Odia govt jobs   »   Odisha B.Ed 2024 Arts Practice Full...

Odisha B.Ed 2024 Arts Practice Full Length Mock Test 1

The Odisha B.Ed 2024 Arts Practice Full Length Mock Test 1 is designed to simulate the actual exam environment, providing candidates with a comprehensive understanding of the test format. This mock test covers all essential topics in the Arts stream, including History, Political Science, Geography, and English. By attempting this practice test, candidates can assess their preparation level, identify strengths and weaknesses, and improve their time management skills. The detailed answer key and explanations provided after the test help in clarifying doubts and enhancing conceptual clarity. Regular practice with such mock tests is crucial for achieving a high score in the Odisha B.Ed 2024 Arts exam.

Odisha B.Ed 2024 Arts Practice Full Length Mock Test 1

Odisha B.Ed 2024 Arts Practice Full Length Mock Test 1

Section I

  1. Rohit is standing facing North. He goes 30 meters ahead and turns left and goes for 15 meters. Now he turns right, goes for 50 meters, and finally turns to his right and walks. In which direction is he facing
    A) North
    B) East
    C) South
    D) West
    ANS:- B) East.
    Sol:- Let’s analyze Roshan’s movements:
    Roshan starts facing North.
    He moves 30 meters ahead (still facing North).
    He turns left, which means he is now facing West.
    He moves 15 meters.
    He turns right, which means he is now facing North again.
    He moves 50 meters.
    Finally, he turns right again, which means he is now facing East.
    So, after all the movements, Roshan is facing East.
    Therefore, the correct answer is option B) East.
  2. Which direction is exactly opposite to the north?
    (A) East
    (B) South
    (C) West
    (D) Northeast
    ANS:- (B) South.
    Sol:- The direction exactly opposite to the north is south.
    Therefore, the correct answer is option (B) South.
  3. If A walks 5 km towards the east, then turns right and walks 10 km, what is the straight-line distance between A’s starting point and ending point?
    (A) 10 km
    (B) 12 km
    (C) 13 km
    (D) 15 km
    ANS:- 11.18 km.
    Sol:- Let’s visualize A’s movements:
    A walks 5 km towards the east.
    Turns right (A is now facing south) and walks 10 km.
    This forms a right-angled triangle, where one side is 5 km (the initial eastward walk), another side is 10 km (the southward walk), and we need to find the hypotenuse, which is the straight-line distance between A’s starting point and ending point.
    Using the Pythagorean theorem, which states that in a right-angled triangle, the square of the length of the hypotenuse (c) is equal to the sum of the squares of the lengths of the other two sides (a and b):
    c² = a² + b²
    Substituting the given values:
    c² = 5² + 10²
    c² = 25 + 100
    c² = 125
    Taking the square root of both sides to solve for c:
    c = √125 ≈ 11.18 km
    So, the straight-line distance between A’s starting point and ending point is approximately 11.18 km.
    Therefore, the answer is option (C) 11.18 km.
  4. A person walks 20 meters towards the north and then turns left and walks 30 meters. How far is the person from the starting point?
    (A) 20.04 meters
    (B) 36.06 meters
    (C) 40.5 meters
    (D) 50 meters
    ANS:- (B) 36.06 meters
    Sol:- To find the distance from the starting point, we can use the Pythagorean theorem since the person has walked in a right-angled triangle.
    Let’s denote:
    The distance walked towards the north as side A (20 meters).
    The distance walked after turning left as side B (30 meters).
    Then, using the Pythagorean theorem:
    Hypotenuse² = Side A² + Side B²
    Hypotenuse² =20² + 30²
    = 400 + 900
    = 1300
    Taking the square root of both sides:
    Hypotenuse = √1300
    ​Hypotenuse ≈ 36.06
    So, the person is approximately 36.06 meters from the starting point. The correct answer is (B) 36.06 meters
  5. What will be his new direction if the current direction is South-East and a person turns 45 degrees to his right?
    (A) South
    (B) North-East
    (C) South-West
    (D) North-West
    ANS:- (A) South.
    Sol:- If a person’s current direction is South-East and they turn 45 degrees to their right, they will be facing South.
    So, the correct answer is an option (A) South.
  6. If the statement “All apples are fruits” is true, which of the following assumptions can be inferred?
    Assumption I: Oranges are fruits
    Assumption II: Bananas are vegetables
    Assumption III: Watermelons are fruits
    Assumption IV: Rocks are fruits
    Options:
    (A) Only Assumption I follows
    (B) Both Assumptions I & III follow
    (C) Assumptions I, II & III follow
    (D) Only Assumption III follows
    ANS:- (B) Both Assumptions I & III follow
    Sol:- The statement “All apples are fruits” implies that anything categorized as an apple is also categorized as a fruit. Therefore, any other fruit can also be categorized as a fruit.
    Let’s go through each assumption:
    Assumption I: Oranges are fruits – This assumption follows from the given statement because oranges are also categorized as fruits. So, Assumption I follow.
    Assumption II: Bananas are vegetables – This assumption doesn’t follow from the given statement. Bananas are actually fruits, not vegetables. So, Assumption II does not follow.
    Assumption III: Watermelons are fruits – This assumption also follows from the given statement because watermelons are indeed categorized as fruits. So, Assumption III follows.
    Assumption IV: Rocks are fruits – This assumption doesn’t follow from the given statement. Rocks are not fruits. So, Assumption IV does not follow.
    Based on the analysis The correct answer is (B) Both Assumptions I & III follow
  7. If the statement “All snakes are reptiles” is true, which of the following assumptions is incorrect?
    Assumption I: Lizards are reptiles
    Assumption II: Sharks are reptiles
    Assumption III: Crocodiles are reptiles
    Assumption IV: Fish are reptiles
    Options:
    (A) Only Assumption I follows
    (B) Both Assumptions I & III follow
    (C) Assumptions I, II & III follow
    (D) Only Assumption III follows
    (E) All of these Assumptions are follow
    ANS:- (B) Both Assumptions I & III follow
    Sol:- The statement “All snakes are reptiles” implies that anything categorized as a snake is also categorized as a reptile.
    Let’s evaluate each assumption:
    Assumption I: Lizards are reptiles – This assumption follows from the given statement because lizards are indeed categorized as reptiles. So, Assumption I follow.
    Assumption II: Sharks are reptiles – This assumption is incorrect. Sharks are not reptiles; they are a type of fish. So, Assumption II does not follow.
    Assumption III: Crocodiles are reptiles – This assumption follows from the given statement because crocodiles are indeed categorized as reptiles. So, Assumption III follows.
    Assumption IV: Fish are reptiles – This assumption is incorrect. Fish are not reptiles; they belong to a different category of animals. So, Assumption IV does not follow.
    Based on the analysis. Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Both Assumptions I & III follow
  8. If the statement “All whales are mammals” is true, which of the following assumptions is incorrect?
    Assumption I: Dolphins are mammals
    Assumption II: Sharks are mammals
    Assumption III: Humans are mammals
    Assumption IV: Turtles are mammals
    Options:
    (A) Only Assumption I follows
    (B) Both Assumptions I & III follow
    (C) Only Assumptions I, II & III follow
    (D) Only Assumption III follows
    ANS:- (B) Both Assumptions I & III follow
    Sol:- Given the statement “All whales are mammals,” let’s evaluate each assumption:
    Assumption I: Dolphins are mammals – This assumption is correct. Dolphins are indeed mammals and are closely related to whales. So, Assumption I follows.
    Assumption II: Sharks are mammals – This assumption is incorrect. Sharks are not mammals; they belong to the class Chondrichthyes, which includes cartilaginous fishes. So, Assumption II does not follow.
    Assumption III: Humans are mammals – This assumption is correct. Humans are mammals, belonging to the class Mammalia, just like whales. So, Assumption III follows.
    Assumption IV: Turtles are mammals – This assumption is incorrect. Turtles are reptiles, not mammals. They belong to the class Reptilia. So, Assumption IV does not follow.
    Based on the analysis, the incorrect assumption is (B) Both Assumptions I & III follow
  9. What is the next number in the series: 2, 4, 6, 8, …?(A) 10(B) 9(C) 12(D) 14ANS:- (A) 10
    Sol:- The next number in the series is obtained by adding 2 to the previous number:
    2 + 2 = 4,
    4 + 2 = 6,
    6 + 2 = 8.
    So, following the same pattern 8 + 2 = 10.
    Therefore, the correct answer is 10
  10. If 4 books cost $20, how much will 10 books cost?
    A) $30
    B) $40
    C) $50
    D) $60
    S1.ANS:- C) $50
    Sol:- The cost of 4 books is $ 20
    Cost of 1 book = $ 20 / 4 book
    So the cost of 1 book is $ 5
    Therefore the cost of 10 books are
    1 book = $ 5
    10 books = ($ 5 /1) × 10
    = $ 5 × 10
    = $ 50
  11. When was the World Animal Health Organization founded?
    A) 1945
    B) 1924
    C) 1961
    D) 1988
    Answer: B) 1924
  12. Who is the founder of the World Animal Health Organization?
    A) Emmanuel Leclainche
    B) Henri Dunant
    C) Florence Nightingale
    D) Robert Koch
    Answer: A) Emmanuel Leclainche
  13. Where are the headquarters of the World Animal Health Organization located?
    A) Rome
    B) Geneva
    C) New York
    D) Paris
    Answer: D) Paris
  14. Who is the Director General of the World Animal Health Organization?
    A) Tedros Adhanom
    B) Dr. Monique Eloit
    C) Marco Lambertini
    D) Dr. R. S. Sharma
    Answer: B) Dr. Monique Eloit
  15. Who is the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh?
    A) Kamal Nath
    B) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
    C) Jyotiraditya Scindia
    D) Digvijaya Singh
    Answer: B) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
  16. Who is the President of the Asian Cricket Council (ACC)?
    A) N. Srinivasan
    B) Sourav Ganguly
    C) Jay Shah
    D) Anurag Thakur
    Answer: C) Jay Shah
  17. Where are the headquarters of the Asian Cricket Council (ACC) located?
    A) Dubai
    B) Mumbai
    C) Kuala Lumpur
    D) Singapore
    Answer: C) Kuala Lumpur
  18. Who is the Director General of Railway Protection Force (RPF)?
    A) Arun Kumar
    B) Sanjay Chander
    C) S. K. Bhagat
    D) Suresh Chandra
    Answer: B) Sanjay Chander
  19. Where are the headquarters of the World Health Organization (WHO) located?
    A) New York
    B) Vienna
    C) Geneva
    D) Paris
    Answer: C) Geneva
  20. Who is the Director General of the World Health Organization (WHO)?
    A) Dr. David Nabarro
    B) Dr. Margaret Chan
    C) Dr. Gro Harlem Brundtland
    D) Dr. Tedros Adhanom
    Answer: D) Dr. Tedros Adhanom
  21. “Recall the face of the poorest and weakest man whom you may have seen, and ask yourself, if the step you contemplate is going to be of any use to him”. Who said these lines?
    a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
    b) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
    c) Mahatma Gandhi
    d) Zakir Husain
    ANSWER: c) Mahatma Gandhi
    It is one of the last notes left behind by Gandhi in 1948.
  22. Having a variety of question sets in a question paper increases its __________
    a) Objectivity
    b) Reliability
    c) Validity
    d) Difficulty
    ANSWER: b) Reliability. The technical definition of “reliable” in education assessment is the extent to which a candidate would get the same test result if the testing procedure was repeated.
  23. ______ is the quality of a good teacher.
    a) Control over emotions
    b) Good command over the subject
    c) Physical strength
    d) Sense of humour
    ANSWER: b) Good command over the subject
    Teachers with a strong understanding of the subject produce successful students.
  24. Which of the following is true about the ways of learning for students?
    a) Speed of learning is same for all students
    b) Each child has a unique learning style
    c) Children follow the way other students learn
    ANSWER: b) Each child has a unique learning style
    Learning styles in education are the systematic differences in individuals’ natural or habitual pattern of acquiring and processing information in learning situations.
  25. How should a teacher be related to his peers?
    a) Should copy other teacher’s style
    b) Follow independent views
    c) Should not intervene in other’s work
    d) Suggest each other the effective ways to teach
    ANSWER: d) Suggest each other the effective ways to teach
    It may be worthwhile to talk to a more experienced colleague and exchange tips.
  26. A teacher should encourage the students to _____________________________.
    a) Score best grades in the class
    b) Improve their own capabilities
    c) Obey teacher’s command   ANSWER: b) Improve their own capabilities
    Encouraging students to enhance their own skills fosters independence and personal growth.
  27. How can a teacher develop creativity in himself and the learners?
    a) By giving new up-to-date information
    b) By playing thought-provoking games
    c) By praising any creative work
    d) Set new tasks
    ANSWER: b) By playing thought-provoking games
    Games and simulations enable students to solve real-world problems in a safe environment. They make the students learn practical aspects of worldly things.
  28. What is the best way for a teacher to resolve the problems in a class?
    a) Ask for other teacher’s opinion
    b) Depends on one’s own opinion
    c) Think on suggestions offered by the children and implement the good ones
    d) Use the view that Principal gives
    ANSWER: c) Think on suggestions offered by the children and implement the good ones
    Engaging students in discussion deepens their learning and motivation.
  29. How would you make your students independent?
    a) Give responsibility to everyone
    b) Giving orders and expecting obedience
    c) Ignoring their petty fights
    d) Solving their problems for them
    ANSWER: a) Give responsibility to everyone
    Assigning responsibilities helps students develop independence and accountability.
  30. Why is ‘learning by doing’ important?
    a) It develops interest among children
    b) Maintains discipline
    c) Keeps children busy
    d) Promotes meaningful learning
    ANSWER: a) It develops interest among children
    Learning a skill means eventually trying your hand at the skill, which develops a deeper interest and engagement in the learning process.
  31. Select the synonym of “elated”:
    (a) Sad
    (b) Thrilled
    (c) Bored
    (d) Tired
    Ans: (b) Thrilled
  32. Choose the antonym of “benevolent”:
    (a) Generous
    (b) Kind
    (c) Malevolent
    (d) Helpful
    Ans: (c) Malevolent
  33. Find the synonym of “candid”:
    (a) Secretive
    (b) Honest
    (c) Evasive
    (d) Tactful
    Ans: (b) Honest
  34. What is the antonym of “obscure”?
    (a) Clear
    (b) Hidden
    (c) Ambiguous
    (d) Unknown
    Ans: (a) Clear
  35. Identify the part of speech for the word “quickly” in the sentence: “She ran quickly to the store.”
    (a) Noun
    (b) Verb
    (c) Adverb
    (d) Adjective
    Ans: (c) Adverb
  36. What is the part of speech for the word “happiness” in the sentence: “Happiness is the key to success.”
    (a) Verb
    (b) Adjective
    (c) Noun
    (d) Adverb
    Ans: (c) Noun
  37. Choose the part of speech for the word “blue” in the sentence: “She wore a blue dress.”
    (a) Noun
    (b) Verb
    (c) Adjective
    (d) Adverb
    Ans: (c) Adjective
  38. Identify the part of speech for the word “under” in the sentence: “The cat is under the table.”
    (a) Noun
    (b) Preposition
    (c) Verb
    (d) Adjective
    Ans: (b) Preposition
  39. Fill in the Blanks on Verb Correct Form
    She ________ (to write) a letter when the phone rang.
    (a) Writes
    (b) Was writing
    (c) Wrote
    (d) Writing
    Ans: (b) Was writing
  40. They __________ (to go) to the park every Sunday.
    (a) Goes
    (b) Gone
    (c) Go
    (d) Going
    Ans: (c) Go

Section II

  1. By the time we arrived, the train __________ (to leave).
    (a) Leaves
    (b) Leaving
    (c) Left
    (d) Had left
    Ans: (d) Had left
  2. He __________ (to speak) English fluently.
    (a) Speak
    (b) Speaking
    (c) Speaks
    (d) Spoken
    Ans: (c) Speaks
  3. Choose the correct tense: “She _________ (to finish) her homework by 8 PM.”(a) Finishes
    (b) Finished
    (c) Will finish
    (d) Has finished
    Ans: (c) Will finish
  4. Identify the tense: “They __________ (to play) when it started to rain.”
    (a) Play
    (b) Were playing
    (c) Played
    (d) Have played
    Ans: (b) Were playing
  5. What is the tense of “He __________ (to eat) lunch at noon every day”?
    (a) Eats
    (b) Ate
    (c) Eating
    (d) Eat
    Ans: (a) Eats
  6. Which tense is used in: “By next week, she __________ (to complete) the project.”
    (a) Will have completed
    (b) Completes
    (c) Completing
    (d) Completed
    Ans: (a) Will have completed
  7. Choose the correct preposition for the sentence: “The book is ___ the shelf.”
    (a) Under
    (b) On
    (c) In
    (d) Over
    Ans: (b) On
  8. Which of the following sentences uses a noun correctly?
    (a) She ran fastly.
    (b) The cat is under the table.
    (c) He danced good.
    (d) They quickly finished their work.
    Ans: (b) The cat is under the table.
  9. What is the correct preposition for the sentence: “She is good ___ mathematics.”
    (a) At
    (b) On
    (c) With
    (d) In
    Ans: (a) At
  10. Choose the correct adjective for the sentence: “She wore a _____ dress.”
    (a) Greenly
    (b) Green
    (c) Greening
    (d) Greenish
    Ans: (b) Green
  11. She lives ___ New York.
    (a) on
    (b) in
    (c) at
    (d) over
    Ans: (b) in
  12. By this time next year, I ___ my degree.
    (a) will complete
    (b) will have completed
    (c) am completing
    (d) completed
    Ans: (b) will have completed
  13. How do you spell the word meaning “excessively talkative”?
    (a) Garrulous.
    (b) Garrolous.
    (c) Garrilous.
    (d) Garulous.
    Ans: (a) Garrulous.
  14. What is a synonym for “melancholy”?
    (a) Joyful.
    (b) Sadness.
    (c) Anger.
    (d) Excitement.
    Ans: (b) Sadness.
  15. What is an antonym for “lucid”?
    (a) Clear.
    (b) Confusing.
    (c) Bright.
    (d) Logical.
    Ans: (b) Confusing.
  16. କେଉଁଟି ଚଢେଇ ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
    (a) ଜୀବନ
    (b) ବିହଗ
    (c) ଧୂଳିଜଂଘ
    (d) ଆଳୟ
    Ans: (b) ବିହଗ
  17. ପଦ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିରୁ କେଉଁ ଗୋଟିକ ଭିନ୍ନ ଜାତୀୟ ?
    (a) ତୁମେ
    (b) ଏବଂ
    (c) ସେମାନେ
    (d) ମୁଁ
    Ans: (b) ଏବଂ
  18. କେଉଁଟି ବିଶେଷଣ ପ୍ରଦ ?
    (a) ପରମ
    (b) ଧରମ
    (c) କରମ
    (d) ସରମ
    Ans: (a) ପରମ
  19. କେଉଁଟି ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦ ନୁହେଁ ?
    (a) ଉରମ
    (b) ସନ୍ତୋଷ
    (c) ପରମାର୍ଥୀ
    (d) ଶୁରଙ୍କର
    Ans: (b) ସନ୍ତୋଷ
  20. ସେ ଅତ୍ୟନ୍ତ ଚତୁରତାର ସହିତ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ ସଂପାଦନ କଲେ । ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ କେତୋଟି ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦ ଅଛି ?
    (a) ଏକ
    (b) ଦୁଇ
    (c) ତିନି
    (d) ଚାରି
    Ans: (b) ଦୁଇ
  21. ତାଙ୍କ ବିନା ମୁଁ ଏହା କରିପାରିବି ନାହିଁ । – ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ‘ବିନା’ କି ପଦ ?
    (a) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ
    (b) ବିଶେଷଣ
    (c) ଅବ୍ୟୟ
    (d) ସର୍ବନାମ
    Ans: (c) ଅବ୍ୟୟ
  22. ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଭିନ୍ନ ଜାତୀୟ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ବାଛି ।
    (a) ନଦୀ
    (b) କୂଅ
    (c) ପୁଷ୍କରିଣୀ’
    (d) ସାଗର
    Ans: (d) ସାଗର
  23. ନିମ୍ନରେ କେତୋଟି ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦ ଅଛି?
    ଦୟା, କ୍ଷମା, ଦଦରା, ଧୈର୍ଯ୍ୟ, କନିଷ୍ଠ, କଠିନ
    (a) ସବୁଗୁଡ଼ିକ
    (b) ୫ଟି
    (c) ୩ଟି
    (d) ୪ଟି
    Ans: (c) ୩ଟି
  24. ‘କନିଷ୍ଠ’ ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦର ମୂଳରୁପଟି କ’ଣ?
    (a) କୁନି
    (b) ଯୁବା
    (c) ସାନ
    (d) କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର
    Ans: (a) କୁନି
  25. କ୍ଷଣସ୍ଥାୟୀ – କେଉଁ ସମାସ?
    (a) ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟା ତତ୍‌ପୁରୁଷ
    (b) ତୃତୀୟା ତତ୍‌ପୁରୁଷ
    (c) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ ତତ୍‌ପୁରୁଷ
    (d) କୌଣସି ନୁହେଁ
    Ans: (a) ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟା ତତ୍‌ପୁରୁଷ
  26. Who was one of the prominent figures associated with the Indian Renaissance during the colonial period?
    a) Vasco da Gama
    b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
    c) Tipu Sultan
    d) Shah Jahan
    Ans. b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  27. Which of the following concepts was NOT introduced to Indian society during British colonization?
    a) Liberty
    b) Caste-based discrimination
    c) Fraternity
    d) Democracy
    Ans. b) Caste-based discrimination
  28. The Renaissance in India was a response to:
    a) British colonization
    b) Indian independence movements
    c) Cultural isolationism
    d) None of the above
    Ans. a) British colonization
  29. Who among the following was NOT a notable figure associated with the Indian Renaissance?
    a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
    b) Dayanand Saraswati
    c) Mahatma Gandhi
    d) Ishwar Chand Vidyasagar
    Ans. c) Mahatma Gandhi
  30. The Indian Renaissance aimed to reform which aspects of society?
    a) Religious practices
    b) Social structures
    c) Economic systems
    d) All of the above
    Ans. d) All of the above
  31. Who was the first Governor General of India?
    A. Warren Hastings
    B. William Bentick
    C. Lord Delhousie
    D. Lord Canning
    Ans. A. Warren Hastings
  32. Who was the first Governor General of Bengal?
    A. Robert Clive
    B. William Bentinck
    C. Warren Hasting
    D. Col. Sanders
    Ans. C. Warren Hasting
  33. The first Viceroy of India was
    A. Lord Canning
    B. Lord Hardinge
    C. Lord Dalhousie
    D. Lord Elgin
    Ans. A. Lord Canning
  34. After the year 1853, a substantial amount of British capital had been invested in
    A. Tea Plantations
    B. The Railways
    C. Coal Mining
    D. Jute Mills
    Ans. B. The Railways
  35. The British Governor General and Viceroy who served for the longest period in India was
    A. Lord Irwin
    B. Lord Dalhousie
    C. Lord Curzon
    D. Lord Linlithgow
    Ans. B. Lord Dalhousie
  36. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee for the Indian Constitution?
    (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (b) Vallabhbhai Patel
    (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    (d) Rajendra Prasad
    Ans: (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
  37. Which committee was responsible for drafting the provisions related to the central government in the Indian Constitution?
    (a) Drafting Committee
    (b) Union Power Committee
    (c) Provincial Constitution Committee
    (d) States Committee
    Ans: (b) Union Power Committee
  38. Who chaired the Provincial Constitution Committee?
    (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
    (b) Rajendra Prasad
    (c) Vallabhbhai Patel
    (d) B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
    Ans: (c) Vallabhbhai Patel
  39. Why was Congress leader Rahul Gandhi recently in the news?
    (a) He was elected as the Prime Minister of India.
    (b) He was appointed as the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
    (c) He launched a new political party.
    (d) He was nominated for the Nobel Peace Prize.
    Ans. (b) He was appointed as the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
  40. What is the minimum eligibility for a party to have its leader recognized as the Leader of Opposition (LoP) in the Lok Sabha?
    (a) The party must have at least 5% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha.
    (b) The party must have at least 10% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha.
    (c) The party must have at least 15% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha.
    (d) The party must have at least 20% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha.
    Ans. (b) The party must have at least 10% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha.
  41. What significant event related to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha occurred on June 24, 2024?
    (a) The Speaker resigned from the position.
    (b) A new Speaker was elected.
    (c) Bhartruhari Mahtab was appointed as the ‘Speaker pro tem’.
    (d) The Lok Sabha was dissolved.
    Ans. (c) Bhartruhari Mahtab was appointed as the ‘Speaker pro tem’.
  42. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha elected?
    (a) Article 75
    (b) Article 80
    (c) Article 93
    (d) Article 100
    Ans. (c) Article 93
  43. What is the term of office for the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
    (a) 2 years
    (b) 3 years
    (c) 4 years
    (d) Until the dissolution of the Lok Sabha
    Ans. (d) Until the dissolution of the Lok Sabha
  44. What is the primary objective of the Krishi Sakhi Convergence Programme (KSCP)?
    (a) To promote urban farming practices.
    (b) To empower rural women as Krishi Sakhi for transforming rural India.
    (c) To distribute free seeds to farmers.
    (d) To provide loans to rural women for starting businesses.
    Ans. (b) To empower rural women as Krishi Sakhi for transforming rural India.
  45. Which of the following is a training area under the Krishi Sakhi Convergence Programme (KSCP)?
    (a) Urban development
    (b) Agro-Ecological Practices
    (c) IT and Software Development
    (d) Marine Biology
    Ans. (b) Agro-Ecological Practices
  46. Which river marks the western boundary of the Himalayas?
    (a) Ganges
    (b) Brahmaputra
    (c) Indus
    (d) Yamuna
    Ans: (c) Indus
  47. Which line is known as the Prime Meridian?
    (a) 0° Longitude
    (b) 180° Longitude
    (c) 90° Latitude
    (d) 23.5° N Latitude
    Ans: (a) 0° Longitude
  48. At what latitude does the Arctic Circle lie?
    (a) 66.5° N
    (b) 66.5° S
    (c) 23.5° N
    (d) 23.5° S
    Ans: (a) 66.5° N
  49. The Tropic of Capricorn is located at which latitude?
    (a) 23.5° N
    (b) 23.5° S
    (c) 66.5° N
    (d) 66.5° S
    Ans: (b) 23.5° S
  50. Which line divides the Earth into the Eastern and Western Hemispheres?
    (a) Equator
    (b) Prime Meridian
    (c) Tropic of Cancer
    (d) Tropic of Capricorn
    Ans: (b) Prime Meridian
  51. The Himalayas are an example of which type of mountain?
    (a) Volcanic
    (b) Fold
    (c) Block
    (d) Residual
    Ans: (b) Fold
  52. The Himalayas are primarily formed by the collision of which two tectonic plates?
    (a) Pacific Plate and Australian Plate
    (b) African Plate and Antarctic Plate
    (c) Indian Plate and Eurasian Plate
    (d) North American Plate and South American Plate
    Ans: (c) Indian Plate and Eurasian Plate
  53. What is the total length of the Himalayan mountain range?
    (a) 1,500 km
    (b) 2,400 km
    (c) 3,000 km
    (d) 4,000 km
    Ans: (b) 2,400 km
  54. Which river is known as the ‘Ganga of the South’?
    (a) Godavari
    (b) Krishna
    (c) Kaveri
    (d) Narmada
    Ans: (c) Kaveri
  55. The Western Ghats are also known as:
    (a) Sahyadri
    (b) Aravalli
    (c) Vindhya
    (d) Satpura
    Ans: (a) Sahyadri
  56. Interest rate risk can be categorized under which of the following?
    (a) Credit risk
    (b) Market risk
    (c) Operating risk
    (d) All of the above
    Ans: (b) Market risk
  57. “Circuit Breakers” in share markets halt trading on which occasion?
    (a) On special days
    (b) When a new share is traded for the first time
    (c) When the price of a particular stock rises or falls by a specified amount in a specified time
    (d) When the trading volume of a particular stock exceeds a specified level
    Ans: (c) When the price of a particular stock rises or falls by a specified amount in a specified time
  58. The concept of weaker sections under ‘priority sector’ was introduced by which committee?
    (a) Krishnaswami Committee
    (b) Varshney Committee
    (c) Gadgil Committee
    (d) Abid Hussain Committee
    Ans: (a) Krishnaswami Committee
  59. An agreement to exchange floating rate payments for fixed rate payments is known as:
    (a) Currency Swap
    (b) Interest Rate Swap
    (c) Rolling Settlement
    (d) Arbitration
    Ans: (b) Interest Rate Swap
  60. In which year was the Tax Reforms Committee constituted by the Government of India?
    (a) 1975
    (b) 1980
    (c) 1991
    (d) 1995
    Ans: (c) 1991

Foundation Course For SSC CGL TIER 1 + 2 Exam 2024 | Online Live Classes By Adda247

OSSSC COMBINED Batch For Category of Teachers Under ST & SC Department | Online Live Classes by Adda 247

Odisha B.Ed 2024 Arts Practice Full Length Mock Test 1_5.1
About the Author

Trilok Singh heads the Content and SEO at Adda247. He has 9 years of experience in creating content for competitive entrance exams and government exams. He keeps a close eye on the content quality, credibility and ensure the information should be error-free and available on time. He can be reached at trilok.singh@adda247.com.