ଓଡିଶା ସିଭିଲ ସର୍ଭିସ୍ Prelims GS Mock Paper-I | September 1st Week 2023

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Q1. Consider the following pairs:

Ports Characteristics

1. Kandla : Tidal port
2. Tuticorin : Natural Harbour
3. Kolkata : Inland Riverine port
4. Visakhapatnam : Deepest landlocked port

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 3 only

 

S1.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port developed soon after Independence to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port, in the wake of the loss of Karachi port to Pakistan after the Partition. Kandla is a tidal port. It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belts stretching across the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

• Mumbai is the biggest port with a spacious natural and well-sheltered harbour. The Jawaharlal Nehru port was planned with a view to decongesting the Mumbai port and serve as a hub port for this region. Marmagao port (Goa) is the premier iron ore exporting port of the country. This port accounts for about fifty per cent of India’s iron ore export.
• New Mangalore port, located in Karnataka caters to the export of iron ore concentrates from Kudremukh mines. Kochi is the extreme southwestern port, located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour.
• Moving along the east coast, one would see the extreme south-eastern port of Tuticorin, in Tamil Nadu. This port has a natural harbour and rich hinterland. Thus, it has a flourishing trade handling of a large variety of cargoes to even our neighbouring countries like Sri Lanka, Maldives, etc. and the coastal regions of India. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Visakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port. This port was, originally, conceived as an outlet for iron ore exports. Paradip port located in Odisha specialises in the export of iron ore. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
• Kolkata is an inland riverine port. riverine port. This port serves a very large and rich hinterland of the Ganga- Brahmaputra basin. Being a tidal port, it requires constant dredging of Hoogly. Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

 

Q2. Which among the following is a special feature that distinguishes a pressure group from a political party?

1. Parties take political stances, while pressure groups do not bother about political issues.
2. Pressure groups are always confined to a few people, while parties involve a larger number of people.
3. Pressure groups do not seek to get into power, while political parties do.
4. Pressure groups do not seek to mobilise people, while political parties do.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 3 and 4 only

 

S2.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer

A pressure group is a group of people who are organised actively for promoting and defending their common interest.

Option 3 is correct. Pressure groups are organisations that attempt to influence government policies. But unlike political parties, pressure groups do not aim to directly control or share political power. Promoting the interests of a group of society or interests of particular sections of society is the usual aim of Pressure or interest groups. Professional associations of teachers, doctors, lawyers; business associations, trade unions are some examples of Pressure or interest groups.

Option 1 is incorrect. Pressure groups do bother about political issues which may affect them. Option 2 is incorrect. Some Pressure groups are confined to a few people, but some groups are very big like farmer associations. Option 4 is incorrect. Pressure groups seek to mobilise people to effectively influence the government.

 

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding genetic modification:

1. It offers solutions to abiotic stresses like drought and floods.
2. It allows different species of plants to be combined to increase the yields.
3. India has no regulatory protocols for field trials of GM crops.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S3.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 is correct: Genetic engineering technology has opened up new avenues of molecular breeding. However, their potential undesirable impacts will have to be kept in view. Genetic modification is the technology of choice for solving abiotic problems like drought flood, salinity, etc. It may not be equally effective in the case of biotic stresses since new strains of pests and diseases arise all the time.

Statement 2 is correct: Genetic modification allows different parents to be combined easily, helping yields go up substantially. The herbicide glyphosate is only used for selection of hybrids and is not meant for farmer fields. Bangladesh has used India’s data to successfully cultivate Bt brinjal.

Statement 3 is incorrect: GM crops have reduced pesticide use, increased yields and profits, and cause no health hazards. India has one of the strongest regulatory protocols for field trials of GM crops. GM technology needs to be evaluated on a case- by-case basis. There is definitely scope for improvement in terms of technology and regulatory protocols. But it is time to deregulate the Bt gene and lift the embargo on Bt brinjal.

 

Q4. Cortisol, is an essential hormone produced by which of the following gland:

(a) Pituitary gland

(b) Parathyroid

(c) Adrenal glands

(d) Pancreas

 

S4.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option (c) is correct: The adrenal glands are two small glands that sit on top of the kidneys. They produce essential hormones: cortisol, aldosterone and adrenaline.

 

Q5. With reference to the Finance Commission, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. Recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature.

2. The central finance commission suggests measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the municipalities in the state.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S5.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Option c is the correct answer Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the president of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.

Statement 1 is correct. Recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.

Statement 2 is correct. The central finance commission shall also suggest the measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the municipalities in the state (on the basis of the recommendations made by the finance commission of the state).

 

Q6. These soils develop in areas with high temperatures and high rainfall. They are poor in organic matter but rich in iron oxide and aluminium compounds due to leaching. They are reddish to yellow in colour. The above description suits which of the soils given below?

(a) Laterite Soil

(b) Red and Yellow Soil

(c) Forest Soil

(d) Saline Soil

 

S6.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means brick. The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperatures and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminum compounds are left behind. Laterite soil is reddish to yellow in colour. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature. These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashewnut. Laterite soils are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction. These soils have mainly developed in the higher areas of the Peninsular plateau. The laterite soils are commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam.

 

Q7. Consider the following statements :

1. A Member of the Parliament can take oath in his mother tongue.
2. The President of India has the power to give official recognition to a language within a state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S7.Ans.(b)

Sol.

According to Article 99 of the Indian constitution, every member of either House of Parliament shall make and subscribe to an oath before the President or some person appointed on that behalf by the President, who is called the Protem speaker. The Oath or affirmation is made according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule. Currently, the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha allow members to take oath in English and 22 other Indian languages as specified in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. For this purpose, the translated versions of the oath or affirmation, as approved by the Ministry of Law (Official Language Wing), are adhered to. MPs are requested to intimate or indicate in advance the language in which they would like to make their oath. A member has to make their oath in the prescribed form, which is generally handed over to him in advance. A member, while making an oath or affirmation in the prescribed form, is not permitted to add or to say anything other than the prescribed oath or affirmation and if he does so, the same does not form part of the record. On 26 July 2010, An MP made oath twice as the oath taken by him in Bhojpuri language was nullified, since that language was not included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. He then made and subscribed oath in Hindi. So statement 1 is not correct.

According to article 347 of the Constitution of India, on a demand being made in that behalf the President may, if he is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a State desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognised by that State, direct that such language shall also be officially recognised throughout that State or any part thereof for such purpose as he may specify. So statement 2 is correct.

 

Q8. Consider the following statements with reference to the Satellite internet :

1. It provides lower latency compared to cable and fiber internet.
2. It functions well even in severe weather conditions
3. It will ensure connectivity in the remotest parts of the country and helps in achieving 100% internet penetration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

S8.Ans.(c)

Sol.

Satellite Internet, which works similarly to satellite TV, is a wireless connection spread across satellite dishes located both in space and on the Earth. It provides remote areas of the planet with easy access to communication networks to keep people connected and give access to up-to-date information and communication systems. Latency is the time it takes for data to pass from one point on a network to another. Satellite internet provides higher latency compared to cable and fiber internet. Cable and fiber internet offers 20 to 50 . 19 milliseconds latency, whereas satellite internet has 600 milliseconds, this is because satellites are positioned at 22000 miles above the earth, So satellite internet data takes a longer time to reach the receiver. Thus, it provides higher latency compared to cable and fiber internet. So, Statement 1 is not correct. Satellite internet service is more likely to have connection issues during bad weather than other types of internet since data has to travel through the air (rather than through wires buried underground). Satellite signals are transmitted via radio waves, which travel best through open air but can get deflected or dispersed when they pass through water, buildings, and heavy foliage. This is why satellite signals weaken during weather conditions like rain, snow, and dust storms. The water or dust particles in the air deflect and break apart the radio signal, resulting in a spotty or weak signal. Thus, the satellite internet cannot function well in severe weather conditions. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Satellite Internet service provides Internet access to areas where wired, fiber and cable options are inaccessible. Satellites are used to deliver broadband Internet services to hard-to-reach users in the under- served regions. The Internet Penetration is the relationship between the number of Internet users in each country and its demographic data.

 

Q9. Arrange the following places in increasing order of the Coriolis Effect they observe:

1. Mumbai
2. Bengaluru
3. Chennai
4. Hyderabad

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3-2-4-1

(b) 3-2-1-4

(c) 2-3-1-4

(d) 2-3-4-1

 

S9.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option (d) is correct:

The correct order is: Bengaluru-Chennai-Hyderabad-Mumbai. Coriolis Effect The Coriolis Effect is the name given to the imaginary force that deflects objects, such as rockets or large storms, which move over the surface of the Earth. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. Its effect increases northwards. As per question, Bengaluru is the southernmost point followed by Chennai, Hyderabad, and Mumbai.

 

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding NISAR satellite

1. It is a cooperation between ISRO and NASA.
2. It aims to create high-resolution images of the earth’s surface working on the all-weather.
3. NISAR is the first satellite mission that will collect radar data in two microwave bandwidth ranges namely L-band and S-band.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

• 1 and 2
• 2 and 3
• 1 and 3
• 1,2 and 3

 

S10.Ans.(d)

Sol.

NISAR satellite Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) received the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) satellite from the U.S. space agency in Bengaluru.

• NISAR is the first satellite mission that will collect radar data in two microwave bandwidth ranges.
• L-band (1 -2 GHz, commonly used for satellite communication and remote sensing)
• S-band (2-4 GHz, commonly used for satellite communication and weather monitoring). ‘
• ‘SAR’ is a type of remote-sensing technology that uses radars instead of optical sensors to create high-resolution images of the earth’s surface.
• It can penetrate clouds and vegetation to generate accurate data.
• NISAR will image the entire land and ice masses of the earth four to six times a month.
• The output is expected to be available within a couple of day s of the observation and within hours in cases of disasters.

 

Q11. Consider the following statements with reference to the difference between the union of India and territory of India:

(a) Union of India includes union territories and territories that may be acquired while the territory of India includes only states.

(b) Union of India includes states and union territories while the territory of India includes territories that may be acquired.

(c) Union of India includes the states that are already in existence while territory of India includes states that are newly established.

( d) Union of India includes only states while the territory of India includes not only the states but also union territories and territories that may be acquired

 

S11.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Option d is the correct answer. The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent is mentioned in the first schedule of the Constitution. At present, there are 28 states and 8 union territories. According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories: 1) Territories of the states 2) Union territories 3) Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. The ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the Union of India includes only states while the Territory of India includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time. The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre. The union territories and the acquired territories are directly administered by the Central government.

 

Q12. Consider the following statements with respect to Whip

1. The office of whip is not mentioned or defined in the Constitution.
2. In India, only recognised national parties can issue whips to their members.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S12.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Whip

• The term ‘whip’ is derived from the old British practice of “whipping in” lawmakers to follow the party line.
• The ‘office of whip’ is not mentioned or defined in the Constitution.
• The ‘office of whip’ is a Parliamentary convention.
• In parliamentary parlance, a whip may refer to both o A written order to members of a party in the House to abide by a certain direction, and o To a designated official of the party who is authorised to issue such a direction.
• Position -In India, all parties can issue whips to their members.
• Parties appoint a senior member from among their House contingents to issue whips.
• This member is called a chief whip, and he/ she is assisted by additional whips.
• Function- A whip may require that party members be present in the House for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way.
• Degree of importance of Whip – Whips can be of varying degrees of seriousness and can be inferred from the number of times an order is underlined.

 

Q13. With reference to the Off-budget Borrowings, consider the following statements:

1. These are the loans that public sector undertakings take on behalf of the Union Government.
2. These constitute one of the largest items in the fiscal deficit of the Government.
3. Repayment of principal and interest of such borrowings is done from the Central Government Budget.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S13.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect: Off-budget borrowings are loans that are taken not by the Centre directly, but by another public institution, like public sector undertakings, which borrow on the directions of the central government. These also include the deferred payments of bills and loans by the Centre. These items constitute off-budget borrowings because these loans and deferred payments are not part of fiscal deficit calculations. Off budget borrowings is not counted in the calculation of fiscal deficit. This helps keep the country’s fiscal deficit within acceptable limits. Statement 3 is correct: Off-budget Borrowings are those financial liabilities that are raised by public sector undertakings for which repayment of entire principal and interest is done from the Central Government Budget. Such borrowings are made by state-owned firms to fund government schemes but are not part of the official budget calculations. This means that though the borrowing is not a part of the consolidated fund of India, the interest payment for such borrowings is made out of the consolidated fund. Extra Budgetary Resources (EBR) are taken into account while calculating the Government Debt

 

Q14. Consider the following statements with regard to National Green Tribunal:

1. It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
2. It is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

S14.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Oprtion (a) is correct: x The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. x The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.

 

Q15. Consider the following statements with reference to photosynthetically active radiation (PAR): 1. It constitutes more than 90 per cent of total incident solar radiation.

2. Plants do not capture all the available photosynthetically active radiation for making food.
3. Photons at relatively longer wavelengths carry less energy for photosynthesis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

 

S15.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) designates the spectral range (wave band) of solar radiation from 400 to 700 nanometers that photosynthetic organisms are able to use in the process of photosynthesis. Statement 3 is correct: Photons at shorter wavelengths tend to be so energetic that they can be damaging to cells and tissues, but are mostly filtered out by the ozone layer in the stratosphere. Photons at longer wavelengths do not carry enough energy to allow photosynthesis to take place.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Except for the deep-sea hydro-thermal ecosystem, sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on Earth. Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). Plants and photosynthetic bacteria (autotrophs), fix Sun’s radiant energy to make food from simple inorganic materials.

Statement 2 is correct: Plants capture only 2-10 per cent of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living world. So, it is very important to know how the solar energy captured by plants flows through different organisms of an ecosystem.

 

Q16. With reference to the Cyber knife system, Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. The Cyber Knife System is the first and only fully robotic radiotherapy device.
2. It is an invasive treatment for both cancerous and non-cancerous tumors.
3. It delivers precise doses of radiation with extreme accuracy.
4. It can significantly reduce the risk of side effects.

 

S16.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Radiation therapy (also called radiotherapy) is a cancer treatment that uses high doses of radiation to kill cancer cells and shrink tumors. At low doses, radiation is used in x-rays to see inside your body, as with x-rays of your teeth or broken bones. The CyberKnife System is the first and only fully robotic radiotherapy device. CyberKnife uses stereotactic body radiation therapy (SRS SBRT), delivering precise doses of radiation with extreme accuracy.

Invasive treatment is a medical procedure that invades (enters) the body, usually by cutting or puncturing the skin or by inserting instruments into the body. The CyberKnife System is the most advanced form of radiosurgery – it is a painless, non-invasive treatment that delivers high doses of precisely targeted radiation to destroy cancerous and non-cancerous tumors within the body. Radiation therapy is a treatment option for many types of tumors throughout the body. Precise and accurate radiation delivery to the tumor is key to killing cancerous cells. Accurate and precise delivery . 53 helps minimize irradiation of the healthy tissues surrounding tumors and potentially the risk of side effects. CyberKnife System delivers precise doses of radiation with extreme accuracy. Thus, it can significantly reduce the risk of side effects.

 

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding judicial majoritarianism

1. It means that no judgment in such cases can be delivered except with the concurrence of a majority of the judges but that judges are free to deliver dissenting judgments or opinions.
2. judicial majoritarianism concept established its existence from landmark cases not through constitution itself.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

S17.Ans.(a)

Sol.

What is judicial majoritarianism?

The requirement for a majority consensus flows from Article 145(5) of the Constitution, which states that no judgment in such cases can be delivered except with the concurrence of a majority of the judges but that judges are free to deliver dissenting judgments or opinions. Numerical majorities are of particular importance to cases, which involve a substantial interpretation of constitutional provisions.

 

Q18. With reference to the impact of contacts between Central Asia and India on religion, art & Architecture during 200 BC to 300 CE, consider the following statements:

1. It led to the introduction of canal irrigation in India.
2. The use of burnt bricks for flooring and roofing was introduced in India.
3. It led to the introduction of use of the curtains in the Indian theatre.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

S18.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

The rulers coming from outside including the central Asian countries between 200 BC to 300 CE known as Shaka-Kushana phase introduced various new elements to trade and agriculture, to administrative organization, to art and literature, sculpture and pottery, science and technology, and to Indian society.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Tughlags were first to introduce canal irrigation in India. Barani in tarikh-i- Firozshahi tells us that Ghiasuddin Tughlaq was the first ruler to undertake construction of canals.

Statement 2 is correct. The rulers of central Asia introduced several material elements in the already existing techniques of Indian architecture. The Saka-Kushana phase is demonstrative of an advance in building activities. They introduced the use of burnt bricks and tiles for both flooring and roofing. The period is also marked by the construction of brick walls. Brick wells may also have been introduced during this period.

Statement 3 is correct. The foreign rulers were patrons of Indian art and drama. The Greeks contributed to the development of the Indian theatre by introducing the use of the curtain, which was called yavanika as an imperative element of theatre that plays an important role in the scenic representation of theatre. The word javanika or yavanika for curtain even finds place in the Natyashastra by Bharata.

 

Q19. Which of the following has been recently graduated from the United Nations (UN) list of Least Developed Countries (LDC).

1. Nepal
2. Bhutan
3. Bangladesh
4. Namibia

 

S19.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Bhutan will become the seventh nation to graduate from the United Nations (UN) list of Least Developed Countries (LDC).

Bhutan was included in the first group of LDCs in 1971. However, over the last few decades, it has made remarkable progress on a variety of socio-economic metrics. Bhutan first fulfilled the requirements for graduation in 2015, and then again in 2018. Bhutan was therefore scheduled to graduate in 2021. However, the UN viewed Bhutan’s request to match the effective graduation date with the conclusion of the nation’s 12th national development plan in 2023 as a legitimate request and thus postponed the delisting.

 

Q20. Consider the following statements regarding Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) (or simply Mad Cow Disease)

1. It affects the central nervous system of adult cattle.
2. There is no treatment and no vaccine to prevent BSE
3. It is caused by virus

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1,2 and 3

 

S20.Ans.(a)

Sol.

About the Disease: Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) (or simply Mad Cow Disease) is a degenerative, transmissible, slowly progressive, and fatal infection that affects the central nervous system of adult cattle. How is it caused? It is caused by a protein called a ‘prion’ normally found on the cell surfaces of cattle. However, the normal prion protein changes into an abnormal prion protein and these proteins destroy the nervous system tissue- the brain and spinal cord.

 

Q21. With reference to Eutrophication, consider the following statements:

1. It is the natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.
2. It can lead to ocean acidification.
3. It leads to formation of dead zones.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

 S21.Ans.(d)

Sol.

Statement 1 correct: Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water. In a young lake the water is cold and clear, supporting little life. With time, streams draining into the lake introduce nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus, which encourage the growth of aquatic organisms. A However, human activities have accelerated the rate and extent of eutrophication through both point-source discharges and non-point loadings of limiting nutrients, such as nitrogen and phosphorus, into aquatic ecosystems with dramatic consequences for drinking water sources, fisheries, and recreational water bodies.

Statement 2 is correct: Eutrophication sets off a chain reaction in the ecosystem, starting with an overabundance of algae and plants. The excess algae and plant matter eventually decompose, producing large amounts of carbon dioxide. This lowers the pH of seawater, a process known as ocean acidification. Acidification slows the growth of fish and shellfish and can prevent shell formation in bivalve mollusks. This leads to a reduced catch for commercial and recreational fisheries, meaning smaller harvests and more expensive seafood. Statement 3 is correct: Harmful algal blooms, dead zones, and fish kills are the results of a process called eutrophication— which begins with the increased load of nutrients to estuaries and coastal waters.

 

Q22. Consider the following statements regarding Eco sensitive zones (ESZ):

1. ESZ is declared under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. These zones are demarcated up to 10 km around a Protected Area.
3. Activities like felling of trees are strictly prohibited inside an ESZ.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and

 

S22.Ans.(a)

Sol.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Peripheries of the protected area network are often vital ecological corridors links and must be protected to prevent isolation of fragments of biodiversity which will not survive in the long run. Therefore, all identified areas around Protected Areas and wildlife corridors to be declared as ecologically fragile under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (National Wildlife Action Plan, 2002- 2016). Eco-sensitive Zone could go up to 10 Kms around a Protected Areas. In case where sensitive corridors, connectivity and ecologically important patches, crucial for landscape linkage, are even beyond 10 Kms width.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The guidelines list the activities prohibited in an ESZ, such as commercial mining, saw mills, commercial use of wood, etc., apart from regulated activities like felling of trees (thus not prohibited completely). Lastly, there are permitted activities like ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, and organic farming, among others.

 

Q23. Which of the following may be experienced during El Nino year in India?

1. Monsoon Deficit & dry events
2. Stronger than normal vertical shear
3. Increase in the planet’s average surface temperature
4. Enhanced cyclogenesis Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

S23.Ans.(a)

Sol.

El Niño is the warming of seawater in the central-east Equatorial Pacific that occurs every few years. ○ Forecasts for the 2023 fall and winter are predicting that El Niño, will occur with more than a 50% probability.

• Outcomes:

○ Increase in the planet’s average surface temperature:

o An El Niño year creates a global-warming crisis in miniature:

• This is because the warm water spreading across the tropical Pacific and releases a large amount of heat into the atmosphere. o An El Niño this year could increase the planet’s average surface temperature by more than 1.5° C from pre-industrial levels. Hence option 3 is correct.

○ Transition of La Niña to El Niño: o A transition from a La Niña winter – which we are in currently – to an El Niño summer has historically tended to produce the largest deficit in the monsoon.

o This means that pre-monsoon and monsoon circulations tend to be weaker in an El Niño year.

○ Weaker vertical shear: o The vertical shear, which is the change in intensity of winds from the surface to the upper atmosphere, tends to be weaker as well.

o This in turn can favour enhanced cyclogenesis, i.e. cyclone formation. Hence option is 4 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

○ Monsoon Deficit & dry events:

o If an El Niño state does emerge by summer, India is likely to experience a deficit monsoon in 2023.

o The monsoon deficit will be accompanied by extreme wet and dry events.

o While overall seasonal total could be deficient, there are likely to be isolated pockets of heavy or very heavy rainfall. Hence option 1 is correct.

 

Q24. Which of the following rifts has a widening crack that has recently triggered the formation of a new sea?

(a) Mediterranean Rift

(b) Australian Rift

(c) East African Rift

(d) Siberian Rift

 

S24.Ans.(c)

Sol.

East African Rift:

• The division of the continent is connected to the East African Rift, a crack that stretches 56 kilometres and appeared in the desert of Ethiopia in 2005.
• The crack has triggered the formation of a new sea.
• Division of the continents: ○ This geological process will inevitably divide the continent, resulting in currently landlocked countries, such as Uganda and Zambia, obtaining their own coastlines in due time, which would take five to 10 million years according to the study.

○ As the Somali and Nubian tectonic plates continue to pull apart from each other, a smaller continent will be created from the rift, which will include present-day Somalia and parts of Kenya, Ethiopia, and Tanzania.

○ The Gulf of Aden and the Red Sea will eventually flood into the Afar region in Ethiopia and the East African Rift Valley, leading to the formation of a new ocean.

 

Q25. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is

correct?

1. The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
2. The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
3. It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
4. Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

 

S25.Ans.(b)

Sol.

Option b is the correct answer.

Option a is incorrect: In some states the unit of application of the land reforms on the basis of individual while in some states the ‘family’ was the unit for determining the land holding ceiling.

Option b is correct: The main objective of the land reforms was the redistribution of land across society so that land is not held in the hands of a few people. Land ceiling was adopted to disburse surplus land amongst small and marginal farmers and the landless.

Option c is incorrect: One of the aims of the land reforms was to switch from cash crops to food crops. It resulted in increase in production of food crops. Option d is incorrect: Numerous exemptions in the ceiling limits were an important factor which limited the success of land reforms in independent India.