Odia govt jobs   »   weekly current affairs March 2024 current...

Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | April 1st Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

Download ADDA247 Odia APP – Appear Latest Exam Test Series & Live Classes

  1. When is Utkal Divas celebrated annually?
    a) March 1st
    b) April 1st
    c) May 1st
    d) June 1st
    Answer: b) April 1st
  2. What event does Utkal Divas commemorate?
    a) Formation of India
    b) Formation of Odisha
    c) Independence Day
    d) Republic Day
    Answer: b) Formation of Odisha
  3. What was Odisha known as in ancient times?
    a) Orissa
    b) Kalinga
    c) Bengal
    d) Bihar Answer: b) Kalinga
  4. Who is credited with establishing Odisha’s reputation as a center of art, architecture, and sculpture?
    a) Ashoka
    b) Kharavela
    c) Madhusudan Das
    d) Gopabandhu Das
    Answer: b) Kharavela
  5. What was the state initially called before being officially renamed Odisha?
    a) Orissa
    b) Bengal
    c) Bihar
    d) Kalinga
    Answer: a) Orissa
  6. Who played pivotal roles in the movement for Odisha’s autonomy?
    a) Mahatma Gandhi
    b) Utkala Gouraba, Madhusudan Das, and Gopabandhu Das
    c) Jawaharlal Nehru
    d) Subhas Chandra Bose
    Answer: b) Utkala Gouraba, Madhusudan Das, and Gopabandhu Das
  7. Which presidency was Odisha part of under British rule?
    a) Bombay
    b) Bengal
    c) Madras
    d) Delhi
    Answer: b) Bengal
  8. What year did Odisha officially become a separate province?
    a) 1936
    b) 1947
    c) 1950
    d) 1962
    Answer: a) 1936
  9. What is Utkal Divas also known as?
    a) Odisha Independence Day
    b) Odisha Formation Day
    c) Vishuva Milan
    d) All of the above
    Answer: d) All of the above
  10. Who was the ruler of Odisha during the Kalinga War?
    a) Ashoka
    b) Chandragupta Maurya
    c) Kharavela
    d) Harsha Vardhana
    Answer: a) Ashoka
  11. Where does the Rushikulya River originate from?
    A) Rushimal hill in Ganjam district
    B) Rushimal hill in Kandhamal district
    C) Puruna Bandha in Ganjam district
    D) Daringbadi in Kandhamal district
    Answer: D) Daringbadi in Kandhamal district
  12. Which district in Odisha is often referred to as the ‘Kashmir of Odisha’?
    A) Ganjam
    B) Kandhamal
    C) Aska
    D) Purusottampur
    Answer: B) Kandhamal
  13. What is the significance of the ‘Baruni Snan’ ceremony?
    A) It marks the onset of summer in Ganjam district.
    B) It is a ritual where residents of Aska take a dip in the Rushikulya River.
    C) It celebrates the merging of Rushikulya River with the Bay of Bengal.
    D) It commemorates the origin of Rushikulya River.
    Answer: B) It is a ritual where residents of Aska take a dip in the Rushikulya River.
  14. Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the Rushikulya River?
    A) Baghua
    B) Dhanei
    C) Badanadi
    D) Mahanadi
    Answer: D) Mahanadi
  15. What has been identified as the primary reason behind the drying up of Rushikulya River?
    A) Excessive industrial pollution
    B) Deforestation along its banks
    C) Scanty rainfall and rising temperatures
    D) Dam construction upstream
    Answer: C) Scanty rainfall and rising temperatures
  16. What is the theme for the Blindness Prevention Week observed annually in India?
    A) “Seeing Clearly for a Brighter Future”
    B) “Vision 2020: Achieving Eye Health for All”
    C) “Taking timely treatments for age-related eye conditions”
    D) “Eyesight Matters: Preserve, Protect, Prevent”
    Answer: C) “Taking timely treatments for age-related eye conditions”
  17. What is the aim of Blindness Prevention Week in India?
    A) To provide free eyeglasses to the underprivileged
    B) To raise awareness about preventable causes of blindness
    C) To perform eye surgeries for cataracts
    D) To promote cosmetic eye surgeries
    Answer: B) To raise awareness about preventable causes of blindness
  18. How many forest fire incidents were reported in Odisha by the end of March?
    A) 4,525
    B) 957
    C) 3,572
    D) 1,792
    Answer: A) 4,525
  19. Which organization reported the surge in forest fires in Odisha?
    A) World Health Organization (WHO)
    B) Forest Survey of India (FSI)
    C) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
    D) Odisha Forest Department
    Answer: B) Forest Survey of India (FSI)
  20. What percentage of forest fire points were detected in Odisha in March alone?
    A) 50%
    B) 25%
    C) 75%
    D) 10%
    Answer: A) 50%
  21. When is Blindness Prevention Week observed annually?
    A) March 15th to 21st
    B) April 1st to 7th
    C) May 1st to 7th
    D) June 15th to 21st
    Answer: B) April 1st to 7th
  22. Which district in Odisha experiences a surge in forest fires due to rising temperatures?
    A) Aska
    B) Purusottampur
    C) Kandhamal
    D) Ganjam
    Answer: C) Kandhamal
  23. What event draws concerns due to the drying up of the Rushikulya River?
    A) Rushikulya Mahotsav
    B) Baruni Snan
    C) Bay of Bengal Festival
    D) Ganjam Water Carnival
    Answer: B) Baruni Snan
  24. What is the primary source of the Rushikulya River’s water?
    A) Snowmelt from Himalayas
    B) Underground springs
    C) Monsoon rains
    D) Glacial meltwater
    Answer: C) Monsoon rains
  25. How many forest fire points were identified in Odisha between March 25 and 31?
    A) 4,525
    B) 1,792
    C) 3,572
    D) 957
    Answer: B) 1,792
  26. Which week in India focuses on raising awareness about eye health?
    A) National Eye Care Week
    B) Vision Awareness Week
    C) World Sight Week
    D) Blindness Prevention Week
    Answer: D) Blindness Prevention Week
  27. Where does the Rushikulya River merge with the Bay of Bengal?
    A) Aska
    B) Purusottampur
    C) Daringbadi
    D) Puruna Bandha
    Answer: D) Puruna Bandha
  28. Which district in Odisha is known as the ‘Kashmir of Odisha’?
    A) Aska
    B) Ganjam
    C) Kandhamal
    D) Purusottampur
    Answer: C) Kandhamal
  29. What is the primary aim of the ‘Baruni Snan’ ceremony?
    A) To commemorate the origin of the Rushikulya River
    B) To mark the onset of summer in Ganjam district
    C) To celebrate the merging of Rushikulya River with the Bay of Bengal
    D) To perform a ritual dip in the Rushikulya River
    Answer: D) To perform a ritual dip in the Rushikulya River
  30. What is the primary reason behind the surge in forest fires in Odisha?
    A) Heavy rainfall
    B) Rising temperatures
    C) Reduction in industrial activities
    D) Increased forest cover
    Answer: B) Rising temperatures
  31. What is the significance of Stage-2, named Kalam-250, in the recent test firing by Skyroot Aerospace?
    A) It marks the completion of the Vikram-1 space launch vehicle.
    B) It propels the launch vehicle from the atmospheric phase to outer space.
    C) It is the first stage of the Vikram-1 rocket.
    D) It is equipped with liquid-fuel engines for final orbit adjustments.
    Answer: B) It propels the launch vehicle from the atmospheric phase to outer space.
  32. What material is used for the construction of Kalam-250’s rocket motor?
    A) Aluminum alloy
    B) Stainless steel
    C) High-strength carbon composite
    D) Titanium
    Answer: C) High-strength carbon composite
  33. Which company processed the solid propellant for Kalam-250?
    A) Skyroot Aerospace
    B) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
    C) Solar Industries
    D) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
    Answer: C) Solar Industries
  34. What type of Thermal Protection System (TPS) does Kalam-250 feature?
    A) Silicon carbide tiles
    B) Aluminum foil
    C) Ethylene-Propylene-Diene terpolymers (EPDM)
    D) Ceramic coating
    Answer: C) Ethylene-Propylene-Diene terpolymers (EPDM)
  35. What is the role of the carbon ablative flex nozzle in Kalam-250?
    A) To regulate the flow of liquid fuel
    B) To protect the rocket motor from overheating
    C) To provide structural support
    D) To control thrust vector and trajectory adjustments
    Answer: D) To control thrust vector and trajectory adjustments
  36. Which rocket in the series is Vikram I?
    A) Second rocket
    B) Third rocket
    C) First rocket
    D) Fourth rocket
    Answer: C) First rocket
  37. What are the final stage engines of Vikram I powered by?
    A) Solid fuels
    B) Liquid fuels (MMH and NTO)
    C) Hybrid fuels
    D) Nuclear power
    Answer: B) Liquid fuels (MMH and NTO)
  38. What is the maximum payload capacity of Vikram I to a 500 km Sun synchronous polar orbit (SSPO)?
    A) 290 kg
    B) 480 kg
    C) 500 kg
    D) 600 kg
    Answer: A) 290 kg
  39. Why does NASA monitor celestial objects like Asteroid 2015 MB54?
    A) To study their composition
    B) To predict their future trajectories
    C) To protect Earth from potential impacts
    D) All of the above
    Answer: C) To protect Earth from potential impacts
  40. According to NASA’s criteria, what size of asteroids is considered potentially hazardous?
    A) Larger than 100 meters
    B) Larger than 200 meters
    C) Larger than 150 meters
    D) Larger than 50 meters
    Answer: C) Larger than 150 meters
  41. Where are asteroids primarily located within the solar system?
    A) Between Earth and Venus
    B) Between Mars and Jupiter
    C) Between Jupiter and Saturn
    D) Between Saturn and Uranus
    Answer: B) Between Mars and Jupiter
  42. What is the approximate total count of asteroids in the main asteroid belt?
    A) 100,000
    B) 500,000
    C) 1,000,000
    D) 1,351,400
    Answer: D) 1,351,400
  43. What is the largest asteroid mentioned in the passage?
    A) Ceres
    B) Vesta
    C) Pallas
    D) Eros
    Answer: B) Vesta
  44. What is the approximate diameter of Vesta?
    A) 100 kilometers
    B) 250 kilometers
    C) 530 kilometers
    D) 800 kilometers
    Answer: C) 530 kilometers
  45. What is the primary reason for the highly elliptical orbits of asteroids?
    A) Gravitational influence from nearby planets
    B) Solar wind
    C) Collision with other celestial objects
    D) Magnetic fields of the Sun
    Answer: A) Gravitational influence from nearby planets
  46. What is the combined mass of all asteroids compared to Earth’s Moon?
    A) Greater than the Moon
    B) Approximately equal to the Moon
    C) Less than the Moon
    D) Cannot be determined
    Answer: C) Less than the Moon
  47. What is the primary method used by NASA to reassure the public regarding potentially hazardous asteroids?
    A) Public announcements
    B) Close monitoring and trajectory predictions
    C) Diverting the asteroid’s path
    D) Sending spacecraft to intercept the asteroid
    Answer: B) Close monitoring and trajectory predictions
  48. Which company processed the solid propellant for Kalam-250?
    A) Skyroot Aerospace
    B) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
    C) Solar Industries
    D) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
    Answer: C) Solar Industries
  49. Which rocket is designed to lift payloads of up to 480 kg to a 500 km low Earth orbit (LEO)?
    A) Vikram I
    B) Vikram II
    C) Vikram III
    D) Vikram IV
    Answer: A) Vikram I
  50. What is the role of Raman engines in the Vikram I rocket?
    A) They power the first stage
    B) They are used for final orbit adjustments
    C) They control the trajectory during atmospheric phase
    D) They are responsible for payload deployment
    Answer: B) They are used for final orbit adjustments
  51. What is the proposed modification to the Saffir-Simpson (SS) wind scale based on the recent research paper?
    A) Linking category 5 to peak wind speeds ranging between 252 and 309 km/hour
    B) Adding a new category 6 for wind speeds exceeding 309 km/hour
    C) Linking category 4 to peak wind speeds ranging between 252 and 309 km/hour
    D) Removing category 5 from the scale entirely
    Answer: A) Linking category 5 to peak wind speeds ranging between 252 and 309 km/hour
  52. Which natural hazards are not considered in the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale?
    A) Storm surge and tornadoes
    B) Rainfall flooding and storm surge
    C) Tornadoes and rainfall flooding
    D) None of the above
    Answer: B) Rainfall flooding and storm surge
  53. What is the term used interchangeably with tropical cyclones depending on the region?
    A) Tornadoes
    B) Earthquakes
    C) Typhoons
    D) Floods
    Answer: C) Typhoons
  54. What is Hume AI known for in the realm of conversational AI?
    A) It’s the first AI to generate conversations for emotional well-being
    B) It’s the first AI to generate conversations with voice tonality
    C) It’s the first AI to generate conversations based on user frustrations
    D) It’s the first AI to generate conversations for financial advice
    Answer: A) It’s the first AI to generate conversations for emotional well-being
  55. How many categories are there in the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale?
    A) 3
    B) 4
    C) 5
    D) 6
    Answer: C) 5
  56. Which of the following is NOT an emotion that Hume AI can emulate?
    A) Admiration
    B) Frustration
    C) Confusion
    D) Adoration
    Answer: C) Confusion
  57. What aspect of human conversations does Hume AI emphasize to understand different emotions?
    A) Facial expressions
    B) Voice tonality
    C) Hand gestures
    D) Written text
    Answer: B) Voice tonality
  58. Where is Hume AI based?
    A) London
    B) New York
    C) Silicon Valley
    D) Tokyo
    Answer: B) New York
  59. What is the maximum category on the proposed modified Saffir-Simpson (SS) wind scale?
    A) Category 5
    B) Category 6
    C) Category 7
    D) Category 4
    Answer: B) Category 6
  60. What is the primary factor considered in the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale?
    A) Storm surge
    B) Rainfall flooding
    C) Maximum sustained wind speed
    D) Tornado intensity
    Answer: C) Maximum sustained wind speed
  61. What is the potential application of Hume AI in healthcare?
    A) Providing financial advice
    B) Generating conversations for emotional well-being
    C) Assisting in surgery
    D) Monitoring patient heart rates
    Answer: B) Generating conversations for emotional well-being
  62. Which startup launched Hume AI?
    A) Hume Technologies
    B) New York AI
    C) Hume AI
    D) Hume Solutions
    Answer: C) Hume AI
  63. What is the second-most dangerous natural hazard after earthquakes?
    A) Tornadoes
    B) Tropical cyclones
    C) Storm surges
    D) Wildfires
    Answer: B) Tropical cyclones
  64. How many emotions can Hume AI emulate?
    A) 15
    B) 20
    C) 23
    D) 25
    Answer: C) 23
  65. Which scale is used for rating hurricanes based on maximum sustained wind speed?
    A) Fujita Scale
    B) Beaufort Scale
    C) Richter Scale
    D) Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale
    Answer: D) Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale
  66. What is the proposed wind speed range for category 6 on the modified Saffir-Simpson wind scale?
    A) 252 to 309 km/hour
    B) 200 to 251 km/hour
    C) 310 to 349 km/hour
    D) 350 km/hour and above
    Answer: C) 310 to 349 km/hour
  67. What type of oceans do tropical cyclones typically form over?
    A) Arctic
    B) Tropical
    C) Atlantic
    D) Indian
    Answer: B) Tropical
  68. What is the primary focus of Hume AI’s conversational abilities?
    A) Understanding sarcasm
    B) Analyzing written text
    C) Emphasizing voice tonality
    D) Processing images
    Answer: C) Emphasizing voice tonality
  69. What industry sectors could potentially benefit from Hume AI’s technology?
    A) Finance and banking
    B) Retail and sales
    C) Robotics, healthcare, and wellness
    D) Travel and tourism
    Answer: C) Robotics, healthcare, and wellness
  70. How are tropical cyclones known in the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific regions?
    A) Hurricanes
    B) Typhoons
    C) Cyclones
    D) Monsoons
    Answer: A) Hurricanes
  71. Which of the following hazards is NOT explicitly considered in the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale?
    A) Storm surge
    B) Rainfall flooding
    C) Tornadoes
    D) Lightning
    Answer: D) Lightning
  72. How does Hume AI differ from traditional AI?
    A) It focuses on analyzing facial expressions
    B) It emphasizes the tones of voice behind words
    C) It uses written text as the primary input
    D) It has limited emotional understanding
    Answer: B) It emphasizes the tones of voice behind words
  73. What is the maximum wind speed for category 6 on the proposed modified Saffir-Simpson wind scale?
    A) 200 to 251 km/hour
    B) 252 to 309 km/hour
    C) 310 to 349 km/hour
    D) 350 km/hour and above
    Answer: C) 310 to 349 km/hour
  74. What is the term for the maximum sustained wind speed of a hurricane?
    A) Gust speed
    B) Tornado speed
    C) Cyclone speed
    D) Sustained wind speed
    Answer: D) Sustained wind speed
  75. What type of AI assistants could potentially benefit from Hume’s emotional intelligence?
    A) AI assistants for financial planning
    B) AI assistants for educational purposes
    C) AI assistants for emotional support
    D) AI assistants for weather forecasting
    Answer: C) AI assistants for emotional support
  76. In 2023-24, how much freight did the East Coast Railway (ECoR) load, setting a new record?
    a) 200 million tons
    b) 256.22 million tons
    c) 300 million tons
    d) 150 million tons
    Answer: b) 256.22 million tons
  77. Which of the following zones became the first to surpass 200 million tons of freight loading for the fifth consecutive time?
    a) South Coast Railway
    b) East Coast Railway (ECoR)
    c) Western Railway
    d) North East Frontier Railway
    Answer: b) East Coast Railway (ECoR)
  78. What are the major contributors to ECoR’s freight loading achievement?
    a) Oil refineries and gas plants
    b) Textile industries in Gujarat
    c) Coalfields, ports, iron ore mines, steel & aluminum companies
    d) Automobile manufacturing units
    Answer: c) Coalfields, ports, iron ore mines, steel & aluminum companies
  79. In 2024, which animal group is designated as the focus of the International Year by the UN?
    a) Felines
    b) Canines
    c) Camelids
    d) Equines
    Answer: c) Camelids
  80. Which of the following animals is NOT part of the camelid group?
    a) Camels
    b) Llamas
    c) Elephants
    d) Alpacas
    Answer: c) Elephants
  81. Who proposed the resolution for the International Year of Camelids at the UN General Assembly?
    a) Bolivia
    b) Ecuador
    c) FAO
    d) GRULAC
    Answer: a) Bolivia
  82. When was the resolution for the International Year of Camelids proposed at the UN General Assembly?
    a) 17 October 2017
    b) 4 December 2023
    c) 5–10 January 2024
    d) September 2023
    Answer: a) 17 October 2017
  83. Which organization presented the resolution for the International Year of Camelids at the UN General Assembly?
    a) FAO
    b) GRULAC
    c) UNICEF
    d) WHO
    Answer: b) GRULAC
  84. When was the visual identity of the International Year of Camelids unveiled?
    a) September 2023
    b) 17 October 2017
    c) 4 December 2023
    d) January 2024
    Answer: a) September 2023
  85. Where was the FAO Conference on Sustainable Livestock Transformation held?
    a) Paris, France
    b) Rome, Italy
    c) New York, USA
    d) Geneva, Switzerland
    Answer: b) Rome, Italy
  86. What was the first international event of the International Year of Camelids 2024?
    a) International Conference on Camelids in Peru
    b) International Workshop on Camelid Pastoralism in India
    c) World Camel Congress in Bolivia
    d) Global Summit on Camelid Conservation in Ecuador
    Answer: b) International Workshop on Camelid Pastoralism in India
  87. Which organization hosted the International Workshop on Camelid Pastoralism in Sadri, Rajasthan, India?
    a) FAO
    b) Lokhit Pashu-Palak Sansthan (LPPS)
    c) United Nations
    d) League for Pastoral Peoples (LPP)
    Answer: b) Lokhit Pashu-Palak Sansthan (LPPS)
  88. Which country chaired the Group of Latin American and Caribbean Countries (GRULAC)?
    a) Bolivia
    b) Ecuador
    c) Brazil
    d) Argentina
    Answer: b) Ecuador
  89. On which date did FAO officially launch the International Year of Camelids 2024?
    a) 17 October 2017
    b) 4 December 2023
    c) 5–10 January 2024
    d) September 2023
    Answer: b) 4 December 2023
  90. What is the aim of the International Year of Camelids?
    a) To promote camel racing
    b) To raise awareness about the role of camelids in ecosystem protection and food security
    c) To encourage camel hunting
    d) To establish camel sanctuaries
    Answer: b) To raise awareness about the role of camelids in ecosystem protection and food security
  91. Which of the following is NOT a role of camelids mentioned in the key points?
    a) Ecosystem protection
    b) Biodiversity conservation
    c) Climate change acceleration
    d) Food security
    Answer: c) Climate change acceleration
  92. What was the title of the side event where the visual identity of the International Year of Camelids was unveiled?
    a) FAO Conference on Sustainable Livestock Transformation
    b) UN General Assembly Session on Biodiversity
    c) International Workshop on Camelid Pastoralism
    d) Towards the International Year of Camelids: perspectives and challenges
    Answer: d) Towards the International Year of Camelids: perspectives and challenges
  93. Who officially approved the resolution for the International Year of Camelids?
    a) UN General Assembly
    b) FAO
    c) GRULAC
    d) WHO
    Answer: a) UN General Assembly
  94. Where was the first international event of the International Year of Camelids held?
    a) Rome, Italy
    b) Sadri, Rajasthan, India
    c) New York, USA
    d) La Paz, Bolivia
    Answer: b) Sadri, Rajasthan, India
  95. What organization hosted the International Workshop on Camelid Pastoralism?
    a) FAO
    b) Lokhit Pashu-Palak Sansthan (LPPS)
    c) League for Pastoral Peoples (LPP)
    d) United Nations
    Answer: b) Lokhit Pashu-Palak Sansthan (LPPS)
  96. Which country presented the resolution for the International Year of Camelids?
    a) Bolivia
    b) Ecuador
    c) Peru
    d) Argentina
    Answer: a) Bolivia
  97. When did the FAO officially launch the International Year of Camelids?
    a) September 2023
    b) 17 October 2017
    c) 4 December 2023
    d) January 2024
    Answer: c) 4 December 2023
  98. What is the theme of the International Year of Camelids?
    a) Harnessing the Power of Camels
    b) Celebrating the Diversity of Camelids
    c) Camels: Guardians of the Earth
    d) Sustaining Camelid Cultures
    Answer: c) Camels: Guardians of the Earth
  99. Which region of India hosted the first international event of the International Year of Camelids?
    a) Punjab
    b) Rajasthan
    c) Maharashtra
    d) Gujarat
    Answer: b) Rajasthan
  100. Which organization was the Country Chair of the Group of Latin American and Caribbean Countries (GRULAC)?
    a) Brazil
    b) Ecuador
    c) Bolivia
    d) Argentina
    Answer: b) Ecuador
  101. What recent change is the government set to implement regarding birth registration?
    a) Including parents’ occupation in birth certificates
    b) Requiring parents to declare their religion separately
    c) Introducing a new vaccination record section
    d) Removing the requirement for gender identification
    Answer: b) Requiring parents to declare their religion separately
  102. Which ministry outlined the Model Rules for the updated birth registration process?
    a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
    b) Ministry of Home Affairs
    c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
    d) Ministry of External Affairs
    Answer: b) Ministry of Home Affairs
  103. When was the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023, passed by Parliament?
    a) August 11, 2022
    b) August 11, 2023
    c) August 11, 2024
    d) August 11, 2025
    Answer: b) August 11, 2023
  104. What is the primary purpose of the national birth and death database mandated by the amendment act?
    a) Updating electoral rolls
    b) Issuing passports
    c) Updating various records including the National Population Register
    d) Managing property registrations
    Answer: c) Updating various records including the National Population Register
  105. Which platform must be used for digital registration of births and deaths as per the new law?
    a) crsorgi.gov.in
    b) pmindia.gov.in
    c) uidai.gov.in
    d) passportindia.gov.in
    Answer: a) crsorgi.gov.in
  106. What index reached a 16-year high in March 2024, indicating strong performance in India’s manufacturing sector?
    a) GDP Growth Index
    b) Manufacturing Performance Index
    c) Consumer Confidence Index
    d) Purchasing Managers’ Index
    Answer: d) Purchasing Managers’ Index
  107. What does PMI stand for?
    a) Productivity Management Indicator
    b) Purchasing Managers’ Index
    c) Production Metrics Index
    d) Performance Monitoring Indicator
    Answer: b) Purchasing Managers’ Index
  108. What does a PMI indicate?
    a) Trends in the stock market
    b) Trends in manufacturing output
    c) Trends in agricultural productivity
    d) Trends in retail sales
    Answer: b) Trends in manufacturing output
  109. What is the reason behind the Earth’s slowing rotation according to a recent study?
    a) Increased solar activity
    b) Climate change
    c) Plate tectonics
    d) Magnetic pole shift
    Answer: b) Climate change
  110. What are leap seconds used for in Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)?
    a) To synchronize with atomic clocks
    b) To adjust for daylight saving time
    c) To align with lunar phases
    d) To compensate for solar eclipses
    Answer: a) To synchronize with atomic clocks 
  111. When were leap seconds first introduced?
    a) 1969
    b) 1972
    c) 1980
    d) 1990
    Answer: b) 1972 
  112. What is the purpose of leap seconds according to the panel of scientists and government representatives?
    a) To ensure accurate weather forecasts
    b) To align official time with atomic clocks
    c) To regulate international flights
    d) To synchronize with GPS satellites
    Answer: b) To align official time with atomic clocks 
  113. When was the decision made to end leap seconds by 2035?
    a) 2010
    b) 2015
    c) 2020
    d) 2022
    Answer: d) 2022 
  114. Who will determine when a negative leap second will be introduced?
    a) International Earth Rotation and Reference Systems Service
    b) United Nations
    c) International Atomic Energy Agency
    d) International Telecommunication Union
    Answer: a) International Earth Rotation and Reference Systems Service 
  115. What does the speculation regarding the need for a negative leap second depend on?
    a) The alignment of planetary orbits
    b) The rotation speed of the Moon
    c) Earth’s rotation continuing at its current rate
    d) Solar flares activity
    Answer: c) Earth’s rotation continuing at its current rate 
  116. What is the current status of leap seconds as of the recent study?
    a) They will continue indefinitely
    b) They will be discontinued by 2035
    c) They will be adjusted based on solar activity
    d) They will be implemented only during leap years
    Answer: b) They will be discontinued by 2035 
  117. What was the HSBC India Manufacturing Purchasing Managers’ Index in February 2024?
    a) 59.1
    b) 56.9
    c) 53.5
    d) 49.8
    Answer: b) 56.9 
  118. What does the March 2024 HSBC India Manufacturing PMI indicate?
    a) A decrease in manufacturing activity
    b) Stable manufacturing output
    c) An increase in manufacturing activity
    d) No change in manufacturing trends
    Answer: c) An increase in manufacturing activity 
  119. Which platform must be used for digital registration of births and deaths as per the new law?
    a) crsorgi.gov.in
    b) pmindia.gov.in
    c) uidai.gov.in
    d) passportindia.gov.in
    Answer: a) crsorgi.gov.in 
  120. What is the purpose of the new “Form No.1-Birth Report”?
    a) To record the family’s annual income
    b) To include the religion of both parents
    c) To track the child’s educational progress
    d) To capture the child’s physical characteristics
    Answer: b) To include the religion of both parents
  121. What is the primary objective of the informatics centre established by the Odisha government?
    A) Enhancing agricultural productivity
    B) Dissemination of water-related information
    C) Improving transportation infrastructure
    D) Promoting tourism development
    Answer: B) Dissemination of water-related information
  122. What type of data will the informatics centre aggregate, curate, and standardize?
    A) Macro-level economic indicators
    B) Micro-level hydro-meteorological data
    C) Population demographics
    D) Political governance metrics
    Answer: B) Micro-level hydro-meteorological data
  123. How will the informatics centre facilitate data access and sharing?
    A) By restricting access to selected stakeholders
    B) Through centralized repository and online platforms
    C) By outsourcing data management to private companies
    D) By limiting data dissemination to physical reports only
    Answer: B) Through centralized repository and online platforms
  124. Which organization will the informatics centre collaborate closely with for data integration efforts?
    A) State Meteorological Department
    B) Central Water Commission
    C) State Hydrological Data Centre (SHDC)
    D) National Disaster Management Authority
    Answer: C) State Hydrological Data Centre (SHDC)
  125. In which state is the new test center being developed by DRDO as an alternative to the Integrated Test Range in Chandipur?
    A) Odisha
    B) West Bengal
    C) Bihar
    D) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: B) West Bengal
  126. What is the name of the location where the new test center is being developed?
    A) Chandipur
    B) Bhubaneswar
    C) Junput
    D) Rajiv Bhawan
    Answer: C) Junput
  127. What is the distance between Junput and Chandipur, where the Integrated Test Range is located?
    A) Approximately 100 kilometers
    B) Approximately 50 kilometers
    C) Approximately 70 kilometers
    D) Approximately 200 kilometers
    Answer: C) Approximately 70 kilometers
  128. Which governmental bodies have approved the development of the Junput test center?
    A) Only the West Bengal government
    B) Only the Central government
    C) Both the Central and West Bengal governments
    D) Only the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    Answer: C) Both the Central and West Bengal governments
  129. What is the purpose of the Junput test center being developed by DRDO?
    A) To conduct agricultural experiments
    B) To facilitate tourism in West Bengal
    C) To serve as an alternative to the Integrated Test Range in Chandipur
    D) To host cultural events and festivals
    Answer: C) To serve as an alternative to the Integrated Test Range in Chandipur
  130. What is the total land area spanned by the Junput test center?
    A) 5.21 acres
    B) 10.56 acres
    C) 8.73 acres
    D) 15.88 acres
    Answer: C) 8.73 acres
  131. When is National Maritime Day celebrated in India?
    a) April 10th
    b) April 5th
    c) March 15th
    d) May 20th
    Answer: b) April 5th 
  132. Where is the largest rookery of Female Olive Ridley Sea Turtles located?
    a) Chennai, India
    b) Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary
    c) Great Barrier Reef, Australia
    d) Galápagos Islands
    Answer: b) Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary 
  133. Which organization collaborated with the Odisha forest department for tagging Female Olive Ridley Sea Turtles?
    a) Greenpeace
    b) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
    c) Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
    d) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
    Answer: c) Wildlife Institute of India (WII) 
  134. What is the purpose of tagging Female Olive Ridley Sea Turtles?
    a) Studying their feeding habits
    b) Tracking their migratory routes
    c) Measuring their shell patterns
    d) Observing their social behaviors
    Answer: b) Tracking their migratory routes 
  135. Which industrialist played a significant role in the maiden voyage of SS Loyalty?
    a) Jamsetji Tata
    b) Dhirubhai Ambani
    c) Seth Walchand Hirachand Doshi
    d) Ratan Tata
    Answer: c) Seth Walchand Hirachand Doshi 
  136. In which year did SS Loyalty set sail on its maiden voyage?
    a) 1905
    b) 1919
    c) 1933
    d) 1950Answer: b) 1919 
  137. What does the tagging of Female Olive Ridley Sea Turtles help study?
    a) Their coloration patterns
    b) Their mating behaviors
    c) Their reproductive biology
    d) Their ability to communicate
    Answer: c) Their reproductive biology 
  138. Which company owned SS Loyalty during its maiden voyage?
    a) Indian Steamship Company
    b) British East India Company
    c) Scindia Steam Navigation Company Ltd.
    d) White Star LineAnswer: c) Scindia Steam Navigation Company Ltd. 
  139. What is the theme for the 2024 National Maritime Day?
    a) “Ocean Conservation: Our Responsibility”
    b) “Exploring New Horizons”
    c) “Navigating the future: safety first!”
    d) “Sailing Towards Sustainability”
    Answer: c) “Navigating the future: safety first!” 
  140. Which sea turtle species returns to lay eggs at Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary?
    a) Loggerhead sea turtles
    b) Green sea turtles
    c) Leatherback sea turtles
    d) Olive Ridley sea turtlesAnswer: d) Olive Ridley sea turtles 
  141. What is the significance of the SS Loyalty’s voyage?
    a) It marked India’s first space exploration mission.
    b) It symbolized India’s independence as a maritime nation.
    c) It initiated the transcontinental railway project.
    d) It was the first expedition to Antarctica by an Indian vessel.
    Answer: b) It symbolized India’s independence as a maritime nation. 
  142. Which month and year did the tagging of Female Olive Ridley Sea Turtles start?
    a) March 2005
    b) May 2012
    c) January 1998
    d) October 2000
    Answer: c) January 1998 
  143. What is the main purpose of celebrating National Maritime Day?
    a) To commemorate a historic naval battle.
    b) To promote maritime tourism.
    c) To honor the contributions of seafarers.
    d) To mark the beginning of monsoon season.
    Answer: c) To honor the contributions of seafarers. 
  144. Which marine sanctuary hosts the golden beach preferred by Female Olive Ridley Sea Turtles?
    a) Great Barrier Reef Marine Park
    b) Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary
    c) Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary
    d) Galápagos Marine Reserve
    Answer: b) Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary 
  145. Who initiated the celebration of National Maritime Day in India?
    a) Indian Navy
    b) Ministry of Shipping
    c) Indian Maritime Foundation
    d) Scindia Steam Navigation Company
    Answer: d) Scindia Steam Navigation Company 
  146. What is the primary objective of tagging Female Olive Ridley Sea Turtles?
    a) Tracking their migration for entertainment purposes.
    b) Studying their reproductive biology and movements.
    c) Decorating them for tourism attractions.
    d) Enhancing their communication abilities.
    Answer: b) Studying their reproductive biology and movements. 
  147. How do Female Olive Ridley Sea Turtles contribute to ecosystem balance?
    a) By hunting large predatory fish.
    b) By consuming excessive algae.
    c) By controlling jellyfish populations.
    d) By feeding on small invertebrates.Answer: c) By controlling jellyfish populations. 
  148. What is the role of the Scindia Steam Navigation Company in Indian maritime history?
    a) It was the first company to use steam-powered ships.
    b) It introduced container shipping to India.
    c) It pioneered commercial air travel in India.
    d) It played a key role in India’s independence as a maritime nation.
    Answer: d) It played a key role in India’s independence as a maritime nation. 
  149. Which of the following is NOT a reason for tagging Female Olive Ridley Sea Turtles?
    a) Studying their growth rates.
    b) Monitoring their nesting preferences.
    c) Enhancing their mating rituals.
    d) Tracking their migratory routes.
    Answer: c) Enhancing their mating rituals. 
  150. What is the purpose of the 2024 National Maritime Day theme, “Navigating the future: safety first!”?
    a) To emphasize the importance of safety measures in maritime operations.
    b) To promote environmental sustainability in shipping practices.
    c) To encourage investments in renewable energy for maritime transportation.
    d) To celebrate advancements in maritime technology.
    Answer: a) To emphasize the importance of safety measures in maritime operations.