permission requests
B) To exclude certain political parties from the electoral process
C) To facilitate inclusivity
D) To limit the number of permission requests
Answer: C) To facilitate inclusivity - Who benefits from the transparency provided by the Suvidha Portal?
A) Only the Election Commission
B) Only political parties
C) Only candidates
D) Both political parties and candidates
Answer: D) Both political parties and candidates - How does the Suvidha Portal align with the Election Commission’s commitment?
A) By limiting access to permissions and clearances
B) By promoting inefficiency in the electoral process
C) By ensuring equal access to permissions and clearances for all parties and candidates
D) By favoring specific political parties over others
Answer: C) By ensuring equal access to permissions and clearances for all parties and candidates - When is National Safe Motherhood Day observed annually in India?
a) April 11th
b) March 8th
c) May 1st
d) June 5th
Answer: a) April 11th - What organization established National Safe Motherhood Day in India?
a) WHO (World Health Organization)
b) UNICEF (United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund)
c) WRAI (White Ribbon Alliance India)
d) UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization)
Answer: c) WRAI (White Ribbon Alliance India) - What is the primary aim of National Safe Motherhood Day?
a) To celebrate motherhood
b) To improve access to quality maternal healthcare services
c) To promote family planning
d) To raise awareness about child nutrition
Answer: b) To improve access to quality maternal healthcare services - Which year was National Safe Motherhood Day established?
a) 1990
b) 2000
c) 2003
d) 2010
Answer: c) 2003 - What is the theme of National Safe Motherhood Day in 2024?
a) “Stay Safe, Stay Healthy”
b) “Protect Mother and Infant Amid Coronavirus”
c) “Healthy Pregnancy, Healthy Future”
d) “Maternal Health Matters”
Answer: b) “Protect Mother and Infant Amid Coronavirus” - Which day is celebrated annually on April 12th?
a) International Women’s Day
b) International Day of Human Space Flight
c) World Health Day
d) International Day of the Girl Child
Answer: b) International Day of Human Space Flight - Who was the first human to travel to space?
a) Neil Armstrong
b) Buzz Aldrin
c) Yuri Gagarin
d) John Glenn
Answer: c) Yuri Gagarin - When did Yuri Gagarin make the first human space flight?
a) 1957
b) 1961
c) 1969
d) 1972
Answer: b) 1961 - When was the International Day of Human Space Flight proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly?
a) April 7th, 1959
b) April 7th, 1961
c) April 7th, 2011
d) April 7th, 1990
Answer: c) April 7th, 2011 - What does the International Day of Human Space Flight celebrate?
a) The first successful moon landing
b) The first human space flight
c) The launch of the International Space Station
d) The discovery of water on Mars
Answer: b) The first human space flight - What does the theme for the International Day of Human Space Flight 2024 encourage?
a) Preservation of space environments
b) Scientific curiosity
c) Space tourism
d) Space colonization
Answer: b) Scientific curiosity - What is the primary focus of National Safe Motherhood Day?
a) Child nutrition
b) Maternal health
c) Family planning
d) Early childhood education
Answer: b) Maternal health - Which organization initiated the establishment of National Safe Motherhood Day?
a) WHO
b) UNICEF
c) WRAI
d) UNESCO
Answer: c) WRAI - Which day marks the anniversary of the first human space flight?
a) April 11th
b) April 12th
c) May 1st
d) June 5th
Answer: b) April 12th - What is the theme of the International Day of Human Space Flight?
a) Encourage scientific curiosity
b) Explore the universe
c) Reach for the stars
d) Embrace space exploration
Answer: a) Encourage scientific curiosity - Which organization proclaimed the International Day of Human Space Flight?
a) NASA
b) ESA (European Space Agency)
c) UN
d) SpaceX
Answer: c) UN - What does National Safe Motherhood Day raise awareness about?
a) Child education
b) Maternal health
c) Elderly care
d) Mental health
Answer: b) Maternal health - Who was the first human to travel to space?
a) Neil Armstrong
b) Buzz Aldrin
c) Yuri Gagarin
d) John Glenn
Answer: c) Yuri Gagarin - What is the primary goal of National Safe Motherhood Day?
a) To raise awareness about child mortality
b) To improve maternal healthcare
c) To promote breastfeeding
d) To empower women economically
Answer: b) To improve maternal healthcare - What is the significance of the International Day of Human Space Flight?
a) It commemorates the first human to land on Mars
b) It celebrates the achievements in space exploration
c) It marks the anniversary of the launch of the Hubble Space Telescope
d) It honors the astronauts who lost their lives in space missions
Answer: b) It celebrates the achievements in space exploration - What is the total capacity of the renewable energy plant being developed by Adani Green Energy Limited in Khavda, Kutch, Gujarat?
A) 20 GW
B) 30 GW
C) 40 GW
D) 50 GW
Answer: B) 30 GW - What is the primary source of energy generated during the morning at the Khavda project site?
A) Wind energy
B) Solar energy
C) Hydroelectric energy
D) Geothermal energy
Answer: B) Solar energy - How many operational megawatts (MW) of solar energy does the Khavda project currently have?
A) 1,000 MW
B) 1,500 MW
C) 2,000 MW
D) 2,500 MW
Answer: C) 2,000 MW - When did the Khavda project achieve its first production?
A) December 2022
B) January 2023
C) December 2023
D) January 2024
Answer: C) December 2023 - How many gigawatts (GW) of additional power production does Adani Green Energy Limited aim to achieve by March 2025 at the Khavda project site?
A) 2 GW
B) 4 GW
C) 6 GW
D) 8 GW
Answer: B) 4 GW - What is the total number of solar panels Adani Green Energy Limited aims to install at the Khavda project site by 2029?
A) 1 cr 50 lakh
B) 5 cr 50 lakh
C) 7 cr 50 lakh
D) 9 cr 50 lakh
Answer: C) 7 cr 50 lakh - By what year does the company aim to produce 45,000 MW of energy from the Khavda project?
A) 2025
B) 2028
C) 2030
D) 2035
Answer: C) 2030 - Approximately how many tonnes of CO2 emissions is India expected to avoid annually due to the Khavda project?
A) 28 million tonnes
B) 48 million tonnes
C) 58 million tonnes
D) 78 million tonnes
Answer: C) 58 million tonnes - Besides Gujarat, which other Indian state hosts a significant portion of the renewable energy project?
A) Maharashtra
B) Rajasthan
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Karnataka
Answer: B) Rajasthan - Which international event played a significant role in catalyzing the formation of frameworks for addressing climate change, as mentioned in the text?
A) Paris Agreement
B) Kyoto Protocol
C) Rio Summit of 1992
D) Copenhagen Summit
Answer: C) Rio Summit of 1992 - What is the primary driver of climate change, according to the text?
A) Overpopulation in developing nations
B) Unsustainable practices in developed nations
C) Industrialization in emerging economies
D) Deforestation in tropical regions
Answer: B) Unsustainable practices in developed nations - How does India’s population density compare with its landmass, according to the text?
A) It is very high
B) It is very low
C) It is moderate
D) It is average
Answer: B) It is very low - How much of the world’s geographical land surface area does India account for?
A) 1.4%
B) 2.4%
C) 3.4%
D) 4.4%
Answer: B) 2.4% - India is one of the how many mega-biodiverse countries in the world?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 17
Answer: D) 17 - What is the human to land ratio in India?
A) 0.001 sq km
B) 0.0021 sq km
C) 0.003 sq km
D) 0.004 sq km
Answer: B) 0.0021 sq km - How many biodiversity hotspots does India have?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer: B) 4 - Which of the following is NOT a determinant of India’s climate policy, as mentioned in the text?
A) Geography
B) Population dynamics
C) Economic growth
D) Strategic actions
Answer: C) Economic growth - What percentage of the world’s freshwater resources does India possess?
A) 2%
B) 3%
C) 4%
D) 5%
answer: C) 4% - Which of the following terms best describes India’s climate policy, as discussed in the conclusion?
A) Unilateral
B) Multifaceted
C) Isolationist
D) Reactive
Answer: B) Multifaceted - According to the text, what is India’s response to the challenges posed by climate change rooted in?
A) Inequality and competition
B) Equity and collective responsibility
C) Individualism and self-interest
D) Isolationism and protectionism
Answer: B) Equity and collective responsibility - Where is Mount Etna located?
a) Mainland Italy
b) Sicily
c) Sardinia
d) Corsica
Answer: b) Sicily - Mount Etna is:
a) The highest point in Italy
b) The highest point in Europe
c) The highest point in Italy south of the Alps
d) The highest point in the Mediterranean region
Answer: c) The highest point in Italy south of the Alps - How many craters does Mount Etna have at its summit?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
Answer: c) Five - When was Mount Etna designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site?
a) 2005
b) 2010
c) 2013
d) 2018
Answer: c) 2013 - What are volcanic vortex rings primarily composed of?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water vapor
c) Sulfur dioxide
d) Methane
Answer: b) Water vapor - When were volcanic vortex rings first documented at Mount Etna and Vesuvius?
a) 1624
b) 1724
c) 1824
d) 1924
Answer: b) 1724 - Who stated, “No volcano on Earth produces as many vapor rings as Etna”?
a) Boris Johnson
b) Boris Yeltsin
c) Boris Behncke
d) Boris Gromov
Answer: c) Boris Behncke - What led to the production of numerous steam rings at Mount Etna recently?
a) A new type of lava
b) A new vent opening on the northeastern edge of the Southeast Crater
c) An increase in volcanic activity
d) Earthquakes in the region
Answer: b) A new vent opening on the northeastern edge of the Southeast Crater - What is the primary cause of volcanic vortex rings?
a) Earthquakes
b) Tectonic plate movement
c) Rapid release of gas through a vent
d) Underground magma movement
Answer: c) Rapid release of gas through a vent - When was the World Cybercrime Index (WCI) established?
a) 2005
b) 2010
c) 2015
d) 2020
Answer: c) 2015 - Which two entities collaborated to create the World Cybercrime Index?
a) Harvard University and Oxford University
b) University of Oxford and UNSW Canberra
c) MIT and Stanford University
d) University of Cambridge and Harvard University
Answer: b) University of Oxford and UNSW Canberra - Which countries top the list of cybercrime hotspots?
a) China and Russia
b) Russia and Ukraine
c) United States and China
d) United States and Ukraine
Answer: b) Russia and Ukraine - How many countries are identified as hubs for cybercrime by at least one expert?
a) 50
b) 75
c) 97
d) 120
Answer: c) 97 - Which country is ranked 10th overall in the World Cybercrime Index?
a) China
b) Russia
c) India
d) United States
Answer: c) India - What is the estimated cost of cybercrime projected for 2024?
a) $5.36 trillion
b) $7.91 trillion
c) $9.22 trillion
d) $11.55 trillion
Answer: c) $9.22 trillion - What is the expected cost of cybercrime by 2028?
a) $10.65 trillion
b) $11.83 trillion
c) $13.22 trillion
d) $13.82 trillion
Answer: d) $13.82 trillion - Which country is often linked with data and identity theft in the context of cybercrime?
a) China
b) Russia
c) United States
d) Nigeria
Answer: c) United States - Which country is associated with technical products or services in the context of cybercrime?
a) China
b) Russia
c) Romania
d) Ukraine
Answer: a) China - How many vents contribute to “flank” eruptions of Mount Etna?
a) Over 100
b) Over 200
c) Over 300
d) Over 400
Answer: c) Over 300 - How far back does Mount Etna’s documented eruptive history date?
a) 100,000 years
b) 250,000 years
c) 500,000 years
d) 1 million years
Answer: c) 500,000 years - What is the name of the famous temple in Odisha’s Sambalpur district where the consumption of tobacco and betel will be banned?
A) Lingaraj Temple
B) Jagannath Temple
C) Maa Samaleswari Temple
D) Sun Temple
Answer: C) Maa Samaleswari Temple - Who adopted Goddess Samaleswari as the deity of Sambalpur in 1542 AD?
A) Chouhan King Balaram Dev
B) Emperor Ashoka
C) Raja Rani
D) King Purusottama Deva
Answer: A) Chouhan King Balaram Dev - What title did King Balaram Dev bestow upon Goddess Samaleswari?
A) Devi Maa
B) Ista Devi
C) Durga Devi
D) Kali Devi
Answer: B) Ista Devi - What role did King Balaram Dev play in establishing the cult of Goddess Samaleswari?
A) He ignored her existence
B) He was indifferent to her cult
C) He played a pivotal role in establishing her cult
D) He actively opposed her worship
Answer: C) He played a pivotal role in establishing her cult - What are the chief priests of the Samaleswari Temple descendants of?
A) Mughal dynasty
B) Chouhan dynasty
C) Gupta dynasty
D) Maratha dynasty
Answer: B) Chouhan dynasty - Besides tribal influences, what other elements are incorporated into the rituals of the Samaleswari Temple?
A) Buddhist influences
B) Jain influences
C) Tantra influences
D) Confucian influences
Answer: C) Tantra influences - On specific days, what kinds of offerings does the goddess receive at the Samaleswari Temple?
A) Only vegetarian offerings
B) Only non-vegetarian offerings
C) Both vegetarian and non-vegetarian offerings
D) Monetary offerings
Answer: C) Both vegetarian and non-vegetarian offerings - On what date was the foundation for Bhubaneswar, India’s first planned capital city, laid?
A) April 1
B) April 13
C) May 5
D) June 10
Answer: B) April 13 - Who laid the foundation for Bhubaneswar?
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Subhas Chandra Bose
D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: B) Jawaharlal Nehru - What was Bhubaneswar known for when its foundation was laid?
A) Skyscrapers
B) Banyan trees
C) Lakes
D) Mountains
Answer: B) Banyan trees - What city planning principles focused on walkability for women and children and a grid-shaped layout in Bhubaneswar?
A) Paris
B) New York
C) Barcelona
D) Tokyo
Answer: C) Barcelona - Which event enhanced Bhubaneswar’s global image by hosting it?
A) FIFA World Cup
B) Champions Trophy Hockey
C) Olympic Games
D) Commonwealth Games
Answer: B) Champions Trophy Hockey - When did Bhubaneswar’s airport receive international status?
A) 2000
B) 2005
C) 2010
D) 2013
Answer: D) 2013 - What is a current challenge faced by Bhubaneswar according to the provided information?
A) Lack of skilled workforce
B) Environmental degradation
C) Excessive rainfall
D) Overpopulation
Answer: B) Environmental degradation - What type of connectivity was improved when Bhubaneswar’s airport received international status?
A) Road connectivity
B) Rail connectivity
C) Sea connectivity
D) Air connectivity
Answer: D) Air connectivity - Which event emphasized the need for Bhubaneswar to balance development with preserving its heritage and environment?
A) Asian Athletics Meet
B) FIFA World Cup
C) Commonwealth Games
D) Indian Premier League (IPL)
Answer: A) Asian Athletics Meet - What is crucial for Bhubaneswar to integrate with its current smart city initiatives?
A) Past planning ideals
B) Religious festivals
C) Industrial zones
D) Entertainment parks
Answer: A) Past planning ideals - What is the concern regarding Bhubaneswar’s rapid urbanization?
A) Loss of public spaces
B) Decrease in pollution
C) Increase in green spaces
D) Improvement in infrastructure
Answer: A) Loss of public spaces - What is one characteristic that describes Bhubaneswar’s current state, despite its challenges?
A) Deserted streets
B) Congested roads
C) Abundant public parks
D) Low population density
Answer: B) Congested roads - What is the aim of Bhubaneswar in terms of its global status?
A) To become a regional hub
B) To become a ghost town
C) To become a global city
D) To become a rural retreat
Answer: C) To become a global city - Which rivers in southern Odisha are currently without water, as per data from the Central Water Commission?
A) Rushikulya, Bahuda, Vamsadhara, and Nagavali
B) Brahmaputra, Ganges, Yamuna, and Godavari
C) Kaveri, Tungabhadra, Krishna, and Narmada
D) Tapti, Sabarmati, Luni, and Mahi
Answer: A) Rushikulya, Bahuda, Vamsadhara, and Nagavali - What is the main reason attributed to the lack of water in the rivers of southern Odisha?
A) Excessive rainfall
B) Groundwater replenishment
C) Reduced monsoon rainfall and catchment degradation
D) Increased irrigation practices
Answer: C) Reduced monsoon rainfall and catchment degradation - Who suggested adopting micro-irrigation systems and changing cropping patterns in the Mahanadi river basin to reduce water deficit?
A) Nitin Bassi
B) Guru Nanak Dev
C) Mahatma Gandhi
D) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
Answer: A) Nitin Bassi - According to data from April 4, what is the storage situation of east-flowing rivers between Mahanadi and Pennar this year compared to the ten-year average?
A) 100% higher
B) 50% higher
C) 100% lower
D) 12% lower
Answer: C) 100% lower - International Turban Day is observed annually on which date?
A) April 13th
B) May 1st
C) June 5th
D) July 4th
Answer: A) April 13th - What is the primary purpose of International Turban Day?
A) To celebrate Sikh festivals
B) To promote the use of turbans in fashion
C) To educate about Sikh heritage and combat prejudice
D) To raise funds for Sikh charities
Answer: C) To educate about Sikh heritage and combat prejudice - What does the turban represent for Sikhs?
A) Fashion statement
B) Commitment, self-respect, and spiritual purity
C) Political affiliation
D) Cultural assimilation
Answer: B) Commitment, self-respect, and spiritual purity - When was the first International Turban Day celebrated?
A) 1947
B) 2004
C) 1984
D) 1999
Answer: B) 2004 - Which Sikh Guru’s birth anniversary is celebrated alongside International Turban Day in 2024?
A) Guru Nanak Dev
B) Guru Gobind Singh
C) Guru Tegh Bahadur
D) Guru Angad Dev
Answer: A) Guru Nanak Dev - What festival coincides with the 2024 International Turban Day?
A) Diwali
B) Holi
C) Baisakhi
D) Eid
Answer: C) Baisakhi - How many years of Guru Nanak Dev’s birth anniversary are celebrated in 2024?
A) 100th
B) 500th
C) 555th
D) 50th
Answer: C) 555th
