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CUET Sample Paper 2022 with Answers for BBA, BCA, BA

The National Testing Agency has issued the CUET 2022 Mock Test for the CUET 2022. The candidates can attempt the CUET 2022 Mock Test by logging onto the official website of NTA at nta.ac.in. We have also given the direct link to attempt CUET 2022 Mock Test on this page. The CUET 2022 Mock Test will help candidates to understand the difficulty level and exam pattern of the upcoming CUET 2022 examination. Go through the whole article to check all the details of the CUET 2022 Mock Test.

CUET 2022 Mock Test Pattern 

The CUET 2022 Mock Test pattern will be same as the exam pattern published by the NTA on its official website. The candidates will get 3 hours and 15 minutes to 3 hours and 45 minutes to complete the  CUET 2022 Mock Test. The duration of  CUET 2022 Mock Test will depend on the domain selection or laguage tests. The  CUET 2022 Mock Test structure is listed below:

  1. Section IA: 13 Languages
  2. Section IB: 19 Languages
  3. Section II: 27 Domain Specific Tests
  4. Section III: General Test

Difficulty Level of CUET 2022 Mock Test 

The experts has analysed the CUET 2022 Mock Test issued by National Testing Agency and concluded that the difficulty level of CUET 2022 Mock Test is moderate. The CUET 2022 Mock Test is equivalent to the NCERT paper series. There is negative marking in CUET 2022 exam, therefore the candidates must be sure while marking the answer. Click on the direct link given below to attempt CUET 2022 Mock Test: 

Direct Link to Attempt CUET 2022 Mock Test 

CUET Sample Paper 2022

The candidates preparing for CUET 2022 must solve the CUET Sample Paper 2022 to know the type of questions, exam pattern and difficulty level of the Exam. Also, candidates can assess their preparation for CUET 2022 by solving CUET Sample Paper 2022. We have provided CUET Sample Paper 2022 with solutions on this page so candidates can check the answers to those questions which they don’t know. Solving CUET Sample Paper 2022 will provide an edge over others, the candidates will surely get benefitted if they will solve CUET Sample Paper 2022 given on this page. Bookmark this page to get more study material and all the latest updates on CUET 2022.  

 

CUET Sample Paper 2022 – Accountancy 

PASSAGE 1

Do people not have time to pause and ask what is causing us to seek self-care? What/who has failed to provide semblance of care to society? How can self-care be more inclusive and accessible?

When practised as a communal experience, self-care has done wonders for survivors — of domestic violence, assault, displacement, serious illnesses. The current commodified version of self-care is replacing social care and you can see this in vaccine roll-outs around the world. Barring op-eds and a few statements calling out the injustice of rich countries hoarding vaccines, what action have you seen on this?

Self-care so things get better is all well and good for you and I, but for the vast majority of Pakistanis, it’s getting worse and worse. For them, self-care is the last thing on their to-do list because of the rising cost of everything. The disconnect between the haves and have-nots in this country is, in teens peak, ‘insane’. The rich can download versions of care but the poor do not have access to any care and the supposition that the government can’t (read won’t) provide care is outrageous. We all bear responsibility for this failure. By our disinterest or electing deplorables with pathetic track records or endorsing dictatorships and then absolving them of reneging on their commitments we are, as Hanh said, “part of the wrongdoing”.

Before it reaches a new level of insanity, perhaps one can advocate ways where it’s possible to practise self-care à la capitalism and provide care for others who desperately need it. One’s self-preservation cannot come at the cost of someone else’s. There is no pleasure or liberation in that — and thankfully no app for it.

Q1. The author describe current state of societal self-care as commodified? 

(a) Self-care is accessible only in rich & affluent in developed countries

(b) Some people do not accept the idea of self-care as valid & dismiss it as for the rich

(c) Everything comes at a cost, even governments who are supposed to work for the public, tax people to fund different initiatives

(d) Self-care while necessarily has costs attached to it which may not be viable for everyone.

Q2. How are we “part of the wrongdoing”? Select all the options that are correct- 

Electing Governments who do not care about its citizens 

Holding elected governments responsible for their commitments to citizens

By not contributing towards self-care of people who can’t afford it

(a) AC

(b) ABC

(c) A

(d) B

Q3. What can be the source of this article? 

(a)Editorial Column of a newspaper of Pakistan

(b)Leading health magazine of Pakistan

(c) Blog of a prominent doctor & activist of Pakistan

(d) None of the above

Q4. Among the following statements which one would the author agree with?

(a) An elected leader represents voice of a large section of society, so he deserves better security than a common man

(b) Only the rich can afford to do self-care

(c) Capitalism has brought in western features like remote self-care which are important for the advancement of a society

(d) It’s our responsibility as society to ensure that people who need help have access to it

PASSAGE 2

Nagel’s paper on death studied the assumptions and theories of death. The basic questions on the topic are: what is the rationale behind death? What evil can be attributed to death? Nagel begins his study with a general theory of life and death. He explained death as the end of living; this meant the life of an individual would be terminated at the time of death. The basis of Nagel’s study began with three hypotheses on the study of death.

The first hypothesis states that death is evil. The second hypothesis says death can be normal when it does not remove the essence of life. The third hypothesis expresses death as a deprivation of the good things of life. The first hypothesis studies the essence of living and the evil in death. Nagel emphasized that death terminates the life of an individual and the good in him or her. We cannot ascribe the good of living but we can equally describe the harm in death. The death of an individual can be seen from three positions as described by Nagel. The first position seeks to explain the reason of death and why it is evil. When a student is killed on his way to school, they say the life of the student was short-lived. This is true only when we cannot ascertain the future. Nagel provided more emphasis on this position of thought with the natural self. When we imagine what the future holds for the student, one would easily put forward the assumption of death is evil. Another example was seen in the case of a child suffering from a blood disease, his death would be comforting to the family because of the suffering the child had endured. The second position of the first hypothesis explained how death can be compared using different circumstances. For example, an old woman smiled on her dying bed signifying she had completed a worthy life and wants a rest. Her death would be seen as a gift of life. The third position would be at the disadvantage in death. Death comes in various ways, and people believe death without pain is better than death with the pain. The way in which an individual die contributes to the pain we feel when someone dies. The example above does not isolate death from evil; it only reminds us death is inevitable

We agree with the school of thought, death at a full age would be less painful to those who mourn their loss than death at a young age. This belief can be used to further the arguments on death. At what point would death be termed well deserved? The society would agree that death is well deserved on an individual depending on the circumstances surrounding an individual. For example, when a robber is executed, people tend to see his or her death as well deserved because of the pain the individual has inflicted in the community. The end of life for the individual was not seen as a deprivation of life but well deserved. This means death itself is not evil as put forward by Nagel’s third hypothesis the deprivation it brings, constitutes harm and may be termed evil. The pain we suffer when physically challenged can be related to death only when we say death is evil. Nagel explained our analysis of the pain in death can only be complete if we know what happens to the individual when he or she dies. Nagel puts forward another troubling but compelling question on the time of birth of an individual. What do we lose before our birth? Do we gain or lose something if we were born earlier? Nagel used the question to conclude by saying death is not evil in itself but a factor of pain.

Nagel used real life situations to explain his views on death. He knew people held different accounts and beliefs about death, so he decided to centre his argument on the common belief that death causes pain. Although every person is entitled to his or her opinion on the matter, Nagel believed his explanation would provide logical thinking to the questions about death.

Q5. From this piece, we can conclude that Nagel’s essay is – 

(a)Narrative

(b) Argumentative

(c) Expository

(d) Descriptive

Q6. What are the various subjects covered by Nagel in his essay – 

(a) Evaluating pre-existing work on Death as a subject

(b)Evaluating different situations before associating death with pain

(c) Knowledge that can avoid or help reduce pain of losing someone

(d) The way to live life & avoid regrets in death

(a) i & iii

(b) i, iii & iv

(c)  ii & iv

(d) i, iii & iv

Q7. Which of the following is not a part of the hypothesis put forward by Nagel to analyse Death as a subject? 

(a) Nagel uses analogy to define evil which is associated with death

(b) Nagel believes death can be considered normal when compared with essence of life

(c) Accepting the pain that comes with death, & understanding that its inevitable early on in life

(d) Accepting the inevitability of death

Q8. The last paragraph of this essay has been deleted. Which of the following ideas will help complete it – 

(a) How Nagel’s paper was ground-breaking and helped develop an understanding of Death

(b) How Nagel’s paper helped establish a philosophical guideway for both young & old to understand the concept of death & life

(c) Real life examples where Nagel’s work is cited & how it has evolved over the years

(d) Critics of Nagel’s work & ideology

PASSAGE 3

In order to understand Hume’s critique of the belief in miracles, it is crucial to begin by defining what a miracle means. Pojman and Rea (2008) define a miracle as a supernatural event that work beyond human control. This is made clear by several instances in the Bible where miracles are said to have taken place. One such is the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead. It is strongly believed that no human being can rise from the dead meaning that it was a miraculous act for Jesus to resurrect. In this regard, it is apparent that a miracle is based on one’s own reality and faith.

However, Hume being a critic of miracles provides his own interpretation of what miracles means. According to Hume, a miracle is an infringement of the laws of nature, an occurrence, which is abnormal to a majority of humankind (Hume, 1985). Hume makes his point clear when he asserted, “Nothing is esteemed in a miracle if it has ever occurred in the common course of nature…” (Hume, 1985, p.888). He proceeds to state that it is not a miracle when an individual in good health dies a sudden death. Hume claims that despite this death appearing peculiar it is natural. According to his understanding of miracle, he could only define it as a true miracle in case the deceased were to rise from dead the same way Jesus is claimed to have arisen. Hume (1985) argues that this will be considered a miracle because no such event has ever been witnessed. Therefore, Hume’s critique of miracle is purely based on his belief that miracles go against the laws of nature.

Peter Ivan Inwagen criticizes Hume’s understanding of miracles when Hume states that a miracle pertains to events, which run contrary to the experience of humankind. Inwagen criticizes this idea arguing that seeing what this idea amounts to is not easy. Therefore, by failing to find any other meaning of ‘contrary to experience’ capable of proving Hume’s assertions, Inwagen concludes that Hume’s understanding of miracles is a fallacy (Pojman and Rea, 2008).

In defending his philosophy of what a true miracle means Hume provides four reasons to prove his claims. In his first criticism of miracles, Homes argue that there has never been a witness of a miraculous event throughout history to prove that a miracle has ever happened. Secondly, Hume disputes the existence of a miracle arguing that all that people chose to accept or believe in are based on experience and history. Hume’s third reason contradicting the belief in a miracle is based on testimony versus reality. In his argument, he states that what used to be considered miracles in the past can no longer be considered so in the present world or future. He claims that what somebody might have considered a miracle in the past must have been based on the individual’s perceptions and beliefs at that given time, which is bound to change with time. Lastly, Hume discredits the belief in miracles arguing that for miracles to be said to have happened, there must be several witnesses to prove the miracle. In fact, Hume narrates several incidences that are claimed to have been miraculous while criticizing them using his four reasoning against miracles (Hume, 1985).

Of all his reasons discrediting the belief in a miracle, I find the fourth point to be the most plausible. This is because, for us to belief that a questionable event like a miracle has happened witnesses must be present to prove the event otherwise the happening would not amount to a miracle.

Q9. Which of the following would Hume consider a miracle? 

(a) A physically disabled person winning a race against an athlete

(b) A tea-seller becoming the PM of a country

(c) A person with no prior knowledge or education of Latin being able to fluently communicate in it

(d) None of the above

Q10. Which of the statements do not corroborate with Hume’s views on miracles? 

(a) Miracles are events that do not have spectators or reliable ones

(b) Miracles are events recorded in history subjective to a spectator’s frame of reference

(c) For an event to be adjudged as a miracle, it needs to be adjudged as one across different religions & cultures

(d) For an event to be adjudged as a miracle, people need to question the veracity of the event

Q11. Why does Peter Ivan Inwagen criticize Hume’s understanding of a Miracle as fallacy?

(a) Inwagen describes Hume’s understanding as constricted

(b) Inwagen concludes Hume’s idea of miracles as subjective

(c) Inwagen dismisses Hume’s idea of miracles as open to interpretation & confusing

(d) None of the above

Q12. How does the author view Hume’s ideas on miracles? 

(a) Logical

(b) Scepticism

(c) Analytical

(d) Critical

                                                                                  PASSAGE 4

KL Rahul and Ishan Kishan hammered scintillating fifties after Mohammed Shami’s three-wicket burst as India registered a seven-wicket win over England in their first warm-up match of the ICC T20 World Cup in Dubai on Monday. However, despite their convincing win, former India wicketkeeper Parthiv Patel pointed out two worries for India. All-rounder Hardik Pandya didn’t bowl, while Bhuvneshwar Kumar went for 54/0 in his quota of four overs.

“I don’t think Hardik is going to bowl in the first few games looking at the way Virat Kohli has used only five bowlers,” said Parthiv Patel during the mid-innings interval. “Yes, I’m worried about Bhuvneshwar Kumar. He looks in the kind of form which he had in the IPL, where he took just six wickets, but yeah, he looked out of rhythm, almost as if didn’t practice. “We might just see Shardul Thakur in the next game. It might be a combination that we might see,& quote Parthiv added.

Kishan smashed an unbeaten 46-ball 70, while KL Rahul (51 off 24) and Rishabh Pant (29 off 14) also chipped in as

India chased down 188 runs with six balls to spare. Earlier, Jonny Bairstow smashed a 36-ball 49 and Moeen Ali hit a whirlwind 20-ball 43 to help England post 188 for 5 after being sent in to bat.

For India, besides Shami (3/40), fellow pacer Jasprit Bumrah (1/26) and spinner Rahul Chahar (1/43) were also among the wicket-takers. India will play their second warm-up game against Australia on October 20.

Q13. Give the antonym of the word “scintillating” as used in the passage.

(a) Lackluster

(b) Effulgent

(c) Gossamer

(d) Zaftig

Q14.  Which cricketer is being described as “jack-of-all-trades”?

(a) KL Rahul

(b) Jasprit Bumrah

(c) Hardik Pandya

(d) Ishan Kishan

Q15.  Fill in the blank with the most suitable option as per the given passage.

Moeen Ali hit a _____ 20-ball 43 to help England post 188 for 5 after being sent in to bat.

(a) Plodding

(b) Blistering

(c) Adamantine

(d) Dillydallying

Q16.  Describe the tone of the author.

(a) Belligerent

(b) Pessimistic

(c) Descriptive

(d) Critical

Q17.  Who were the wicket-takers in the match?

  1. Jasprit Bumrah
  2. Rishabh Pant

III. Rahul Chahar

(a) Only I

(b) Both I and II

(c) Both II and III

(d) None of the these

                                                                     PASSAGE 5

When ace photographer Balan Madhavan says an apartment at the heart of the city is his work space, I am puzzled.

How can one work amidst constant honks and beeps, I wonder? But step into the apartment-cum-work studio and you realise that although his studio at Ambujavilasam road is in the thick of things, the fact that it’s located on the top floor of the building, helps. It’s an oasis of calm amidst the maddening crowd.

The apartment, he says, belongs to his parents. After his father’s death, he turned it into his work space as his mother rarely uses the place, now. Till then he was working from his home in Vattiyoorkavu. “But it was too far from the city. This space is much more practical for me to hold meetings.”

The living room is spacious with minimum furniture. Bright red curtains flutter in the breeze. Books are neatly arranged on a shelf as pictures and paintings dot the walls. There is a fridge in the corner. His laptop is on the dining table. The living room opens out to a private open terrace, which offers a view of the city and of the distant greenery. “It’s this sense of space that I like; I don’t feel confined. After working on the computer for hours at a stretch, looking into the horizon comes as a sight for sore eyes. Besides, I am at home here,” says Balan about his work space.

When he is not on assignments or shooting in the wild, Balan can be found at the apartment fine-tuning his creations. “Unlike a poet or an artist who can write about or paint a sight that captured their eye later, a nature photographer can’t afford to do so as the image cannot be recreated. It’s not easy to frame Nature in all its charm and vibrancy,” says Balan, who also trains his lens on the ravages on Nature.

The numerous award-winning photographer is currently on a break after completing a coffee table series called Sanctuary For The Soul for Kerala Tourism. The series captures scenes from the four national wildlife sanctuaries in the State – Eravikulam National Park, Silent Valley, Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary and Periyar National Park. The books, says Balan, while portraying the State’s rich biodiversity to the world, emphasises the need for forest conservation.

The dining table is his favourite place to work. “Although I have a Mac Computer in one of the bedrooms, I prefer sitting here as there is a steady breeze if I open the windows and open the door that leads to the terrace. And like I said, I like the ‘open feeling’ in this room.”

So, how is he using his free time? “Well, I am currently reading these Ruskin Bond books. They are autographed by the author himself. I also watch a bit of television.”

Q18. Suggest a suitable title for the passage.

(a) Balan Madhavan, the Ace Photographer

(b) Sense of Space

(c) Apartment-cum-work Studio

(d) Sanctuary For The Soul

Q19.  Give the synonym of the word ‘ravages’ as used in the passage.

(a) Rehabilitates

(b) Scourges

(c) Defacements

(d) Tenebrous

Q20.  What can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Painters can always recreate what they saw in the past.

(b) Painters should recreate what they saw in the past.

(c) It is not possible for photographers to capture ruins of nature.

(d) It is not possible for photographers to recreate nature.

Q21.  Choose the sentence which is grammatically correct.

(a) The living room is spacious with minimal furniture.

(b) The living room is spacious with minutest furniture.

(c) The living room is spacious with minimum furniture.

(d) The living room is spacious with fewer furniture.

Q22.  What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Romantic

(b) Analysing

(c) Euphemistic

(d) Descriptive

                                                                                    PASSAGE 6

Choosing a subject which he has closely observed as an Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of Jammu and Kashmir cadre, Danesh Rana’s debut book “Red Maize” is a compelling story woven around the relentless siege of Kashmir.

The poignant tale chronicles the painful nuances of the conflict, the human cost of the war and the loss of a way of life.

The Harper Collins publication portrays how the militancy and the attempts to curb it, brings common people in the crossfire through Kausar Jan, the protoganist, a mother of three sons. “She is an epitome of sufferings associated with the conflict. For no fault of hers she gets slowly torn apart because her son has decided to wield the gun,” says Danesh. Caught between the undesirable activities of her son and efforts of the security forces to bring him to justice, the author terms her as a metaphor for Kashmir itself. Based largely in Doda district of Jammu, the title signifies how the spilling of blood by both sides has coloured the main crop of the area, maize, around which the lives of the people revolves, to red.

Indoctrination and religious propaganda leads one son to pick up the gun while the other one is forced to wield arms after being tortured by the security forces, an unfortunate victim of circumstances, as Danesh calls him. Having watched the situation up close, he comments: “The initial insurgency in Kashmir was on a genuine belief of securing independence from India. However, the movement drifted at some point and became increasingly criminalised with local youth joining the ranks of militants for varied reasons—the sense of empowerment that comes with wielding a gun, the money, the hero worship, etc. Some of them have been coerced and others brainwashed.”

But what is heart wrenching is the death of the youngest son in a fake encounter. Admitting it to be the saddest part of the story Danesh clarifies: “It is an isolated incident and may not be construed that Army and police often indulges in extra judicial killings. Having said that it is also a fact that fake encounters have happened in Kashmir and there are innumerable instances where cases have been registered against army and police and justice delivered.”

Interwoven with the protagonist’s story, the book presents the plight of ordinary people across all ages and gender while unveiling the interplay of greed, vested interests and enmity. According to Danesh, militancy has created a widespread circle of informers, sources, overground workers, harbourers, couriers, renegades, surrendered and released militants who often indulge in greed, deceit, betrayal and settling of personal scores leading to human rights violations on the part of militants and the security forces.

In his fictional work, the writer reveals that some of the situations are drawn from real life experiences of serving in the State as a police officer but goes on to add that “some of the incidents attributed to both militants and army are aberrations and not the norm.”

Giving his personal take on the lingering complex problem in the State, he concludes the solution is partly military and mostly political. “Sincere dialogue with all the stake holders getting a level playing field will solve this vexed issue. Solution can only be achieved with a little bit of flexibility on stated positions.” Hope he is heard in the New Year.

Q23.  Suggest a suitable title for the passage.

(a) The ordeals of a Mother

(b) Stain of Blood

(c) 2 Sons in Kashmir

(d) Writer Danesh Rana

Q24.  Fill in the blank with the most suitable option.

The poignant tale _____ the painful nuances of the conflict.

(a) Narrates

(b) Run

(c) Carry

(d) Describe

Q25.  Give the antonym of the word “relentless” as given in the passage.

(a) Unflinching

(b) Embellished

(c) Charlatan

(d) Yielding

Q26.  What do you infer from the third paragraph?

(a) Youth is always forced to join ranks of militants.

(b) Youth joins ranks of militants to earn money or get sense of power.

(c) Youth joins ranks of militants because they are convinced by their families to earn money.

(d) None of these

Q27.  What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) Troubles in Kashmir explained in a novel

(b) Troubles in Kashmir explained in Danesh Rana’s debut book “Red Maize”

(c) The plight of Kashmir

(d) An epitome of sufferings

                                                                                   PASSAGE 7

Greetings from Goa! I’m sitting on the beach, enjoying the sun and wondering what travelling in the New Year has in store for me.

Travelling, for me, is about exploring, getting lost and stumbling across places that locals frequent — places that you won’t find in a guide book and that only someone who lives there would know. What does this have to do with the Internet, you might be wondering. Quite a lot, actually. Most of my wandering is semi-planned, using social media. I love the serendipitous nature of discovery and making connections that might normally never happen, except via social networks. Instagram is my network of choice, and is where I plan my travels and connect with people who can help me find those _____ gems that make any journey that much more memorable.

So how can you travel like a local using Instagram? The first step is to download the app on your smartphone or tablet. Instagram works best used on a mobile device, and their website does pretty much nothing, by design. The app has become consistently better with each new version. Finding things on Instagram used to be a nightmare, but this has improved and is now much better.

Searching on Instagram happens in three different ways. You can search for people, tags and places. People are not too helpful, unless you know who you’re looking for, so we’ll ignore it for now.

Let’s start with places. A lot of cities, jurisdictions and regions have their own Instagram accounts. I was travelling in the Italian Riviera in October, for example, and found the Instagram account for the region – @riveligure. I followed them and went through their feed to find likely places to visit. This is a great visual way to plan a trip. The other exciting thing that places do is show photos around your general vicinity. On a weekend, it’s a great way to see where people are posting from, and make your way to the party hotspots.

Much like Twitter, Instagram also uses hashtags for discovery. The tags search feature is pretty intuitive and extremely useful. If you search for a tag, or part of a tag, like Tokyo for instance, Instagram will show you all the

hashtags that contain the word you’re looking for. It will also show you the number of posts that have been tagged with each particular hashtag. Using these hashtags, you can find the niche ones that locals use, look at where they go, and what they recommend.

When I find photos I like and people that look like they go to some great places, I follow them and start talking to them on Instagram. This is how I’ve often found some of the best places I’ve been to while travelling.

Q28.  Suggest a suitable title for the passage.

(a) Exploring Goa

(b) Virtual Travelling on Instagram

(c) Travel like a Local Using Instagram

(d) Instagram Hashtags

Q29.  Give the antonym of the word “serendipitous” as used in the passage.

(a) Deliberate

(b) Convenient

(c) Coincidental

(d) Nomadic

Q30. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) Travelling helps one to explore one’s personality

(b) Visiting unexplored places like a townie

(c) Connecting with locals on Instagram

(d) Learning to use Instagram Hashtags

Q31.  What do you infer by the statement – “People are not too helpful”?

(a) People trust strangers unless they are armed.

(b) People are not friendly.

(c) People will help you only if they know you.

(d) People don’t want to help travellers.

Q32.  Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

I plan my travels and connect with people who can help me find those _____ gems that make any journey that much more memorable.

(a) Well-known path

(b) Well-known paths

(c) Unknown paths

(d) off-the-beaten-path

 

                                                                             GRAMMAR:

Direction for Questions: In the following sentences a word or phrase is written in italicised letters. For each italicised part four words/phrases are listed below each sentence. Choose the word nearest in meaning to italicised part.

Q33. Incensed by his rude behaviour the manager suspended the work. 

(a) Enthused 

(b) Enraged 

(c) Inflamed 

(d) Excited 

Q34. The maidservant left the police station contrite. 

(a) Penitent

(b) Sore 

(c) Angry 

(d) Remorseless 

Q35. The villagers offered us an excellent repast. 

(a)Pass time 

(b) As good meal

(c) Entertainment 

(d) Fate 

Q36. He soon got fed up with his sedantry job. 

(a) involving sitting

(b) Moving

(c) Roving 

(d) drab 

Q37. The communal politics has done imponderable loss to the unity of India. 

(a) incalculable

(b) invaluable 

(c) irreparable 

(d) invulnerable 

Q38. One must not be callous to womenfolk. 

(a) Kind 

(b) Hard hearted

(c) Magnanimous

(d) Benevolent

Q39. In exasperation she railed at the shopkeeper. 

(a) Irritation

(b) Humorous

(c) Pleasure

(d) Jovial

Q40. Furtive glances were exchanged between the lovers at the feast. 

(a) Known 

(b) Secret

(c) Unsuspecting 

(d) Open

Q41. Which of the following is not source of cash?

(a) Issue of shares

(b) Purchase of Machinery

(c) Sale of Asset

(d) Dividend received

Q42. Cash from operating activities consists of:

(a) Operating Profit

(b) Decrease/Increase in Current Assets

(c) Decrease/Increase in Current Assets

(d) All of the Above

Q43. While calculating operating profit which will be added to net profit

(a) Profit on Sale of Asset

(b) Increase in General Reserves

(c) Interest received

(d) Refund of Tax

Q44. Cash from Operating activities will decrease due to:

(a) Increase in Current Assets

(b) Decrease in Current Liabilities

(c) Neither of the two

(d) Both (a) and (b) above

Q45. The statement of cash flows clarifies cash flows according to

(a) Operating and non-operating flows

(b) Investing and non-operating flows

(c) Inflows and outflows

(d) Operating, investing and financing activities

Q46. This item is not used as a tool for Analysis of Financial Statements:

(a) Cash Flow Statement

(b) Fund Flow Statement

(c) Ratio Analysis

(d) No. of Employees Statement

Q47. Which one of the following items is not a method/tool of analysis of financial statements?

(a) Trend Analysis

(b) Statement of Affairs

(c) Cash Flow Statement

(d) Comparative Statements

Q48. Which one of the following items is not a method/tool of analysis of financial statements?

(a) Fund Flow Statement

(b) Common Size Statement

(c) Statement of Trade Receivables

(d) Cash Flow Statement

Q49. Common Size Statements are prepared

(a) In the form of Ratios

(b) In the form of Percentages

(c) In both of the Above

(d) None of the Above

Q50. In the Statement of Profit & Loss of a Common Size Statement:

(a) Figure of net revenue from operations is assumed to be equal to 100

(b) Figure of gross profit is assumed to be equal to 100

(c) Figure of net profit is assumed to be equal to 100

(d) Figure of assets is assumed to be equal to 100

Q51. What will be the trend percentage, if the Inventory of a firm is ?2,00,000; ?2,40,000; ?3,00,000 and ?4,00,000 respectively?

(a) 1, 1.2, 1.5,2

(b) 10, 12, 15, 20

(c) 100, 120, 150, 200

(d) None of the Above

Q52. If net revenue from operations of a firm are ₹1,20,0 00; cost of revenue from operations is ₹66,000 and operating expenses are ₹21,600, what will be the percentage of operating income on net revenue from operations?

(a) 55%

(b) 45%

(c) 73%

(d) 27%

Q53. The objective of common size Statement of Profit & Loss is not to

(a) Present Changes in Various items of incomes and expenses

(b) Judge the cost items

(c) Establish relationship between revenue from operations and other items of statement of profit & loss

(d) Judge the relative financial soundness for different enterprises

Q54. According to SEBI guidelines, a Company will have to create debenture redemption reserve equivalent to the amount of the following percentage of debenture issued:

(a) 50%

(b) 25%

(c) 70%

(d) 100%

Q55. The balance of ‘Sinking Fund Account’ after the redemption of debentures is transferred to:

(a) Profit & Loss Account

(b) Profit & Loss Appropriation Account

(c) General Reserve Account

(d) Sinking Fund Account

Q56. If debenture of ₹ 1, 00,000 were issued for discount of ₹ 10,000, which are redeemable after four years. Then amount of discount to be written off from P. & L. Account each year is:

(a) ₹ 3,000

(b) ₹ 4,000

(c) ₹ 2,500

(d) ₹ 5,000

Q57. Premium on redemption of debentures is generally provided at the time of ……………

(a) Issue of debentures

(b) Redemption of debentures

(c) Writing off

(d) After 10 years

Q58. Sources of finance of the redemption of debentures are:

(a) Redemption out of profits

(b) Redemption out of capital

(c) The proceeds from fresh issue of shares/debentures

(d) All the above

Q59. Profit on sale of Sinking Fund Investment is transferred to:

(a) Profit & Loss Account

(b) General Reserve

(c) Sinking Fund Account

(d) Capital Reserve

Q60. When debentures are issued at par and are redeemable at a premium, the loss on such an issue is debited to:

(a) Profit & Loss A/c

(b) Debenture Application and Allotment A/c

(c) Loss on Issue of Debentures A/c

(d) Premium on Redemption A/c

Q61. Profit on sale of debentures redemption fund investment in the first instance in credited to:

(a) Debenture Redemption Fund A/c

(b) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c

(c) General Reserve A/c

(d) Sinking Fund A/c

Q62. Profit on cancellation of own debentures are:

(a) Revenue Profit

(b) Capital Profit

(c) Operating Profit

(d) Trading Profit

Q63. A company issued 1000, 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each at 10% premium. 12% stand for:

(a) Rate of Dividend

(b) Rate of Tax

(c) Rate of Interest

(d) None of these

Q64. On dissolution, if a partner undertakes to make payment of a liability of the firm, the account to be debited is:

(a) Profit & Loss Account

(b) Realisation Account

(c) Partner’s Capital Account

(d) Cash Account

Q65. On taking responsibility of payment of realization expenses by a partner, the account credited will be:

(a) Realization Account

(b) Cash Account

(c) Capital Account of the Partner

(d) None of the above

Q66. In case a specific fund is maintained, the expenses exceeding the amount of the funds should be recorded on:

(a) Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet

(b) Debit side of the Income and Expenditure Account

(c) Credit side of the Income and Expenditure Account

(d) Assets side of the Balance Sheet

 Q67. Receipts and Payments Account is a:

(a) Personal Account

(b) Real Account

(c) Nominal Account

(d) None of these

 Q68. Payment of honorarium to secretary is treated as:

(a) Capital expenditure

(b) Revenue expenditure

(c) An Income

(d) None of these

 Q69. Legacies should be treated as:

(a) A Liability

(b) A Revenue Receipt

(c) An Income

(d) None of these

 Q70. The excess of assets over liabilities in non-trading concerns is termed as:

(a) Capital Fund

(b) Capital

(c) Profit

(d) Net Profit

 Q71. Entrance fees, unless otherwise stated, is treated as:

(a) A Capital Receipt

(b) A Revenue Income

(c) A Liability

(d) None of these

 Q72. Income and Expenditure Account records transactions of:

(a) Capital nature only

(b) Revenue nature only

(c) (a) and (b) both

(d) None of these

 Q73. All receipts of capital nature are shown in:

(a) Income and Expenditure A/c

(b) Balance Sheet

(c) P. & L. A/c

(d) None of these

 Q74. Which of the following is not a not-for-profit organization?

(a) College

(b) Sports Club

(c) Maruti Udyog

(d) Hospital

 Q75. Which of the following is not an income?

(a) Subscription

(b) Donation

(c) Sale of Ticket

(d) Endowment Fund

 Q76. The main object of non-profit organization is:

(a) To earn Profit

(b) To Serve the Society

(c) To Prepare Profit & Loss A/c

(d) All the above

 Q77. Features of a partnership firm are:

(a) Two or more persons

(b) Sharing profit and losses in the agreed ratio

(c) Business carried on by all or any of them acting for all

(d) All of the above

 Q78. A draws ₹ 1,000 per month on the last day of every month, if the rate of interest is 5% p.a., then the total interest on drawings will be:

(a) ₹ 325

(b) ₹ 275

(c) ₹ 300

(d) ₹ 350

 Q79. Fluctuating capital account is credited with:

(a) Interest on capital

(b) Profit of the year

(c) Remuneration of partners

(d) All of these

 Q80. Calculate interest on drawings @ 12% p.a. for Gambhir if he withdrew 7 2,000 once at the beginning of each month:

(a) 7 1,560

(b) 7 1,500

(c) 7 1,200

(d) 7 1,000

Q81. Management is essential for the organisations which are: 

(a) Service organisations

(b) Manufacturing organisation

(c) Profit organisation

(d) All the above

Q82. Which one of the following is the financial incentive?

(a) Job security

(b) Appraisal

(c) Stock incentive

(d) Promotion

Q83. The primary function of management is known as: 

(a) Organising

(b) Planning

(c) Staffing 

(d) Controlling

Q84. Which of the following is leadership style?

(a) Autocratic or authoritative leadership

(b) Participative or democratic leadership

(c) Free rein or laissez-faire leadership

(d) All the Above

Q85. Wealth maximisation depends on: 

(a) Market price of goods

(b) Market price per share

(c) Market price of inventory

(d) None

Q86. Which one of the following is an internal source of recruitment?

(a) Personal contacts

(b) Employee recommendations

(c) Transfer

(d) Campus recruitment

Q87. Which indicates the importance of business environment?

(a) Coping with rapid changes

(b) Improvement in the performance

(c) Either A or B

(d) Both A & B

Q88. The basic objective of staffing process

(a) Fill job position

(b) Match employee skills with necessary tasks

(c) Maintain filled positions

(d) All the above

Q89. Which test is used for Selection of Employees?

(a) Intelligence Test

(b) discriminatory Test

(c) Mental Test

(d) All the above

Q90. Next step in the management process after organizing is

(a) Directing

(b) Staffing

(c) Controlling

(d) Planning

Q91. How many levels of hierarchical of an organisation are there:

(a) 5

(b) 4 

(c) 3

(d) 6

Q92. Who is the father of General Management?

(a) Henry Fayol

(b) F.W. Taylor

(c) Gilberth

(d) prof. Dicey

Q93. Which one is related to planning, organising, directing and controlling of financial activities?

(a) Financial management

(b) Financial Decisions

(c) Financial meetings

(d) All the above

Q94. In the Training Method which is not the on-job method:

(a) Coaching

(b) Apprenticeship Programmes

(c) Computer Modelling

(d) Job Rotation

Q95. Which type of learning is management development concerned with?

(a) Inventory development

(b) Specific job skill development

(c) Manual skill development

(d) Multi-skill development

Q96. Controlling is a systematic process involving _____steps?

(a) 6

(b) 5

(c) 3

(d) 8

Q97. Which Act is related to consumer’s protection?

(a) Mercantile Law

(b) Consumer protection Act, 1986

(c) Consumer protection Act, 1987

(d) Indian Partnership Act, 1932

Q98. Vestibule training is relevant to which group of persons

(a) Top management

(b) Operatives

(c) Middle management

(d) Supervisory management

Q99. After Recruitment, what is the next step in staffing process?

(a) Performance Appraisal

(b) Training and Development

(c) Selection

(d) Controlling

Q100. A process of increasing knowledge and skills is known as:

(a) Development

(b) Training

(c) Case Study

(d) None

Q101. Which one is Modern technique of controlling?

(a) Management audit

(b) Personal observation

(c) Budgetary control

(d) None

Q102. A statement of what an organization expects to sell in terms of quantity as well as value is called:

(a) Sales Budget

(b) Production Budget

(c) Material Budget

(d) None

Q103. Which is not the Characteristics of Coordination?

(a) Coordination is a continuous process

(b) Coordination integrates group efforts

(c) Coordination never ensures unity of action

(d) Coordination is an all-pervasive function.

Q104. Which one of the following is not an example of Informal organisation?

(a) Meet in the cafeteria for coffee

(b) Clubs or social networks

(c) Play cricket matches on Sundays

(d) A working company

Q105. Money required for carrying out business activities is called? 

(a) Business Finance

(b) Assets Management

(c) Financial Management

(d) None

Q106. Which of the following is not a feature of planning?

(a) Planning is goal-oriented

(b) Achievement of Common Objectives 

(c) Planning is futuristic

(d) Planning is an intellectual process

Q107. A process of learning and growth is known as:

(a) Development

(b) Training

(c) Case Study

(d) None

Q108. What are the Qualities of a Good Leader?

(a) Richness

(b) Sluggishness

(c) Anti-social

(d) Integrity

Q109. Capital structure shows:

(a) Common stock

(b) Long-term debt

(c) Short-term debt

(d) All the above

Q110. ’The Essence of Management’ is known as:

(a) Co-ordination

(b) Planning

(c) Staffing

(d) None

Q111. Raw materials are categorized as:

(a) Current Assets

(b) Current Liability

(c) Prepaid Expenses

(d) Indirect Expenses

Q112. ’Leadership is the activity of influencing people to strive willingly for group objectives’ said by

(a) George Terry

(b) Glueck

(c) Gay and Strake

(d) Harold Koontz and Heinz Weihrich

Q113. Objective is the type of plan which represents the end point of: 

(a) Organising

(b) Directing

(c) Planning

(d) Staffing

Q114. The Consumer Protection act came into force from?

(a) 1987

(b) 1986

(c) 1999

(d) 2000

Q115. People in the organisations work with the aim to achieve the:

(a) Own Objective

(b) Common Objective

(c) Both

(d) None

Q116. Chief Executive Officer operates on which level of management?

(a) Top level

(b) Middle level

(c) Lower level

(d) None

Q117. Process of converting encoded symbols of the sender is called?

(a) Feedback

(b) Decoding

(c) Encoding

(d) None

Q118. Who is the father of scientific management? 

(a) Henry Fayol

(b) F.W. Taylor

(c) Gilberth

(d) prof. Dicey

Q119. What is the next steps after planning in management

(a) Directing

(b) Controlling

(c) Organising

(d) Staffing

Q120.Which of the following is not the part of the marketing mix?

(a) Price

(b) Publicity

(c) Product

(d) Promotion

Q121. What is the shape of the Keynes Aggregate Supply before the level of full employment is attained?
(a) Perfectly inelastic 

(b) Perfectly elastic
(c) Unitary elastic
(d) More elastic

Q122. What will be APC when APS = 0? 

(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) Infinite

Q123. If the income is ₹ 400 crores and consumption is ₹ 250 crores, what will be the APC?                                  
(a) 0.67
(b) 0.63
(c) 0.60
(d) 0.58

Q124. What is a fiscal measure of correcting deficient demand? 

(a) Increase in public expenditure and decrease in taxes

(b) Decrease in public debt

(c) Deficit financing
(d) All of these

Q125. Which is the measure of correcting excess demand? 

(a) Deficit financing 

(b) Reduction in taxes

(c) Increase in public expenditure
(d) Increase in public debt

Q126. The market value of all final goods and services produced in an economy over a year is called:               

(a) Gross National Product

(b) National Income

(c) Gross Domestic Product

(d) Net National Product

Q127. If for a country net factor income from abroad is negative then:
(a) GDP < GNP
(b) GDP > GNP
(c) GDP ≥ GNP
(d) GDP = GNP

Q128. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Disposable Income = Personal Income – Direct Taxes                                                                              
(b) Disposable Income = Private Income – Direct Taxes                                                
(c) Disposable Income = Personal Income – Indirect Taxes                                                          

(d) Disposable Income = Private Income – Indirect Taxes

Q129. What is the consumption of fixed capital called?
(a) Capital formation                                                           

(b) Depreciation                                                                                                                   

(c) Investment                                                                                                                        

(d) All of these

Q130. Net National Income at Factor Cost is called?
(a) National Income                                                                

(b) Gross Investment                                                                                                               

(c) Domestic Income                                                                                                                     

(d) None of these

Q131. The market price of all final goods of a country in a year is known as:
(a) GDPMP
(b) GDPFC
(c) NNPFC
(d) None of these

Q132. Which service is included in Tertiary Sector?
(a) Mining                                                                 

(b) Construction                                                                                                                                  
(c) Communication                                                                                                                                 
(d) Animal Husbandry

Q133. For a four sectors or open economy the condition for equilibrium is:
(a) Savings + taxes + Imports = Investment + got, expenditure + exports                      
(b) Total Leakages = Total Injections                                
(c) Aggregate output = Aggregate Expenditure
(d) All of these

Q134. Which one is included in the four-sector model?
(a) Family, Firm,Industry                                                                                                                                       

(b) Family, Firm, Government                                                                                                            

(c) Family, Firm, Government, Foreign Sector                                                                                               

(d) None of the above

Q135. Which one is included in the three-sector model?                                                                                     

(a) Family         

(b) Firm                                                                                                                               
(c) Government                                                                                                                                                      (d) All of these

Q136. What are the necessary conditions of Barter System?
(a) Limited Needs                                            
(b) Limited Exchange Area                                                                                                           
(c) Economically Backward Society
(d) All the above

Q137. What are the advantages of Barter System? 

(a) Simple System 

(b) More Mutual Co-operation
(c) No Economic Disparities 

(d) All the above

Q138. Which is the correct order of money evolution? 

(a) Commodity Money, Paper Money, Metal Money
(b) Commodity Money, Metal Money, Paper Money, Credit Money

(c) Credit Money, Metal Money, Paper Money
(d) None of the above

Q139. “Money is what money does.” Who said it?
(a) Hartley Withers

(b) Hawtrey

(c) Thomas
(d) Keynes

Q140. “Money is a pivot around which the whole economy clusters.” Who said it?
(a) Keynes
(b) Robertson
(c) Marshall
(d) Hawtrey

Q141. Which of the following are ‘land tenure systems? 

(a) Zamindari system 

(b) Mahalwari system

(c) Rotwari system 

(d) All of the above

Q142. What is ‘per capital income’? 

(a) Gross income 

(b) Net income

(c) Average income 

(d) None of the above

Q143. The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) were incorporated in: 

(a) 1807
(b) 1870
(c) 1907
(d) 1970

Q144. One of the following was high during the British rule over India:                                                                

(a) Literacy rate 

(b) Female literacy rate

(c) Infant mortality rate 

(d) Life expectancy

Q145. Whose estimate of national income was considered very significant? 

(a) Debadhai Naroji

(b) William Digby

(c) RC Desai

(d) VKRV Rao

Q146. The Industrial policy which worked till 1990 was adopted in: 

(a) 1948
(b) 1951
(c) 1956
(d) 1961

Q147. The licensing policy aimed at: 

(a) Promoting regional equality 

(b) Check undue expansion of industrial sector
(c) Both a) and b) 

(d) None of the above

Q148. When was the planning commission set up? 

(a) 1949
(b) 1950
(c) 1956
(d) 1850

Q149. The first five year plan was launched for a period from _

(a) 1948 – 1953
(b) 1959 – 1954
(c) 1951 – 1956
(d) 1955 – 1960

Q150. Agriculture sector contributed _ percent to the GDP in 1990-91.
(a) 24.6
(b) 34.9
(c) 40.5
(d) 59.0

Q151. Which of the following refers to relaxation of previous government restrictions? 

(a) Privatization 

(b) Globalization

(c) Disinvestment 

(d) Liberalization

Q152. WTO was established in the year____

(a) 1995
(b) 1948
(c) 1996
(d) 1994

Q153. What is the investment limit in small scale industries?
(a) 50 lakh 

(b) 1 core
(c) 25 lakh
(d) 75 core

Q154. When was VAT introduced in most of the States of India?
(a) 1995
(b) 2001
(c) 2005
(d) 2006

Q155. Which organization collects data on poverty in India? 

(a) NSSO
(b) SJSRY
(c) MGNERGA
(d) None of these

Q156. Estimation of Poverty in rural economies is at per day consumption of calories: 

(a) Less than 2200

(b) Less than 2100

(c) Less than 2400

(d) Less than 2000

Q157. In India, which of the following organizations regulates the health sector? 

(a) ICMR
(b) UGC
(c) AICTE
(d) None of these

Q158. The expenditure by the government on education is expressed as: 

(a) Percentage of total government expenditure

(b) Percentage of GDP

(c) Percentage of National Income

(d) Both a) nor b) 

Q159. Which one of the following is an indicator of educational achievement in a country? 

(a) Youth Literacy Rate

(b) Adult Literacy Rate

(c) Primary Completion Rate

(d) All of these

Q160. In the year ___________ Indian Government made free and compulsory education for age group of 6 – 14 years. 

(a) 2001
(b) 2009
(c) 2003
(d) 2007

Q161. If (1/3.197) = 0.3127, find the value of (1/0.0003197).

(a) 3127

(b) 3197

(c) 312.7

(d) 0.3127

Q162. The two lines 4x+3y=0 and 7x+5y=0 will ______ in their graphical representation.

(a) be parallel to each other

(b) intersect each other at one point only

(c) intersect each other at three points only

(d) coincide each other

Q163. If the two lines px + 6y+3=0 and 2x + qy+3=0 have infinite solutions then find the value of p and q respectively.

(a) 2,6

(b) 6,2

(c) 2,2

(d) 6,6

Q164. Which of the following triangle has the maximum area when inscribed inside the circle of same radius?

(a) Scalene

(b) Isosceles

(c) Equilateral

(d) Right angled

Q165. Which of the following ratio correctly depicts the division of each median of the triangle by the centroid?

(a) 1:2

(b) 1:3

(c) 2:1

(d) 3:1

Q166. If A is 40% more than B, then B are how much percent less than A?

(a) 28.57%

(b) 40%

(c) 33.33%

(d) 66.66%

Q167. If (4/5)A = 3B = (2/3)C, then what is A : B : C?

(a) 12 : 3 : 16

(b) 12 : 45 :10

(c) 15 : 4 : 18

(d) 9 : 12 : 16

Q168. A mixture of alcohol and water contains 7% alcohol. How much mixture (in litres) is required to get 357 litres of alcohol?

(a) 6300

(b) 4200

(c) 4900

(d) 5100

Q169. A sum of money becomes 77/50 of itself in 18/5 years when invested at simple interest. What is the rate (in percentage) of interest per annum?

(a) 20%

(b) 18%

(c) 12%

(d) 15%

Q170. The ratio of the cost price and selling price of a bulb is 15 : 18. What is the profit percentage?

(a) 16.66%

(b) 14.28%

(c) 20%

(d) 22%

Q171. A shopkeeper offers the following 3 schemes. Which scheme has the maximum discount percentage?

  1. Two successive discount of 20% and 25%
  2. Buy 5 get 3 free

III. Buy 5 get 6

(a) Only II

(b) Only I

(c) Only I and II

(d) Only I and III

Q172.

(a) 5/11

(b) 5/22

(c) 5/7

(d) 5/33

Q173. M can complete 3/4 part of a work in 12 days and N can complete 2/7 part of the same work in 8 days. In how many days will both complete 11/14 part of the total work?

(a) 8

(b) 9

(c) 7

(d) 6

Q174. A train starts moving from a place X at 7:00 a.m. and arrives at another place Y at 1:00 p.m. on the same day. If the speed of the train is 15 m/s, then what will be the distance (in km) covered by the train?

(a) 324

(b) 375

(c) 390

(d) 245

Directions (175-178): The HR department of an MNC prepared a report. The pie chart from this report shows number of employees the MNC has in different countries. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

Q175. The maximum number of employees are from which country?

(a) F

(b) C

(c) D

(d) A

Q176. What is the total number of employees of the MNC?

(a) 400

(b) 600

(c) 500

(d) 300

Q177. The measure of the central angle of the sector representing country F is ________ degrees.

(a) 48

(b) 80

(c) 60

(d) 56

Q178. If the average monthly salary of the employees of this MNC is $6000 then what is the total of the salaries (in $ millions) paid to all the employees of this MNC?

(a) 36

(b) 1.8

(c) 3.6

(d) 18

Q179. If the lengths of the two parallel sides of a trapezium are 8 cm and 10 cm and its area is 54 cm². Find the distance between its parallel sides (in cm).

(a) 6

(b) 3

(c) 12

(d) 9

Q180.  ΔPQR is right angled at Q. If ∠R = 45°, then find the value of (tan P – 1/2).

(a) (2-√3)/√3

(b) (2√3-√6)/2√2

(c) 1/2

(d) (√6-6)/3√3

Q181. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

45 : 20 : : 46 : ?

(a) 32

(b) 28

(c) 24

(d) 22

Q182. In the following question, select the related letter/letters from the given alternatives.

IMO : PTV : : KOQ : ?

(a) QUX

(b) SVW

(c) RVX

(d) RUW

Q183. In the following question, four number pairs are given. The number on left side of (–) is related to the number on the right side of (–) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

(a) 58 – 62

(b) 18 – 22

(c) 24 – 28

(d) 36 – 42

Q184. In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

(a) EHL

(b) JMP

(c) SVY

(d) QTW

Q185. From the given alternatives, according to dictionary, which word will come at LAST position?

  1. Jailor
  2. Javelin
  3. Jam
  4. Jagged
  5. Jacket

(a) Javelin

(b) Jailor

(c) Jacket

(d) Jagged

Q186. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

6578, 4381, 2653, ?, 322

(a) 1322

(b) 1653

(c) 1326

(d) 1632

Q187. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

FH, KM, PR, UW,?

(a) ZB

(b) YA

(c) XZ

(d) YC

Q188. Six boys are sitting in a row facing south. Gaurav is second to the right of Akash who is at one of the end. Prem is at fourth position to the left of Raman. Jatin and Nitin sit together. How many boys are sitting to the left of Nitin?

(a) 4

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) Cannot be determined

Q189. In a certain code language, “CAB” is written as “6” and “LAN” is written as “27”. How is “FAN” written in that code language?

(a) 20

(b) 21

(c) 22

(d) 23

Q190. In a certain code language, ‘÷’ represents ‘+’, ‘-‘ represents ‘x’, ‘+’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘x’ represents ‘-‘. Find out the answer to the following question.

17 – 8 + 2 x 9 ÷ 8 = ?

(a) 7

(b) 40

(c) 67

(d) 32

Q191. The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation?

17 x 6 + 2 – 9 ÷ 2 = 44

(a) – and +

(b) ÷ and x

(c) x and –

(d) + and ÷

Q192. If 1!9 = -80, 2!8 = -60 and 8!1 = 70, then find the value of 3!2 = ?

(a) -20

(b) -120

(c) 100

(d) 10

Q193. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

QRPQPQPQP, QPRQPQPQP, QPQRPQPQP, QPQPRQPQP, QPQPQRPQP, _______________.

(a) QPQPQPRQP

(b) RQPQPQPQP

(c) QRPQPQPQP

(d) QPRQPQPQP

Q194. A street vendor pushes his cart 2 km South, then he turns East and walks 2.5 km, then he turns North and walks 1 km, then he turns to his left and walks 2.5 km. Where is he with respect to his starting point?

(a) 3 km South

(b) 1 km North

(c) 3 km North

(d) 1 km South

Q195. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: All pancakes are bread

Statement II: Some pizzas are pancakes

Conclusion I: No bread are pizzas

Conclusion II: Some pizzas are bread

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(c) Both conclusions I and II follow

(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Q196. In the following figure, rectangle represents Authors, circle represents Food stylists, triangle represents Potters and square represents Cricketers. Which set of letters represents Authors who are either Food stylists or Potters?

(a) ACH

(b) AC

(c) CH

(d) C

Q197. In the following question, four groups of three numbers are given. In each group the second and third number are related to the first number by a Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

(a) (4, 17, 13)

(b) (6, 19, 15)

(c) (15, 28, 25)

(d) (11, 24, 20)

Q198. In a certain code language, ‘-‘ represents ‘+’, ‘+’ represents ‘x’, ‘x’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘-‘. Find out the answer to the following question.

13 – 14 + 15 x 70 ÷ 14 = ?

(a) 4

(b) 2

(c) 47

(d) 6

Q199. The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation?

8 ÷ 2 – 50 x 6 + 16 = 50

(a) + and ÷

(b) – and +

(c) + and x

(d) ÷ and x

Q200. If 60#40 = 10, 40#20 = 6 and 60#90 = 15, then find the value of 40#30 = ?

(a) 15

(b) 12

(c) 18

(d) 7

Q201. Disguised unemployment generally means___________.

(a) Large number of people remain unemployed

(b) alternative employment is NOT available

(c) marginal productivity of labour is zero

(d) Productivity of workers is low

Q202. Which of the following Pratyahara king took the title of ‘Pramana’?

(a) Mihirbhoj

(b) Watsaraj

(c) Ram Bhoj

(d) Nagabhata II

Q203. Which Asian country has recently imposed its longest power cut since 1996?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Indonesia

(c) Sri Lanka

(d) Afghanistan

Q204. Equinox means the date when ___________.

(a) duration of day and night are equal

(b) day is longer than the night

(c) night is longer than the day

(d) it is the shortest day and the shortest night of the year

Q205. Which of the following countries does NOT has the international border with India?

(a) Pakistan

(b) Bangladesh

(c) Bhutan

(d) Sri Lanka

Q206. Where was Guru Nanak Dev (the originator of Sikh religion) born?

(a) Amritsar

(b) Anandpur Sahib

(c) Talwandi

(d) Patna Sahib

Q207. Which of the following countries border touches with China?

(a) Uzbekistan

(b) Nepal

(c) Myanmar

(d) South Korea

Q208. Polycot is a mixture of which among the following?

(a) Polyester and cotton

(b) Polyester and wool

(c) Rayon and cotton

(d) Rayon and wool

Q209. Which of the following is Inexhaustible Natural Resources?

(a) Air

(b) Minerals

(c) Forests

(d)  Coal

Q210. According to Dr. Ambedkar which Article is the most important article of Indian constitution?

(a) Article 21

(b) Article 24

(c) Article 32

(d) Article 256

Q211. Archaeological site named Xiamabei, which was in the news recently, is located in which country?

(a) Japan

(b) Vietnam

(c) Sumatra

(d) China

Q212. Which of the following relation is true regarding the amounts of genetic material contributed by the father and mother to the child?

(a) Father  >> Mother

(b) Father <<  Mother

(c) Father = Mother

(d) No relation can be determined.

Q213. Which city is the host of Mobile World Congress (MWC) 2022?

(a) Paris

(b) Barcelona

(c) Delhi

(d) Dubai

Q214. The day-to-day condition of the atmosphere at a place with respect to the temperature, humidity, rainfall, wind speed, etc., is called the ________________ at that place.

(a) Climate

(b) Ecology

(c) Environment

(d) Weather

Q215. Baking soda is used ______.

  1. for making baking powder
  2. in soda-acid fire extinguishers

III. to neutralize excess acid in the stomach

(a) Only I and II

(b) Only I and III

(c) Only II and III

(d) All I, II and III

Q216. What are the minimum qualifications of a person to become a member of Lok Sabha?

  1. Must be a citizen of India
  2. Must not be less than 25 years of age

III. Must hold an office of profit under Union Government.

(a) Both I and II

(b) Both I and III

(c) Both II and III

(d) All I, II and III

Q217.  In Indian parliamentary system, the leader of the largest opposition party having not less than _______ seats of total strength of the house is recognized as the leader of the opposition in that House.

(a) 1/10th

(b) 1/9th

(c) 1/8 th

(d) 1/7 th

Q218. What is regulated by the sphincter muscle in the stomach?

(a) Exit of the food from the stomach

(b) Entry of food in the stomach

(c) Mixing of food in the stomach

(d) Exit of food from the large intestine

Q219. ______ of species is a reflection of their evolutionary relationships.

(a) Characteristics

(b) Adaptation

(c) Illustration

(d) Classification

Q220. Which Indian city has been ranked second-most noise polluted city globally, as per the UNEP ‘Annual Frontier Report, 2022’?

(a) Delhi

(b) Mumbai

(c) Moradabad

(d) Calcutta

CUET Sample Paper 2022 with Answers 

S1. Ans. (d) S2. Ans. (d) S3. Ans. (a) S4. Ans. (d) S5. Ans. (b) S6. Ans. (a) S7. Ans. (c) S8. Ans. (b)
S9. Ans. (d) S10. Ans. (c) S11. Ans. (b) S12. Ans. (c) S13. Ans. (a) S14. Ans. (c) S15. Ans. (b) S16. Ans. (c)
S17. Ans. (d) S18. Ans. (a) S19. Ans. (c) S20. Ans. (d) S21. Ans. (c) S22. Ans. (d) S23. Ans. (b) S24. Ans. (a)
S25. Ans. (d) S26. Ans. (b) S27. Ans. (b) S28. Ans. (c) S29. Ans. (a) S30. Ans. (b) S31. Ans. (c) S32. Ans. (d)
S33. Ans.  (b)  S34. Ans.  (a)  S35. Ans.  (b)  S36. Ans.  (a)  S37. Ans.  (a)  S38. Ans.  (b)  S39. Ans. (a)  S40. Ans.  (b) 
S41. Ans. (b) S42. Ans. (d)  S43. Ans. (b)  S44. Ans. (d)  S45. Ans. (d)  S46. Ans. (d)  S47. Ans. (b)  S48. Ans. (c) 
S49. Ans. (b)  S50. Ans. (a)  S51. Ans. (c)  S52. Ans. (d)  S53. Ans. (d)  S54. Ans. (b)  S55. Ans. (c)  S56. Ans. (c) 
S57. Ans. (b)  S58. Ans. (d)  S59. Ans. (c)  S60. Ans. (c)  S61. Ans. (a)  S62. Ans. (b)  S63. Ans. (c)  S64. Ans. (b) 
S65. Ans. (c)  S66. Ans. (b)  S67. Ans. (b) S68. Ans. (b)  S69. Ans. (a)  S70. Ans. (a)  S71. Ans. (b)  S72. Ans. (b) 
S73. Ans. (b)  S74. Ans. (c)  S75. Ans. (d)  S76. Ans. (b)  S77. Ans. (d)  S78. Ans. (b)  S79. Ans. (d)  S80. Ans. (a) 
S81.Ans. (d) S82.Ans. (c)  S83.Ans. (b) S84.Ans. (d)  S85.Ans. (b) S86.Ans. (c)  S87.Ans. (d)  S88.Ans. (d) 
S89.Ans. (a) S90.Ans. (b) S91.Ans.(c) S92.Ans. (a)  S93.Ans. (a)  S94.Ans. (c) S95.Ans. (d) S96.Ans. (b) 
S97.Ans. (b)  S98.Ans. (b)  S99.Ans. (c)  S100.Ans. (b)  S101.Ans. (a)  S102.Ans. (a)  S103.Ans. (c) S104.Ans. (d) 
S105.Ans. (a)  S106.Ans. (b)  S107.Ans. (a)  S108.Ans. (d)  S109.Ans. (d)  S110.Ans. (a) S111.Ans. (a)  S112.Ans. (a) 
S113.Ans. (c)  S114.Ans. (b)  S115.Ans. (b)  S116.Ans. (a)  S117.Ans. (b)  S118.Ans. (b) S119.Ans. (c)  S120.Ans. (b) 
S121. Ans. (b)  S122. Ans. (a)  S123. Ans. (b)  S124. Ans. (d)  S125. Ans. (d)  S126. Ans. (c)  S127. Ans. (b)  S128. Ans. (a) 
S129. Ans. (b)  S130. Ans. (a)  S131. Ans. (a)  S132. Ans. (c)  S133. Ans. (d)  S134. Ans. (c)  S135. Ans. (d)  S136. Ans. (d) 
S137. Ans. (d)  S138. Ans. (b)  S139. Ans. (a)  S140. Ans. (c)  S141. Ans. (d)  S142. Ans. (c)  S143. Ans. (c)  S144. Ans. (c) 
S145. Ans. (d)  S146. Ans. (c)  S147. Ans. (c)  S148. Ans. (b)  S149. Ans. (c)  S150. Ans. (b)  S151. Ans. (d)  S152. Ans. (a) 
S153. Ans. (b)  S154. Ans. (c)  S155. Ans. (a)  S156. Ans. (c)  S157. Ans. (a)  S158. Ans. (d)  S159. Ans. (d)  S160. Ans. (b) 
Q161. Ans. (a) Q162. Ans. (b) Q163. Ans. (a) Q164. Ans. (c) Q165. Ans. (c) Q166. Ans. (a) Q167. Ans. (c) Q168. Ans. (d)
Q169. Ans. (d) Q170. Ans. (c) Q171. Ans. (b) Q172. Ans. (b) Q173. Ans. (a) Q174. Ans. (a) Q175. Ans. (d) Q176. Ans. (b)
Q177. Ans. (a) Q178. Ans. (c) Q179. Ans. (a) Q180. Ans. (c) Q181. Ans. (c) Q182. Ans. (c) Q183. Ans. (d) Q184. Ans. (a)
Q185. Ans. (a) Q186. Ans. (a) Q187. Ans. (a) Q188. Ans. (d) Q189. Ans. (b) Q190. Ans. (c) Q191. Ans. (d) Q192. Ans. (d)
Q193. Ans. (a) Q194. Ans. (d) Q195. Ans. (b) Q196. Ans. (a) Q198. Ans. (b) Q199. Ans. (c) Q200. Ans. (d) Q201. Ans. (c)
Q202. Ans. (a) Q203. Ans. (c) Q204. Ans. (a) Q205. Ans. (d) Q206. Ans. (c) Q207. Ans. (b) Q208. Ans. (a) Q209. Ans. (a)
Q210. Ans. (c) Q211. Ans. (d) Q212. Ans. (c) Q213. Ans. (b) Q214. Ans. (d)  

Q215. Ans. (d)

Q216. Ans. (a) Q217. Ans. (a)
Q218. Ans. (a) Q219. Ans. (d) Q220. Ans. (c) 

CUET Sample Paper 2022 – Science(PCM) 

PASSAGE 1

Do people not have time to pause and ask what is causing us to seek self-care? What/who has failed to provide semblance of care to society? How can self-care be more inclusive and accessible?

When practised as a communal experience, self-care has done wonders for survivors — of domestic violence, assault, displacement, serious illnesses. The current commodified version of self-care is replacing social care and you can see this in vaccine roll-outs around the world. Barring op-eds and a few statements calling out the injustice of rich countries hoarding vaccines, what action have you seen on this?

Self-care so things get better is all well and good for you and I, but for the vast majority of Pakistanis, it’s getting worse and worse. For them, self-care is the last thing on their to-do list because of the rising cost of everything. The disconnect between the haves and have-nots in this country is, in teens peak, ‘insane’. The rich can download versions of care but the poor do not have access to any care and the supposition that the government can’t (read won’t) provide care is outrageous. We all bear responsibility for this failure. By our disinterest or electing deplorables with pathetic track records or endorsing dictatorships and then absolving them of reneging on their commitments we are, as Hanh said, “part of the wrongdoing”.

Before it reaches a new level of insanity, perhaps one can advocate ways where it’s possible to practise self-care à la capitalism and provide care for others who desperately need it. One’s self-preservation cannot come at the cost of someone else’s. There is no pleasure or liberation in that — and thankfully no app for it.

 

Q1. The author describe current state of societal self-care as commodified? 

(a) Self-care is accessible only in rich & affluent in developed countries

(b) Some people do not accept the idea of self-care as valid & dismiss it as for the rich

(c) Everything comes at a cost, even governments who are supposed to work for the public, tax people to fund different initiatives 

(d) Self-care while necessarily has costs attached to it which may not be viable for everyone. 

 

Q2. How are we “part of the wrongdoing”? Select all the options that are correct- 

Electing Governments who do not care about its citizens 

Holding elected governments responsible for their commitments to citizens

By not contributing towards self-care of people who can’t afford it

(a) AC

(b) ABC

(c) A

(d) B

 

Q3. What can be the source of this article? 

(a)Editorial Column of a newspaper of Pakistan 

(b)Leading health magazine of Pakistan

(c) Blog of a prominent doctor & activist of Pakistan

(d) None of the above

 

Q4. Among the following statements which one would the author agree with?

(a) An elected leader represents voice of a large section of society, so he deserves better security than a common man

(b) Only the rich can afford to do self-care

(c) Capitalism has brought in western features like remote self-care which are important for the advancement of a society

(d) It’s our responsibility as society to ensure that people who need help have access to it

 

PASSAGE 2

Nagel’s paper on death studied the assumptions and theories of death. The basic questions on the topic are: what is the rationale behind death? What evil can be attributed to death? Nagel begins his study with a general theory of life and death. He explained death as the end of living; this meant the life of an individual would be terminated at the time of death. The basis of Nagel’s study began with three hypotheses on the study of death. 

The first hypothesis states that death is evil. The second hypothesis says death can be normal when it does not remove the essence of life. The third hypothesis expresses death as a deprivation of the good things of life. The first hypothesis studies the essence of living and the evil in death. Nagel emphasized that death terminates the life of an individual and the good in him or her. We cannot ascribe the good of living but we can equally describe the harm in death. The death of an individual can be seen from three positions as described by Nagel. The first position seeks to explain the reason of death and why it is evil. When a student is killed on his way to school, they say the life of the student was short-lived. This is true only when we cannot ascertain the future. Nagel provided more emphasis on this position of thought with the natural self. When we imagine what the future holds for the student, one would easily put forward the assumption of death is evil. Another example was seen in the case of a child suffering from a blood disease, his death would be comforting to the family because of the suffering the child had endured. The second position of the first hypothesis explained how death can be compared using different circumstances. For example, an old woman smiled on her dying bed signifying she had completed a worthy life and wants a rest. Her death would be seen as a gift of life. The third position would be at the disadvantage in death. Death comes in various ways, and people believe death without pain is better than death with the pain. The way in which an individual die contributes to the pain we feel when someone dies. The example above does not isolate death from evil; it only reminds us death is inevitable 

We agree with the school of thought, death at a full age would be less painful to those who mourn their loss than death at a young age. This belief can be used to further the arguments on death. At what point would death be termed well deserved? The society would agree that death is well deserved on an individual depending on the circumstances surrounding an individual. For example, when a robber is executed, people tend to see his or her death as well deserved because of the pain the individual has inflicted in the community. The end of life for the individual was not seen as a deprivation of life but well deserved. This means death itself is not evil as put forward by Nagel’s third hypothesis the deprivation it brings, constitutes harm and may be termed evil. The pain we suffer when physically challenged can be related to death only when we say death is evil. Nagel explained our analysis of the pain in death can only be complete if we know what happens to the individual when he or she dies. Nagel puts forward another troubling but compelling question on the time of birth of an individual. What do we lose before our birth? Do we gain or lose something if we were born earlier? Nagel used the question to conclude by saying death is not evil in itself but a factor of pain.

Nagel used real life situations to explain his views on death. He knew people held different accounts and beliefs about death, so he decided to centre his argument on the common belief that death causes pain. Although every person is entitled to his or her opinion on the matter, Nagel believed his explanation would provide logical thinking to the questions about death.

 

Q5. From this piece, we can conclude that Nagel’s essay is – 

(a)Narrative 

(b) Argumentative 

(c) Expository

(d) Descriptive

 

Q6. What are the various subjects covered by Nagel in his essay – 

(a) Evaluating pre-existing work on Death as a subject

(b)Evaluating different situations before associating death with pain

(c) Knowledge that can avoid or help reduce pain of losing someone 

(d) The way to live life & avoid regrets in death 

(a) i & iii

(b) i, iii & iv

(c)  ii & iv

(d) i, iii & iv

 

Q7. Which of the following is not a part of the hypothesis put forward by Nagel to analyse Death as a subject? 

(a) Nagel uses analogy to define evil which is associated with death

(b) Nagel believes death can be considered normal when compared with essence of life

(c) Accepting the pain that comes with death, & understanding that its inevitable early on in life 

(d) Accepting the inevitability of death

 

Q8. The last paragraph of this essay has been deleted. Which of the following ideas will help complete it – 

(a) How Nagel’s paper was ground-breaking and helped develop an understanding of Death 

(b) How Nagel’s paper helped establish a philosophical guideway for both young & old to understand the concept of death & life 

(c) Real life examples where Nagel’s work is cited & how it has evolved over the years 

(d) Critics of Nagel’s work & ideology

 

PASSAGE 3

In order to understand Hume’s critique of the belief in miracles, it is crucial to begin by defining what a miracle means. Pojman and Rea (2008) define a miracle as a supernatural event that work beyond human control. This is made clear by several instances in the Bible where miracles are said to have taken place. One such is the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead. It is strongly believed that no human being can rise from the dead meaning that it was a miraculous act for Jesus to resurrect. In this regard, it is apparent that a miracle is based on one’s own reality and faith.

However, Hume being a critic of miracles provides his own interpretation of what miracles means. According to Hume, a miracle is an infringement of the laws of nature, an occurrence, which is abnormal to a majority of humankind (Hume, 1985). Hume makes his point clear when he asserted, “Nothing is esteemed in a miracle if it has ever occurred in the common course of nature…” (Hume, 1985, p.888). He proceeds to state that it is not a miracle when an individual in good health dies a sudden death. Hume claims that despite this death appearing peculiar it is natural. According to his understanding of miracle, he could only define it as a true miracle in case the deceased were to rise from dead the same way Jesus is claimed to have arisen. Hume (1985) argues that this will be considered a miracle because no such event has ever been witnessed. Therefore, Hume’s critique of miracle is purely based on his belief that miracles go against the laws of nature.

Peter Ivan Inwagen criticizes Hume’s understanding of miracles when Hume states that a miracle pertains to events, which run contrary to the experience of humankind. Inwagen criticizes this idea arguing that seeing what this idea amounts to is not easy. Therefore, by failing to find any other meaning of ‘contrary to experience’ capable of proving Hume’s assertions, Inwagen concludes that Hume’s understanding of miracles is a fallacy (Pojman and Rea, 2008).

In defending his philosophy of what a true miracle means Hume provides four reasons to prove his claims. In his first criticism of miracles, Homes argue that there has never been a witness of a miraculous event throughout history to prove that a miracle has ever happened. Secondly, Hume disputes the existence of a miracle arguing that all that people chose to accept or believe in are based on experience and history. Hume’s third reason contradicting the belief in a miracle is based on testimony versus reality. In his argument, he states that what used to be considered miracles in the past can no longer be considered so in the present world or future. He claims that what somebody might have considered a miracle in the past must have been based on the individual’s perceptions and beliefs at that given time, which is bound to change with time. Lastly, Hume discredits the belief in miracles arguing that for miracles to be said to have happened, there must be several witnesses to prove the miracle. In fact, Hume narrates several incidences that are claimed to have been miraculous while criticizing them using his four reasoning against miracles (Hume, 1985).

Of all his reasons discrediting the belief in a miracle, I find the fourth point to be the most plausible. This is because, for us to belief that a questionable event like a miracle has happened witnesses must be present to prove the event otherwise the happening would not amount to a miracle.

 

Q9. Which of the following would Hume consider a miracle? 

(a) A physically disabled person winning a race against an athlete 

 (b) A tea-seller becoming the PM of a country 

(c) A person with no prior knowledge or education of Latin being able to fluently communicate in it

(d) None of the above 

 

Q10. Which of the statements do not corroborate with Hume’s views on miracles? 

(a) Miracles are events that do not have spectators or reliable ones

(b) Miracles are events recorded in history subjective to a spectator’s frame of reference 

(c) For an event to be adjudged as a miracle, it needs to be adjudged as one across different religions & cultures 

(d) For an event to be adjudged as a miracle, people need to question the veracity of the event

 

Q11. Why does Peter Ivan Inwagen criticize Hume’s understanding of a Miracle as fallacy?

(a) Inwagen describes Hume’s understanding as constricted

(b) Inwagen concludes Hume’s idea of miracles as subjective

(c) Inwagen dismisses Hume’s idea of miracles as open to interpretation & confusing 

(d) None of the above

 

Q12. How does the author view Hume’s ideas on miracles? 

(a) Logical

(b) Scepticism 

(c) Analytical

(d) Critical

 

                                                                                  PASSAGE 4

KL Rahul and Ishan Kishan hammered scintillating fifties after Mohammed Shami’s three-wicket burst as India registered a seven-wicket win over England in their first warm-up match of the ICC T20 World Cup in Dubai on Monday. However, despite their convincing win, former India wicketkeeper Parthiv Patel pointed out two worries for India. All-rounder Hardik Pandya didn’t bowl, while Bhuvneshwar Kumar went for 54/0 in his quota of four overs.

“I don’t think Hardik is going to bowl in the first few games looking at the way Virat Kohli has used only five bowlers,” said Parthiv Patel during the mid-innings interval. “Yes, I’m worried about Bhuvneshwar Kumar. He looks in the kind of form which he had in the IPL, where he took just six wickets, but yeah, he looked out of rhythm, almost as if didn’t practice. “We might just see Shardul Thakur in the next game. It might be a combination that we might see,& quote Parthiv added.

Kishan smashed an unbeaten 46-ball 70, while KL Rahul (51 off 24) and Rishabh Pant (29 off 14) also chipped in as

India chased down 188 runs with six balls to spare. Earlier, Jonny Bairstow smashed a 36-ball 49 and Moeen Ali hit a whirlwind 20-ball 43 to help England post 188 for 5 after being sent in to bat.

For India, besides Shami (3/40), fellow pacer Jasprit Bumrah (1/26) and spinner Rahul Chahar (1/43) were also among the wicket-takers. India will play their second warm-up game against Australia on October 20.

 

Q13. Give the antonym of the word “scintillating” as used in the passage.

(a) Lackluster

(b) Effulgent

(c) Gossamer

(d) Zaftig

 

Q14.  Which cricketer is being described as “jack-of-all-trades”?

(a) KL Rahul

(b) Jasprit Bumrah

(c) Hardik Pandya

(d) Ishan Kishan

 

Q15.  Fill in the blank with the most suitable option as per the given passage.

Moeen Ali hit a _____ 20-ball 43 to help England post 188 for 5 after being sent in to bat.

(a) Plodding

(b) Blistering

(c) Adamantine

(d) Dillydallying

 

Q16.  Describe the tone of the author.

(a) Belligerent

(b) Pessimistic

(c) Descriptive

(d) Critical

 

Q17.  Who were the wicket-takers in the match?

  1. Jasprit Bumrah
  2. Rishabh Pant

III. Rahul Chahar

(a) Only I

(b) Both I and II

(c) Both II and III

(d) None of the these

 

                                                                     PASSAGE 5

When ace photographer Balan Madhavan says an apartment at the heart of the city is his work space, I am puzzled.

How can one work amidst constant honks and beeps, I wonder? But step into the apartment-cum-work studio and you realise that although his studio at Ambujavilasam road is in the thick of things, the fact that it’s located on the top floor of the building, helps. It’s an oasis of calm amidst the maddening crowd.

The apartment, he says, belongs to his parents. After his father’s death, he turned it into his work space as his mother rarely uses the place, now. Till then he was working from his home in Vattiyoorkavu. “But it was too far from the city. This space is much more practical for me to hold meetings.”

The living room is spacious with minimum furniture. Bright red curtains flutter in the breeze. Books are neatly arranged on a shelf as pictures and paintings dot the walls. There is a fridge in the corner. His laptop is on the dining table. The living room opens out to a private open terrace, which offers a view of the city and of the distant greenery. “It’s this sense of space that I like; I don’t feel confined. After working on the computer for hours at a stretch, looking into the horizon comes as a sight for sore eyes. Besides, I am at home here,” says Balan about his work space.

When he is not on assignments or shooting in the wild, Balan can be found at the apartment fine-tuning his creations. “Unlike a poet or an artist who can write about or paint a sight that captured their eye later, a nature photographer can’t afford to do so as the image cannot be recreated. It’s not easy to frame Nature in all its charm and vibrancy,” says Balan, who also trains his lens on the ravages on Nature.

The numerous award-winning photographer is currently on a break after completing a coffee table series called Sanctuary For The Soul for Kerala Tourism. The series captures scenes from the four national wildlife sanctuaries in the State – Eravikulam National Park, Silent Valley, Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary and Periyar National Park. The books, says Balan, while portraying the State’s rich biodiversity to the world, emphasises the need for forest conservation.

The dining table is his favourite place to work. “Although I have a Mac Computer in one of the bedrooms, I prefer sitting here as there is a steady breeze if I open the windows and open the door that leads to the terrace. And like I said, I like the ‘open feeling’ in this room.”

So, how is he using his free time? “Well, I am currently reading these Ruskin Bond books. They are autographed by the author himself. I also watch a bit of television.”

 

Q18. Suggest a suitable title for the passage.

(a) Balan Madhavan, the Ace Photographer

(b) Sense of Space

(c) Apartment-cum-work Studio

(d) Sanctuary For The Soul

 

Q19.  Give the synonym of the word ‘ravages’ as used in the passage.

(a) Rehabilitates

(b) Scourges

(c) Defacements

(d) Tenebrous

 

Q20.  What can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Painters can always recreate what they saw in the past.

(b) Painters should recreate what they saw in the past.

(c) It is not possible for photographers to capture ruins of nature.

(d) It is not possible for photographers to recreate nature.

 

Q21.  Choose the sentence which is grammatically correct.

(a) The living room is spacious with minimal furniture.

(b) The living room is spacious with minutest furniture.

(c) The living room is spacious with minimum furniture.

(d) The living room is spacious with fewer furniture.

 

Q22.  What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Romantic

(b) Analysing

(c) Euphemistic

(d) Descriptive

 

                                                                                    PASSAGE 6

Choosing a subject which he has closely observed as an Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of Jammu and Kashmir cadre, Danesh Rana’s debut book “Red Maize” is a compelling story woven around the relentless siege of Kashmir.

The poignant tale chronicles the painful nuances of the conflict, the human cost of the war and the loss of a way of life.

The Harper Collins publication portrays how the militancy and the attempts to curb it, brings common people in the crossfire through Kausar Jan, the protoganist, a mother of three sons. “She is an epitome of sufferings associated with the conflict. For no fault of hers she gets slowly torn apart because her son has decided to wield the gun,” says Danesh. Caught between the undesirable activities of her son and efforts of the security forces to bring him to justice, the author terms her as a metaphor for Kashmir itself. Based largely in Doda district of Jammu, the title signifies how the spilling of blood by both sides has coloured the main crop of the area, maize, around which the lives of the people revolves, to red.

Indoctrination and religious propaganda leads one son to pick up the gun while the other one is forced to wield arms after being tortured by the security forces, an unfortunate victim of circumstances, as Danesh calls him. Having watched the situation up close, he comments: “The initial insurgency in Kashmir was on a genuine belief of securing independence from India. However, the movement drifted at some point and became increasingly criminalised with local youth joining the ranks of militants for varied reasons—the sense of empowerment that comes with wielding a gun, the money, the hero worship, etc. Some of them have been coerced and others brainwashed.”

But what is heart wrenching is the death of the youngest son in a fake encounter. Admitting it to be the saddest part of the story Danesh clarifies: “It is an isolated incident and may not be construed that Army and police often indulges in extra judicial killings. Having said that it is also a fact that fake encounters have happened in Kashmir and there are innumerable instances where cases have been registered against army and police and justice delivered.”

Interwoven with the protagonist’s story, the book presents the plight of ordinary people across all ages and gender while unveiling the interplay of greed, vested interests and enmity. According to Danesh, militancy has created a widespread circle of informers, sources, overground workers, harbourers, couriers, renegades, surrendered and released militants who often indulge in greed, deceit, betrayal and settling of personal scores leading to human rights violations on the part of militants and the security forces.

In his fictional work, the writer reveals that some of the situations are drawn from real life experiences of serving in the State as a police officer but goes on to add that “some of the incidents attributed to both militants and army are aberrations and not the norm.”

Giving his personal take on the lingering complex problem in the State, he concludes the solution is partly military and mostly political. “Sincere dialogue with all the stake holders getting a level playing field will solve this vexed issue. Solution can only be achieved with a little bit of flexibility on stated positions.” Hope he is heard in the New Year.

 

Q23.  Suggest a suitable title for the passage.

(a) The ordeals of a Mother

(b) Stain of Blood

(c) 2 Sons in Kashmir

(d) Writer Danesh Rana

 

Q24.  Fill in the blank with the most suitable option.

The poignant tale _____ the painful nuances of the conflict.

(a) Narrates

(b) Run

(c) Carry

(d) Describe

 

Q25.  Give the antonym of the word “relentless” as given in the passage.

(a) Unflinching

(b) Embellished

(c) Charlatan

(d) Yielding

 

Q26.  What do you infer from the third paragraph?

(a) Youth is always forced to join ranks of militants.

(b) Youth joins ranks of militants to earn money or get sense of power.

(c) Youth joins ranks of militants because they are convinced by their families to earn money.

(d) None of these

 

Q27.  What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) Troubles in Kashmir explained in a novel

(b) Troubles in Kashmir explained in Danesh Rana’s debut book “Red Maize”

(c) The plight of Kashmir

(d) An epitome of sufferings

 

                                                                                   PASSAGE 7

Greetings from Goa! I’m sitting on the beach, enjoying the sun and wondering what travelling in the New Year has in store for me.

Travelling, for me, is about exploring, getting lost and stumbling across places that locals frequent — places that you won’t find in a guide book and that only someone who lives there would know. What does this have to do with the Internet, you might be wondering. Quite a lot, actually. Most of my wandering is semi-planned, using social media. I love the serendipitous nature of discovery and making connections that might normally never happen, except via social networks. Instagram is my network of choice, and is where I plan my travels and connect with people who can help me find those _____ gems that make any journey that much more memorable.

So how can you travel like a local using Instagram? The first step is to download the app on your smartphone or tablet. Instagram works best used on a mobile device, and their website does pretty much nothing, by design. The app has become consistently better with each new version. Finding things on Instagram used to be a nightmare, but this has improved and is now much better.

Searching on Instagram happens in three different ways. You can search for people, tags and places. People are not too helpful, unless you know who you’re looking for, so we’ll ignore it for now.

 

Let’s start with places. A lot of cities, jurisdictions and regions have their own Instagram accounts. I was travelling in the Italian Riviera in October, for example, and found the Instagram account for the region – @riveligure. I followed them and went through their feed to find likely places to visit. This is a great visual way to plan a trip. The other exciting thing that places do is show photos around your general vicinity. On a weekend, it’s a great way to see where people are posting from, and make your way to the party hotspots.

Much like Twitter, Instagram also uses hashtags for discovery. The tags search feature is pretty intuitive and extremely useful. If you search for a tag, or part of a tag, like Tokyo for instance, Instagram will show you all the

hashtags that contain the word you’re looking for. It will also show you the number of posts that have been tagged with each particular hashtag. Using these hashtags, you can find the niche ones that locals use, look at where they go, and what they recommend.

When I find photos I like and people that look like they go to some great places, I follow them and start talking to them on Instagram. This is how I’ve often found some of the best places I’ve been to while travelling.

 

Q28.  Suggest a suitable title for the passage.

(a) Exploring Goa

(b) Virtual Travelling on Instagram

(c) Travel like a Local Using Instagram

(d) Instagram Hashtags

 

Q29.  Give the antonym of the word “serendipitous” as used in the passage.

(a) Deliberate

(b) Convenient

(c) Coincidental

(d) Nomadic

 

Q30. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) Travelling helps one to explore one’s personality

(b) Visiting unexplored places like a townie

(c) Connecting with locals on Instagram

(d) Learning to use Instagram Hashtags

 

Q31.  What do you infer by the statement – “People are not too helpful”?

(a) People trust strangers unless they are armed.

(b) People are not friendly.

(c) People will help you only if they know you.

(d) People don’t want to help travellers.

 

Q32.  Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

I plan my travels and connect with people who can help me find those _____ gems that make any journey that much

more memorable.

(a) Well-known path

(b) Well-known paths

(c) Unknown paths

(d) off-the-beaten-path

 

                                                                             GRAMMAR:

Direction for Questions: In the following sentences a word or phrase is written in italicised letters. For each italicised part four words/phrases are listed below each sentence. Choose the word nearest in meaning to italicised part.

 

Q33. Incensed by his rude behaviour the manager suspended the work. 

(a) Enthused 

(b) Enraged 

(c) Inflamed 

(d) Excited 

 

Q34. The maidservant left the police station contrite. 

(a) Penitent 

(b) Sore 

(c) Angry 

(d) Remorseless 

 

Q35. The villagers offered us an excellent repast. 

(a)Pass time 

(b) As good meal 

(c) Entertainment 

(d) Fate 

 

Q36. He soon got fed up with his sedantry job. 

(a) involving sitting 

(b) Moving

(c) Roving 

(d) drab 

 

Q37. The communal politics has done imponderable loss to the unity of India. 

(a) incalculable 

(b) invaluable 

(c) irreparable 

(d) invulnerable 

 

Q38. One must not be callous to womenfolk. 

(a) Kind 

(b) Hard hearted 

(c) Magnanimous

(d) Benevolent

 

Q39. In exasperation she railed at the shopkeeper. 

(a) Irritation 

(b) Humorous

(c) Pleasure

(d) Jovial

 

Q40. Furtive glances were exchanged between the lovers at the feast. 

(a) Known 

(b) Secret

(c) Unsuspecting 

(d) Open

 

Q41. Coulomb force between two point charges q1 and q2 separated by a distance ‘r’ is given by =Kq1q2rn . Then the value of ‘n’ is

(a) 1

(b) -1

(c) 2

(d) -2

 

Q42. C2N-1m-2 is a SI unit of ?

(a) Permittivity of free space

(b) Surface tension

(c) Elasticity

(d) None of these

 

Q43. Two inverse point charges of extent 2μC establish a dipole of length 4 cm. Assuming that it is set in an outside field of 105 NC-1, the maximum torque on the dipole is

(a) 64×10–3 N m

(b) 32×10–3 N m

(c) 16×10–3 N m

(d)10–3 N m

 

Q44. Equivalent charges of 18 × 10-7C are set in water a good ways off of 0.125 m separated. The magnitude of electric intensity halfway is.

(a) Zero

(b) 10-3NC-1

(c) 18×10-3NC-1

(d) 4.5×10-3NC-1

 

Q45. Work done in moving a unit positive charge through a distance of 2a metre on an equipotential surface is.

(a) 2a

(b) 1a

(c) 12a

(d) Zero

 

Q46. Electrons are made to fall through a potential difference of 1600 V. In the event that they were at first very still, their last speed will be?

(a) 290×107 m/s

(b) 2.90×107 m/s

(c) 1.90×107 m/s

(d) 3.90×107 m/s

 

Q47. A capacitor is charged to 36 V and it acquires a charge of 18 μC. The energy stored in it is?

(a) 144μJ

(b) 224μJ

(c) 324μJ

(d) 32μJ

 

Q48. The metal with the lowest resistivity is

(a) Copper

(b) Silver

(c) Gold

(d) Diamond

 

Q49. A steady current flows in a conductor of non-uniform cross-section. The charge passing through any cross-section per unit time is 

(a) Directly proportional to area of cross section

(b) Inversely proportional to area of cross section 

(c) Proportional to the square of the area of cross section 

(d) Independent of the area of cross section

 

Q50. A uniform wire is stretched uniformly by 0.25%. Its resistance changes by

(a) 0.75%

(b) 0.1%

(c) 0.25% 

(d) 0.5%

 

Q51. The resistance of a metallic wire is 50 Ω at 50°C and 60 Ω at 100°C. Its resistance at 0°C is 

(a) 10 Ω 

(b) 20 Ω 

(c) 30 Ω 

(d) 40 Ω

 

Q52. A uniform wire of radius r has a resistance R. If it is stretched uniformly to form a wire of radius r/8

, then its resistance

(a) 256R

(b) 124R

(c) 1024R

(d) None of these

 

Q53. Kirchhoff’s first law based on the law of conservation of

(a) Energy

(b) Current

(c) Emf

(d) Charge

 

Q54. The device used to measure the emf of a cell exactly is

(a) Voltmeter

(b) Potentiometer

(c) Ammeter

(d) All of these

 

Q55. The electrical energy in kilowatt hour consumed in working ten 40 watt bulbs at 10 hour of the day in a month of 30 days is

(a) 120 KWh

(b) 240 KWh

(c) 180 KWh

(d) None of these

 

Q56. A set of n identical resistors each of resistance R ohm when connected in series have effective resistance of X ohm and when connected in parallel the effective resistance is Y ohm. The relation between R, X and Y is 

(a) R=2XY

(b) R=2XY

(c) R=XY

(d) R=XY

 

Q57. A wire of resistance R is cut into n equal parts. These are then connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the combination will be

(a)Rn2

(b) Rn3

(c) Rn

(d) Rn

 

Q58. The magnetic field at a point well inside the solenoid is [n = number of turns per unit length, I = current]

(a) B =0nI

(b) B =0nI

(c) B =120nI

(d) B =0nI

 

Q59. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius 0.1 m and 500 turns carrying a current of 0.2 A is

(a) 62×10-4 T

(b) 6.2×10-4 T

(c) 6.2 T

(d) 6.2×10-3 T

 

Q60. The magnetic field at a point on the axis of a long solenoid (wound from the same wire) is independent of 

(a) Length of the solenoid  

(b) Area of cross section of the solenoid 

(c) Number of turns of solenoid  

(d) All the above  

 

Q61. The work done by a magnetic field on a moving charge (inside the magnetic field) is

(a) F.S

(b) F.S(sin90)

(c) q=v×B

(d) Zero

 

Q62. An electric charge a moves with a constant velocity b parallel to the magnetic field c. The force experienced by the charge is .

(a) Zero 

(b) abc 

(c) a/bc 

(d) c/ab

 

Q63. An electron entering a uniform magnetic field at right angles to it, with a speed of 105 m/s describes a complete circular orbit in 10–6 s. The time period of another electron entering field at right angles with a velocity of 104 m s-1 is  

(a) 10–5 s 

(b) 10–6 s 

(c) 10–7 s 

(d) 10–8 s

 

Q64. Cyclotron is particularly suitable for accelerating  

(a) Electrons   

(b) Neutrons 

(c) Protons and positive ions   

(d) Uranium atoms

 

Q65. The path of a charged particle, when it enters a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the direction of the field is

(a) Straight

(b) Helical

(c) Elliptical

(d) Circular

 

Q66. A proton, deuteron and an a-particle have equal KE. The radii of their paths is in the proportion

(a) 1:2:1

(b)1:2:2

(c) 1:2:3

(d) None of these

 

Q67. The magnitude of induced emf produced in a coil when a magnet is inserted into it does not depend upon the

(a) resistance of the coil    

(b) number of turns in the coil 

(c) pole strength of the magnet  

(d) speed of insertion

 

Q68. Out of the given electromotive forces, the odd one is. 

(a) Induced emf 

(b) Back emf 

(c) Motional emf 

(d) Applied emf

 

Q69. The core of the transformer is laminated in order to 

(a) reduce the size    

(b) make the design handy 

(c) reduce the energy losses due to eddy currents 

(d) increase the size

 

Q70. When a current i passes through an inductor of self-inductance L, the energy stored in it is

(a)Li2

(b) Li3

(c) Li

(d)12Li2

 

Q71. An object is placed at 10cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30cm. Find u, v and f respectively

(a) v=+24cm, u=-8cm  And  f=12cm

(b) v=-24cm, u=8cm  And  f=-12cm

(c) v=+30cm, u=-10cm  And  f=-15cm

(d) v=+30cm, u=-10cm  And  f=15cm

 

Q72. A source and a screen are separated by a distance of d. A convex lens of focal length 16 cm produces a sharp image of an object in two positions which are 60cm apart when placed between source and screen the value of d is.

(a) 200 cm

(b) 100 cm

(c) 50 cm

(d) 10 cm

 

Q73. The possible position of an object infront of the concave mirror of focal length 60cm so as to produce an image thrice an object size is

(a) 10cm

(b) 80cm

(c) 40cm

(d) Both b and c

 

Q74. A man 1.6m tall wishes to see full-length picture in a plane mirror. The length of the most limited reflect in which he can see his whole picture is

(a) 0.8m

(b) 1.8m

(c) 1.6m

(d) 3.2m

 

Q75. The no of images formed between two parallel images is

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) Infinite

 

Q76. To obtain a parallel reflected beam form a torch, reflector in the torch should be

(a) Convex

(b) Plane

(c) Concave

(d) Either a or c

 

Q77. When a light travels from one medium to another there is no change in ratio of its

(a) Velocity to wavelength 

(b) Wavelength to time period

(c) Time period to wave number

(d) Wave number to velocity

 

Q78. The most efficient electromagnetic radiation for photoelectric emission from Zn surface is

(a) Ultraviolet

(b) Visible

(c) Infrared

(d) Microwave

 

Q79. The nuclear force is

(a) Is equal to the electromagnetic force

(b) Is the short range force

(c) Obeys inverse third power law of distance

(d) Obeys inverse square law of distance

 

Q80. An electric field can deflect

(a) Alpha particles

(b) Gamma particles

(c) X-rays

(d) Neutrons

 

Q81. The heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI produces

(a) Iodobenzene

(b) Phenol

(c) Benzene

(d) Ethyl chloride

 

Q82. Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?

(a) CH3CHO : RMgX

(b) C6H5OH; NaOH, CH3I

(c) C6H5OH, neutral FeCl3

(d) C6H5 —CH3; CH3COCl; AlCl3

 

Q83. Phenones are_________

(a) aldehyde in which carbonyl group is attached with benzene ring

(b) ketone in which carbonyl group is attached with benzene ring

(c) phenols in which carbonyl group is attached with alkyl group 

(d) phenols in which carbonyl group is attached with group

 

Q84. The dihalide Cl-CH2- CH2- CH2- Cl is _______

(a) vicinal dihalide

(b) nonterminal geminal dihalide

(c) terminal geminal

(d) polymethylene dihalide

 

Q85. The Hinsberg’s method is used for which of the following?

(a) Preparation of primary amines

(b) Preparation of secondary amines

(c) Preparation of tertiary amines

(d) Separation of amine mixtures

 

Q86. Which one of the following compound gives a secondary amine on reduction?

(a) Nitromethane

(b) Nitrobenzene

(c) Methyl isocyanide

(d) Methyl cyanide

 

Q87. Whicn of the following is an example of an aldopentose?

Option

(a) D-Ribose

(b) Glyceraldehyde

(c) Fructose

(d) Erythrose

 

Q88. Identify Z.

(a) 2-lodoheptane

(b) Heptane-2-ol

(c) 2-lodohexane

(d) Heptanoic acid

 

Q89. The overall rate of a reaction is governed by

(a) the rate of fastest intermediate’step

(b) the sum total of the rates of all intermediate steps

(c) the average of the rates of all the intermediate steps

(d) the rate of slowest intermediate step

 

Q90. The order of reaction is decided by

(a) temperature

(b) mechanism of reaction as well as relative concentration of reactants

(c) molecularity

(d) pressure

 

Q91. Amoxillin is a semi-synthetic modification of

(a) Pencillin

(b) Streptomycin

(c) Morphine

(d) Phenacetin

 

Q92. Which of the following is a tranquillizer?

(a) Seconal

(b) Streptomycin

(c) Morphine

(d) Phenacetin.

 

Q93. The coordination complex, [Cu(OH2)6]2+ has one unpaired electron. Which of the following statements are true?

(1) The complex is octahedral.

(2) The complex is an outer orbital complex.

(3) The complex is d2sp3 hybridized.

(4) The complex is diamagnetic.

(5) The coordination number is 6.

(a) 1, 4

(b) 1, 2, 5

(c) 2, 3, 5

(d) 2, 3

(e) 4, 5

 

Q94. A molecule that cannot be superimposed on its mirror image is said to exhibit which of the following?

(a) geometrical isomerism

(b) optical isomerism

(c) linkage isomerism

(d) reactive isomerism

(e) coordination isomerism

 

Q95. Anomalous electronic configuration in the 3d series are of

(a) Cr and Fe

(b) Cu and Zn

(c) Fe and Cu

(d) Cr and Cu

 

Q96. Which of the following are d-block elements but not regarded as transistion elements?

(a) Cu, Ag, Au

(b) Zn, Cd, Hg

(c) Fe, Co, Ni

(d) Ru, Rh, Pd

 

Q97. An aqueous solution containing one mole per litre of each of Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg (NO3)2 and Mg (NO3)2 is being electrolysed using inert electrodes. The values of standard electrode (reduction) potentials in volts are Ag/Ag+ = + 0.80, Hg/ Hg2+ = 0.79, Cu/Cu2+ = 0.34, Mg/Mg2+ = -2.37.

With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on cathode will be

(a) Ag, Hg, Cu, Mg

(b) Mg, Cu, Hg, Ag

(c) Ag, Hg, Cu

(d) Cu, Hg, Ag

(e) Cu, Hg, Ag, Mg.

 

Q98. The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is of?

(a) 0.1 M acetic acid

(b) 0.1 M chloro acetic acid

(c) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid

(d) 0.1 M difluoro acetic acid

 

Q99. The process of extracting the metal from its ore is called

(a) Metallurgy

(b) Refining

(c) Concentration

(d) Leaching

 

Q100. In the Froth floatation process for beneficiation of the ores, the ore particles float because

(a) they are light

(b) their surface is not easily wetted by water.

(c) they bear electrostatic charge

(d) they are insoluble.

 

Q101. Alkyl halides are immiscible in water though they are polar because

(a) They react with water to give alcohols

(b) They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water

(c) C -X bond cannot be broken easily

(d) They are stable compounds and are not reactive

 

Q102. Which of the following compounds will have highest melting point?

(a) Chlorobenzene

(b) o-Dichlorobenzene

(c) m-Dichlorobenzene

(d) p-Dichlorobenzene

 

Q103. When chlorine reacts with cold and dilute solution of sodium hydroxide, it forms

Option

(a) Cl– and ClO–

(b) Cl– and ClO2–

(c) Cl– and ClO3–

(d) Cl– and ClO4–

 

Q104. The formation of O2+ [PtF6]– is the basis for the formation of first xenon compound. This is because

Option

(a) O2 and Xe have different sizes.

(b) Both O2 and Xe are gases.

(c) O2 and Xe have comparable electro-negativities.

(d) O2 and Xe have comparable ionisation enthalpies.

 

Q105. Caprolactum is the starting material for

(a) Nylon-6

(b) Terylene

(c) Nylon-6, 10

(d) Nylon

 

Q106. Synthetic polymer prepared by using ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid is known as:

(a) Teflon

(b) Terylene

(c) Nylon

(d) PVC

 

Q107. To get n-type of semiconductor, germanium should be doped with

(a) Gallium

(b) Arsenic

(c) Aluminium

(d) Boron

 

Q108. Which of the following is not the characteristic of ionic solids?

(a) Very low value of electrical conductivity in the molten state.

(b) Brittle nature.

(c) Very strong forces of interactions.

(d) Anisotropic nature.

 

Q109. Atomic mass is equal to

(a) Number of electrons of an atom

(b) Sum of the numbers of electrons and protons of an atom

(c) Sum of the numbers of neutrons and protons of an atom

(d) None of these

 

Q110. The law which indicates the relation’-hip between solubility of a gas in liquid and pressure rs

(a) Raoult’s law

(b) Henry’s law

(c) Lowering of vapour pressure

(d) Van’t Hoff law

 

Q111. Which of the following characteristics is not correct for physical adsorption?

(a) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature.

(b) Adsorption is spontaneous

(c) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative

(d) Adsorption on solids is reversible.

 

Q112. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as:

(a) foam

(b) aerosol

(c) sol

(d) emulsion.

 

Q113. Which metal has lowest melting point?

(a) Cs

(b) Na

(c) Hg

(d) Sn

 

Q114. Which is the first man-made element?

(a) Sc

(b) Os

(c) Tc

(d) Zr

 

Q115. Which transition metal can show highest oxidation state?

(a) Sc

(b) Ti

(c) Os

(d) Zn

 

Q116. For the orthorhombic system, axial ratios are a ≠ b ≠ c and the axial angles are:

(a) α = β = γ ≠ 90o

(b) α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90o

(c) α = β = γ = 90o

(d) α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90o

 

Q117. Which of the following transition metal oxides is paramagnetic?

(a) TiO

(b) VO

(c) Cu2O

(d) Mn2O3

 

Q118. Which of the following transition metal oxides is not an insulator?

(a) MnO

(b) NiO

(c) VO

(d) Mn2O3

Q119. Glucose cannot be characterised as

(a) Hexose

(b) Carbohydrate

(c) Aldose

(d) Oligosaccharide

 

Q120. Glucose gives similar mirror test with Tollen’s reagent. It shows the presence of

(a) Acidic group

(b) alcoholic group

(c) Ketonic group

(d) Aldehyde group

 

Q121. What is the principal value of tan-1⁡(-3).

 

  1. 3
  2. 3
  3. 3
  4. 3

 

Q122. Find the inclination of the line x+3y+7=0.

 

  1. 30
  2. 60
  3. 45
  4. 150

 

Q123. tan⁡sin-135+cot-132

  1. -176
  2. 156
  3. -156
  4. 176

 

Q124. If a=(2i-4j+5k) then find the value of so that a may be a unit vector.

 

  1. λ=±15
  2. λ=±155
  3. λ=±135
  4. None

 

Q125. Find a vector of magnitude 9 units in the direction of the vector (-2i+j+2k).

  1. -6ı+3ȷ+6k
  2. -6ı-3ȷ+6k
  3. -6ı-3ȷ-6k
  4. None

 

Q126. Find the coordinates of the point where the line through 3,-4,-5 and 2,-3,1 crosses the plane 2x+y+z=7.

  1. (-1, -2,7)
  2. (1, -2,7)
  3. (-1, 2,7)
  4. (1, 2,7)

 

Q127. The angle between the lines x-22=y-17=z+3-3 and x+2-1=y-42=z-54 is

 

  1. 6
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. cos-138

 

Q128. A company manufactures scooters at two plants, A and B. plant A produces 80% and Plant B produces 20% of the total product. 85% of the scooters produced at pant A and 65%  of the scooters produced at plane Bare of standard quality. A scooter produced by the company is selected at random, and it is found to be of standard quality. What is the probability that it was manufactured at plant A?

  1. 6581
  2. 6381
  3. 6281
  4. 6881

 

Q129. If (x+1)=3x+7 , find f(3x)

 

  1. 10x+4
  2. 9x+4
  3. 8x+5
  4. 7x+3

 

Q130. Find the derivatives of the function 133s-5.

 

  1. 1(3s-5)4/3
  2. 1(3s-5)
  3. 1(s-5)4/3
  4. None

 

Q131. Differentiate the function 1-sin⁡x1+sin⁡x.

 

  1. tan x sec x
  2. xtan x sec x
  3. sec xtan x sec x
  4. sec⁡x(tan x +sec⁡x)

 

Q132. Solve the following differential equation:  dydx+2ytan⁡x=sin⁡x

 

  1. y=sin⁡x+Ccos2⁡x
  2. y=cos⁡x+Csin2⁡x
  3. y=sin⁡x+Ccosec2⁡x
  4. y=cos⁡x+Ccos2⁡x

 

Q133. Find the coordinates of the foot of perpendicular drawn from the origin to the plane 2x-3y+4z-6=0.

  1. 1229,-1829,-2429
  2. -1229,-1829,2429
  3. 1229,-1829,2429
  4. 1229,1829,2429

 

Q134. The total cost C(x) of a firm is  C(x)=0.0005x3-0.7x2-30x+3000 Where x is the output. Determine the marginal cost (MC).

 

  1. 0⋅0015x2-x-30
  2. 0⋅0015x2-1⋅4x-35
  3. 0⋅015x2-1⋅4x-30
  4. 0⋅0015x2-1⋅4x-30

 

Q135. Evaluate e6log⁡xe5log⁡xe4log⁡xe3log⁡xdx

  1. x33+C
  2. x43+C
  3. x33+C
  4. -x43+C

 

Q136. 0π/4cos2⁡xdx=?

 

  1. 4+14
  2. 8+14
  3. 814
  4. None

 

Q137. 0π/2x3sin 3xdx =?

  1. 227240
  2. 227212
  3. 127212
  4. None

 

Q138. 1eex1+xlog⁡xxdx=?

 

  1. ee
  2. e2
  3. e3
  4. E

 

Q139. A couple has two children. Find the probability that both children are males, if it is known that at least one of children is male.

 

  1. 15
  2. 13
  3. 14
  4. None

 

Q140. There are 6% defective items in a large bulk of times. Find the probability that a sample of 8 items will include not more than one detective item.

 

  1. 475067150
  2. 475057150
  3. 475077150
  4. 4750771502

 

Q141. Three cars participate in a race. The probability that any one of them has an accident is 0.1. Find the probability that all the cars reach the finishing line without any accident.

 

  1. 0.5
  2. 0.71
  3. 0.61
  4. 0.729

 

Q142. Determine the value of ‘ k ‘ for which the following function is continuous at x=3

f(x)={(x+3)2-36x-3, x≠3 k, ,x=3

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. 14

 

Q143. The volume of a cube is increasing at the rate of 9 cm3. How fast is its surface area increasing when the length of an edge is 10 cm?

  1. 3.6cm2/s
  2. 3.5cm2/s
  3. 3.2cm2/s
  4. 3.4cm2/s

 

Q144. a2+2a 2a+1 1 2a+1 a+2 1 3 3 1 =?

 

  1. (a-1)2
  2. (a-1)3
  3. (a-1)4
  4. -(a-1)3

 

Q145. If A=3    -4 1    -1 , then prove that An=1+2n -4n n 1-2n , where n is any positive integer then An=?

  1. 1+2n -4n n 1-2n
  2. 1-2n -4n n 1+2n
  3. 1+2n 4n -n 1-2n
  4. -1+2n -4n n -1-2n

 

Q146. If A=3 1 -1 2 then which of the following holds true:

  1. A2-5A-71=0
  2. A2+5A+71=0
  3. -A2-5A+71=0
  4. A2-5A+71=0

 

Q147. Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y=x2+1 and the lines y=x,  x=0 and x=2.

  1. 02x2+1dx+02 xdx
  2. 02x2+1dx-12 xdx
  3. 02x2+1dx-02 xdx
  4. 02x2+1dx+12 xdx

 

Q148. Find the area of the region bounded by the ellipse x24+y29=1.

  1. 6πsq unit
  2. 8πsq unit
  3. 9πsq unit
  4. 12πsq unit

 

Q149. Maximise Z=3x+4y subject to the constraints: x+y≤4,x≥0,y≥0.

  1. Maximum Z=16 at (0,4)
  2. Maximum Z=19 at (1,5)
  3. Maximum Z=18 at (1,4)
  4. Maximum Z=17 at (0,5)

 

Q150. A linear programming problem is one that is concerned with

  1. finding the optimal value (maximum or minimum) of a linear function of several variables
  2. finding the limiting values of a linear function of several variables
  3. finding the lower limit of a linear function of several variables
  4. finding the upper limits of a linear function of several variables

 

Q151. Find the number of all onto functions from the set {1,2,3,…,n} to itself.

  1. n2
  2. 2n
  3. n
  4. 3n

 

Q152. What is the range of the function f(x)=|x-1|x-1 ?

  1. Rf={-1,2}
  2. Rf={-1,1}
  3. Rf={-2,2}
  4. Rf=[-1,1]

 

Q153. If f:R→R is defined by f(x)=3x+2 find f(f(x))

  1. 9x+8
  2. 8x+8
  3. 9x-8
  4. -9x-8

 

Q154. Find gof and fog, if: f:R→R and g:R→R are given by f(x)=cos⁡x and g(x)=3x2

Then

  1. gof = fog.
  2. gof = fog=1.
  3. gof fog.
  4. None

 

Q155.  Let A={1,2,3}. Then number of relations containing (1,2) and (1,3) which are reflexive and  symmetric but not transitive is

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

 

Q156. A be a square matrix of order 3×3, there |KA| is equal to

  1. K3|A|
  2. K3|A|
  3. K6|A|
  4. K6|A|

 

Q157. x+y y+z z+x z x y 1 1 1 =?

  1. 1
  2. -1
  3. 2
  4. 0

 

Q158. Discuss the applicability of Rolle’s theorem for the function

 f(x)=x2/3,x∈[-1,1]

  1. Rolle’s theorem is not applicable for the given function.
  2. Rolle’s theorem is  applicable for the given function.
  3. Can’t say
  4. None

 

Q159. Test if the function f(x)=2-3x+3x2x3 is increasing or decreasing for all x∈R

  1. Increasing
  2. Decreasing
  3. Neither increasing nor decreasing
  4. Can’t say

 

Q160. The order of the differential equation 2x2d2ydx2-3dydx+y=0 is

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 0
  4. Not defined

 

Q161. If (1/3.197) = 0.3127, find the value of (1/0.0003197).

(a) 3127

(b) 3197

(c) 312.7

(d) 0.3127

 

Q162. The two lines 4x+3y=0 and 7x+5y=0 will ______ in their graphical representation.

(a) be parallel to each other

(b) intersect each other at one point only

(c) intersect each other at three points only

(d) coincide each other

 

Q163. If the two lines px + 6y+3=0 and 2x + qy+3=0 have infinite solutions then find the value of p and q respectively.

(a) 2,6

(b) 6,2

(c) 2,2

(d) 6,6

 

Q164. Which of the following triangle has the maximum area when inscribed inside the circle of same radius?

(a) Scalene

(b) Isosceles

(c) Equilateral

(d) Right angled

 

Q165. Which of the following ratio correctly depicts the division of each median of the triangle by the centroid?

(a) 1:2

(b) 1:3

(c) 2:1

(d) 3:1

 

Q166. If A is 40% more than B, then B are how much percent less than A?

(a) 28.57%

(b) 40%

(c) 33.33%

(d) 66.66%

 

Q167. If (4/5)A = 3B = (2/3)C, then what is A : B : C?

(a) 12 : 3 : 16

(b) 12 : 45 :10

(c) 15 : 4 : 18

(d) 9 : 12 : 16

 

Q168. A mixture of alcohol and water contains 7% alcohol. How much mixture (in litres) is required to get 357 litres of alcohol?

(a) 6300

(b) 4200

(c) 4900

(d) 5100

 

Q169. A sum of money becomes 77/50 of itself in 18/5 years when invested at simple interest. What is the rate (in percentage) of interest per annum?

(a) 20%

(b) 18%

(c) 12%

(d) 15%

 

Q170. The ratio of the cost price and selling price of a bulb is 15 : 18. What is the profit percentage?

(a) 16.66%

(b) 14.28%

(c) 20%

(d) 22%

 

Q171. A shopkeeper offers the following 3 schemes. Which scheme has the maximum discount percentage?

  1. Two successive discount of 20% and 25%
  2. Buy 5 get 3 free

III. Buy 5 get 6

(a) Only II

(b) Only I

(c) Only I and II

(d) Only I and III

 

Q172.

(a) 5/11

(b) 5/22

(c) 5/7

(d) 5/33

 

Q173. M can complete 3/4 part of a work in 12 days and N can complete 2/7 part of the same work in 8 days. In how many days will both complete 11/14 part of the total work?

(a) 8

(b) 9

(c) 7

(d) 6

 

Q174. A train starts moving from a place X at 7:00 a.m. and arrives at another place Y at 1:00 p.m. on the same day. If the speed of the train is 15 m/s, then what will be the distance (in km) covered by the train?

(a) 324

(b) 375

(c) 390

(d) 245

 

Directions (175-178): The HR department of an MNC prepared a report. The pie chart from this report shows number of employees the MNC has in different countries. Study the diagram and answer the following questions.

 

Q175. The maximum number of employees are from which country?

(a) F

(b) C

(c) D

(d) A

 

Q176. What is the total number of employees of the MNC?

(a) 400

(b) 600

(c) 500

(d) 300

 

Q177. The measure of the central angle of the sector representing country F is ________ degrees.

(a) 48

(b) 80

(c) 60

(d) 56

 

Q178. If the average monthly salary of the employees of this MNC is $6000 then what is the total of the salaries (in $ millions) paid to all the employees of this MNC?

(a) 36

(b) 1.8

(c) 3.6

(d) 18

 

Q179. If the lengths of the two parallel sides of a trapezium are 8 cm and 10 cm and its area is 54 cm². Find the distance between its parallel sides (in cm).

(a) 6

(b) 3

(c) 12

(d) 9

 

Q180.  ΔPQR is right angled at Q. If R = 45°, then find the value of (tan P – 1/2).

(a) (2-√3)/√3

(b) (2√3-√6)/2√2

(c) 1/2

(d) (√6-6)/3√3

 

Q181. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

45 : 20 : : 46 : ?

(a) 32

(b) 28

(c) 24

(d) 22

 

Q182. In the following question, select the related letter/letters from the given alternatives.

IMO : PTV : : KOQ : ?

(a) QUX

(b) SVW

(c) RVX

(d) RUW

 

Q183. In the following question, four number pairs are given. The number on left side of (–) is related to the number on the right side of (–) with some Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

(a) 58 – 62

(b) 18 – 22

(c) 24 – 28

(d) 36 – 42

 

Q184. In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

(a) EHL

(b) JMP

(c) SVY

(d) QTW

 

Q185. From the given alternatives, according to dictionary, which word will come at LAST position?

  1. Jailor
  2. Javelin
  3. Jam
  4. Jagged
  5. Jacket

(a) Javelin

(b) Jailor

(c) Jacket

(d) Jagged

 

Q186. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

6578, 4381, 2653, ?, 322

(a) 1322

(b) 1653

(c) 1326

(d) 1632

 

Q187. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

FH, KM, PR, UW,?

(a) ZB

(b) YA

(c) XZ

(d) YC

 

Q188. Six boys are sitting in a row facing south. Gaurav is second to the right of Akash who is at one of the end. Prem is at fourth position to the left of Raman. Jatin and Nitin sit together. How many boys are sitting to the left of Nitin?

(a) 4

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) Cannot be determined

 

Q189. In a certain code language, “CAB” is written as “6” and “LAN” is written as “27”. How is “FAN” written in that code language?

(a) 20

(b) 21

(c) 22

(d) 23

 

Q190. In a certain code language, ‘÷’ represents ‘+’, ‘-‘ represents ‘x’, ‘+’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘x’ represents ‘-‘. Find out the answer to the following question.

17 – 8 + 2 x 9 ÷ 8 = ?

(a) 7

(b) 40

(c) 67

(d) 32

 

Q191. The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation?

17 x 6 + 2 – 9 ÷ 2 = 44

(a) – and +

(b) ÷ and x

(c) x and –

(d) + and ÷

 

Q192. If 1!9 = -80, 2!8 = -60 and 8!1 = 70, then find the value of 3!2 = ?

(a) -20

(b) -120

(c) 100

(d) 10

 

Q193. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

QRPQPQPQP, QPRQPQPQP, QPQRPQPQP, QPQPRQPQP, QPQPQRPQP, _______________.

(a) QPQPQPRQP

(b) RQPQPQPQP

(c) QRPQPQPQP

(d) QPRQPQPQP

 

Q194. A street vendor pushes his cart 2 km South, then he turns East and walks 2.5 km, then he turns North and walks 1 km, then he turns to his left and walks 2.5 km. Where is he with respect to his starting point?

(a) 3 km South

(b) 1 km North

(c) 3 km North

(d) 1 km South

 

Q195. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: All pancakes are bread

Statement II: Some pizzas are pancakes

Conclusion I: No bread are pizzas

Conclusion II: Some pizzas are bread

(a) Only conclusion I follows

(b) Only conclusion II follows

(c) Both conclusions I and II follow

(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

 

Q196. In the following figure, rectangle represents Authors, circle represents Food stylists, triangle represents Potters and square represents Cricketers. Which set of letters represents Authors who are either Food stylists or Potters?

(a) ACH

(b) AC

(c) CH

(d) C

 

Q197. In the following question, four groups of three numbers are given. In each group the second and third number are related to the first number by a Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

(a) (4, 17, 13)

(b) (6, 19, 15)

(c) (15, 28, 25)

(d) (11, 24, 20)

 

Q198. In a certain code language, ‘-‘ represents ‘+’, ‘+’ represents ‘x’, ‘x’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘-‘. Find out the answer to the following question.

13 – 14 + 15 x 70 ÷ 14 = ?

(a) 4

(b) 2

(c) 47

(d) 6

 

Q199. The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation?

8 ÷ 2 – 50 x 6 + 16 = 50

(a) + and ÷

(b) – and +

(c) + and x

(d) ÷ and x

 

Q200. If 60#40 = 10, 40#20 = 6 and 60#90 = 15, then find the value of 40#30 = ?

(a) 15

(b) 12

(c) 18

(d) 7

 

Q201. Disguised unemployment generally means___________.

(a) Large number of people remain unemployed

(b) alternative employment is NOT available

(c) marginal productivity of labour is zero

(d) Productivity of workers is low

 

Q202. Which of the following Pratyahara king took the title of ‘Pramana’?

(a) Mihirbhoj

(b) Watsaraj

(c) Ram Bhoj

(d) Nagabhata II

 

Q203. Which Asian country has recently imposed its longest power cut since 1996?

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Indonesia

(c) Sri Lanka

(d) Afghanistan

 

Q204. Equinox means the date when ___________.

(a) duration of day and night are equal

(b) day is longer than the night

(c) night is longer than the day

(d) it is the shortest day and the shortest night of the year

 

Q205. Which of the following countries does NOT has the international border with India?

(a) Pakistan

(b) Bangladesh

(c) Bhutan

(d) Sri Lanka

 

Q206. Where was Guru Nanak Dev (the originator of Sikh religion) born?

(a) Amritsar

(b) Anandpur Sahib

(c) Talwandi

(d) Patna Sahib

 

Q207. Which of the following countries border touches with China?

(a) Uzbekistan

(b) Nepal

(c) Myanmar

(d) South Korea

 

Q208. Polycot is a mixture of which among the following?

(a) Polyester and cotton

(b) Polyester and wool

(c) Rayon and cotton

(d) Rayon and wool

 

Q209. Which of the following is Inexhaustible Natural Resources?

(a) Air

(b) Minerals

(c) Forests

(d)  Coal

 

Q210. According to Dr. Ambedkar which Article is the most important article of Indian constitution?

(a) Article 21

(b) Article 24

(c) Article 32

(d) Article 256

 

Q211. Archaeological site named Xiamabei, which was in the news recently, is located in which country?

(a) Japan

(b) Vietnam

(c) Sumatra

(d) China

 

Q212. Which of the following relation is true regarding the amounts of genetic material contributed by the father and mother to the child?

(a) Father  >> Mother

(b) Father <<  Mother

(c) Father = Mother

(d) No relation can be determined.

 

Q213. Which city is the host of Mobile World Congress (MWC) 2022?

(a) Paris

(b) Barcelona

(c) Delhi

(d) Dubai

 

Q214. The day-to-day condition of the atmosphere at a place with respect to the temperature, humidity, rainfall, wind speed, etc., is called the ________________ at that place.

(a) Climate

(b) Ecology

(c) Environment

(d) Weather

 

Q215. Baking soda is used ______.

  1. for making baking powder
  2. in soda-acid fire extinguishers

III. to neutralize excess acid in the stomach

(a) Only I and II

(b) Only I and III

(c) Only II and III

(d) All I, II and III

 

Q216. What are the minimum qualifications of a person to become a member of Lok Sabha?

  1. Must be a citizen of India
  2. Must not be less than 25 years of age

III. Must hold an office of profit under Union Government.

(a) Both I and II

(b) Both I and III

(c) Both II and III

(d) All I, II and III

 

Q217.  In Indian parliamentary system, the leader of the largest opposition party having not less than _______ seats of total strength of the house is recognized as the leader of the opposition in that House.

(a) 1/10th

(b) 1/9th

(c) 1/8 th

(d) 1/7 th

 

Q218. What is regulated by the sphincter muscle in the stomach?

(a) Exit of the food from the stomach

(b) Entry of food in the stomach

(c) Mixing of food in the stomach

(d) Exit of food from the large intestine

 

Q219. ______ of species is a reflection of their evolutionary relationships.

(a) Characteristics

(b) Adaptation

(c) Illustration

(d) Classification

 

Q220. Which Indian city has been ranked second-most noise polluted city globally, as per the UNEP ‘Annual Frontier Report, 2022’?

(a) Delhi

(b) Mumbai

(c) Moradabad

(d) Calcutta

CUET Sample Paper 2022 – Science Answers

PASSAGE 1:

I) S1. Ans. (d)

 

S2. Ans. (d)

 

S3. Ans. (a)

 

S4. Ans. (d)

 

PASSAGE 2:

 

  1. II) S5. Ans. (b)

 

S6. Ans. (a)

 

S7. Ans. (c)

 

S8. Ans. (b)

 

PASSAGE 3:

 

S9. Ans. (d)

 

S10. Ans. (c)

 

S11. Ans. (b)

 

S12. Ans. (c)

 

PASSAGE 4:

 

S13. Ans. (a)

 

S14. Ans. (c)

 

S15. Ans. (b)

 

S16. Ans. (c)

 

S17. Ans. (d)

 

PASSAGE 5:

 

S18. Ans. (a)

 

S19. Ans. (c)

 

S20. Ans. (d)

 

S21. Ans. (c)

 

S22. Ans. (d)

 

PASSAGE 6:

 

S23. Ans. (b)

 

S24. Ans. (a)

 

S25. Ans. (d)

 

S26. Ans. (b)

 

S27. Ans. (b)

 

PASSAGE 7:

 

S28. Ans. (c)

 

S29. Ans. (a)

 

S30. Ans. (b)

 

S31. Ans. (c)

 

S32. Ans. (d)

 

GRAMMAR

 

S33. Ans.  (b) 

 

S34. Ans.  (a) 

 

S35. Ans.  (b) 

 

S36. Ans.  (a) 

 

S37. Ans.  (a) 

 

S38. Ans.  (b) 

 

S39. Ans. (a) 

 

S40. Ans.  (b) 

 

S41.Ans. (d)

Sol. F=Kq1q2rn

Comparing with F=Kq1q2r-2

We get r=-2

 

S42.Ans.(a)

Sol.F=(14πε)(q1q2)/r2

∴ε=1F1(q1q2)r2

The unit of permittivity is C2N-1m-2

 

S43.Ans.(b)

Sol. Torque acting on a dipole placed in an electric field

=pE sinθ = ql Esinθ

Max torque= qlE when sinθ= sin90°=1  

= 2×10–6× 4×10×4×10  

=32×10–3 N m

 

S44.Ans.(a)

Sol. By symmetry, field at the mid point is zero. Therefore the magnitude of electric intensity halfway is zero.

 

S45.Ans.(d)

Sol. As W=q×dV and potential difference dV=0

Therefore W = 0

 

S46.Ans.(b)

Sol. Energy gained in electric field = eV

= 1.6×10-19×2400 J

This gives K.E of 12 mv2 to the electrons

12mv2=eV

v=2eVm

v=2×1.6 ×10-19× 2400 9.1 ×10-31 

=8.44×1014=2.90×107 m/s

 

S47.Ans.(c)

Sol.Q=18μC, V=24 V

C=1836=0.5μF

E=12CV2=12×0.5×10-6362=324μJ

 

S48.Ans.(b)

Sol. Silver is the metal with the lowest resistivity.

 

S49.Ans.(d)

Sol. The charge passing through any cross-section is independent of the area of cross-section, as the current is steady.

 

S50.Ans.(d)

Sol. Resistance  R =ρlA. On stretching volume remains constant.

Al = V or A =Vl

R =l2V ⇒ ∆R =V2l×∆l

This gives ∆RR=2∆ll

So, the percentage change in resistance = 2 × % change 

in l  = 2 × 0.25% = 0.5%

 

S51.Ans.(d)

Sol.Resistance at a temperature ‘t’ is Rt  = R0(1 + αt) 

So, 50=R0(1 + 50α) and 60=R0(1 + 100α)

5060=R01 + 50αR01 + 100α

On solving α=5×10-3

Thus 50 = R0(1+50×5×10-3)

Solving R0=40 Ω.

S52.Ans.(c)

Sol. R=ρlA=ρlr2

 

R=ρl’A’=ρ16Lr82=1024R

 

S53.Ans.(d)

Sol.Kirchhoff’s first law based on the law of conservation of charge.

 

S54.Ans.(b)

Sol. A potentiometer does not draw any current from the source whose EMF is to be measured. A voltmeter always draws some current and therefore it measures less value of the EMF.

 

S55.Ans.(a)

Sol. E=10×40×10×301000=120 KWh

 

S56.Ans.(c)

Sol.When connected in series X = nR and in parallel Y =Rn

Thus XY = R2 giving R=XY

 

S57.Ans.(a)

Sol.When cut into ‘n’ parts, resistance of each part = R/n If the equivalent resistance of the combination is RP

1Rp =nR +nR + ….(n terms)

=nR × n =n2R

or Rp =Rn2 

 

S58.Ans.(d)

Sol. B =0nI

 

S59.Ans.(b)

Sol.B=02πNIa

=10-7×2×π× 500 ×0.2 0.1=6.2×10-4 T

 

S60.Ans.(b)

Sol. B =0nI=0NIL

It is independent of area of cross section of coil.

 

S61.Ans.(d)

Sol. F.v=0 always, therefore work is zero.

 

S62.Ans.(a)

Sol. Force=qvBsinθ

Since charge moves parallel to B,  θ = 0

F = qvB sinθ = zero

 

S63.Ans.(b)

Sol. The time period of a charge entering the magnetic field at right angles, is independent of the speed of charge.

 

S64.Ans.(c)

Sol. Neutral particle cannot be accelerated by a cyclotron. Since at relativistic velocities the mass of electron is variable, w changes.

 

S65.Ans.(d)

Sol. The path of charged particle will be circular.

 

S66.Ans.(a)

Sol.r=2mKBe

r is directly proportional to me

rp:rd:r=1:2:1

 

S67.Ans.(a)

Sol. It is the induced current that depends on the resistance

 

S68.Ans.(d)

Sol. All others are produced due to electromagnetic induction. Applied emf can be produced by other means.

 

S69.Ans.(c)

Sol. Smaller continuous volume Smaller Eddy current.

 

S70.Ans.(d)

Sol.U=01Edi=12Li2

 

S71.Ans.(c)

Sol. 1v+1-10=1f

1v+1-10=1-15

v=+30cm

u=-10cm

And  f=-15cm

 

S72.Ans.(b)

Sol. f=d2x24d

16=d26024d

d=100 cm

 

S73.Ans.(d)

Sol. m=-vu

The image is inverted

v=3u, f=-60

1v+1u=1f

13u+1u=1-60

∴u=-80cm

Virtual image m=–vu=3

Since the image is virtual, v=-3u

∴-13u+1u=1-60

Then u=-40cm

 

S74.Ans.(a)

Sol.Length of a shortest mirror in which a man of height H can see his body is H2

Therefore a man of 3.6m can his entire image in H2=1.62=0.8m

 

S75.Ans.(d)

Sol. The image formed by the mirror will always be an object for the other so no of images is infinite.

 

S76.Ans.(c)

Sol. To obtain a parallel reflected beam form a torch, reflector in the torch should be concave.

 

S77.Ans.(a)

Sol. Frequency remains same in both medium

 

S78.Ans.(a)

Sol. Energy of photon increases with frequency. More energy is better for emission.

 

S79.Ans.(b)

Sol. Are very short ranges forces.

 

S80.Ans.(a)

Sol. Only charged particles are affected by an electric field.

 

S81.Ans.(b) 

 

S82.Ans.(b)

 

S83.Ans.(b)

 

S84.Ans.(c)

 

S85.Ans.(d)

 

S86.Ans.(c)

 

S87.Ans.(a)

 

S88.Ans.(d)

 

S89.Ans.(d)

 

S90.Ans.(b)

 

S91.Ans.(b)

 

S92.Ans.(a)

 

S93.Ans.(b)

 

S94.Ans.(b)

 

S95.Ans.(d)

 

S96.Ans.(b)

 

S97.Ans.(c)

 

S98.Ans.(d)

 

S99.Ans.(a)

 

S100.Ans.(b)

 

S101.Ans.(b) 

 

S102.Ans.(d)

 

S103.Ans.(a)

 

S104.Ans.(d)

 

S105.Ans.(a)

 

S106.Ans.(b)

 

S107.Ans.(b)

 

S108.Ans.(a)

 

S109.Ans.(b)

 

S110.Ans.(b)

 

S111.Ans.(a)

 

S112.Ans.(a)

 

S113.Ans.(c)

 

S114.Ans.(c)

 

S115.Ans.(c)

 

S116.Ans.(c)

 

S117.Ans.(b)

 

S118.Ans.(c)

 

S119.Ans.(d)

 

S120.Ans.(d)

S121. Ans.(a)

Sol. Let tan-1⁡(-3)=y. Then, tan⁡y=-3=-tan⁡3=tan⁡3.

 We know that the range of the principal value branch of tan-1 is

 2,2 and tan⁡3 is 3.

 

S122. Ans.(d)

Sol. The given line is x+3y+7=0

 Let be the inclination of the line, then

 tan⁡θ= slope of the line =- coeff. of x coeff. of y=-13

 ⇒tan⁡θ=-tan⁡30=tan⁡18030=tan⁡150 ⇒θ=150

 

S123. Ans.(d) 

Sol. Let sin-135=x. Then, sin⁡x=35cos⁡x=1-sin2⁡x=45sec⁡x=54.

 ∴tan⁡x=sec2⁡x-1=2516-1=34 ∴x=tan-134

 35 =34 …(i)

 32 =23 ii   tan-11x=cot-1⁡x

 Hence, tan 35 +32

 =tan⁡tan-134+tan-123 [Using (i) and (ii)]

 =tan⁡34+231-3423 tan-1⁡x+tan-1⁡y=tan-1x+y1-xy =tan⁡9+812-6 =tan⁡176 =176  

 

S124. Ans.(c)

Sol. 

 a=2i-4j+5k ∴λa=2λi-4λj+5λk

For a unit vector, its magnitude equals to 1.

 ∴|λa|=(2λ)2+(4λ)2+(5λ)2=1 ⇒452=1 2=145=1(35)2 ⇒λ=±135

 

S125. Ans.(a)

Sol. 

 Let be an arbitrary constant and the required vector is -2λiȷ+2λk

 For any vector a=ax1+ayȷ+azk the magnitude |a|=ax2+ay2+az2

 (2λ)2+(λ)2+(2λ)2=9 ⇒3λ=9 ⇒λ=3

 

S126. Ans.(a)

Sol. It is known that the equation of the line through the points,  x1,y1,z1 and x2,y2,z2 is given by

 x-x1x2x1=y-y1y2y1=z-z1z1z1

Since the line passes through the points, (3,-4,-5) and (2,-3,1), its equation is given by,

 x-32-3=y+4-3+4=z+51+5x-3-1=y+41=z+56=k( say ) ⇒x=3-k,y=k-4,z=6k-5

 Therefore, any point on the line is of the form (3-k,k-4,6k-5).

 This point lies on the plane, 2x+y+z=7

 ⇒2(3-k)+(k-4)+(6k-5)=7 ⇒5k-3=7 ⇒k=2  

 Hence, the coordinates of the required point are 3-2,2-4,6×2-5 i. e. -1,-2,7.

 

S127. Ans.(c)

Sol. Let α be the required angle,

 cos⁡α=(2ı+7ȷ-3k)⋅(-1+2ȷ+4k)2162 cos⁡α=-2+14-122162 cos⁡α=02162 α=cos-1⁡0

 α=2

 

S128. Ans.(d) 

Sol. 

 Let S : Standard quality

 We want to find P(A∣S), i.e. probability that selected standard scooter is from plant A

 P(A∣S)=P(A)⋅P(A∣S)P(A)⋅P(S∣A)+P(B)⋅P(S∣B)

 Where, P(A)= probability that scooter is from A=80100

 P(B)= probability that scooter is from B=20100

 PA= probability that standard scooter from A=85100

 P(S∣B)= probability that standard scooter from B=65100

 P(A∣S)=(80)(85)(80)(85)+(20)(65) =68006800+1300=6881

 

S129. Ans.(b) 

Sol. 

 Given f(x+1)=3x+7… (1)

 Putting x-1 in place of ‘ x ‘ in (1), we get

 f(x-1+1)=3(x-1)+7 f(x)=3x+4

 f(3x)=3(3x)+4=9x+4

 

S130. Ans.(a) 

Sol. 

 Let y=133s-5=(3s-5)13, diff. w.r.t. s, we get

 dyds=-13(3s-5)13-1⋅3=-1(3s-5)4/3

 

S131. Ans.(c) 

Sol. 

Let,

 y=1-sin⁡x1+sin⁡x=1-sin⁡x1+sin⁡x1-sin⁡x1-sin⁡x =1-sin⁡x1-sin2⁡x=1-sin⁡xcos2⁡x=1-sin⁡xcos x =1cos x sin x cos x

 =sec⁡x-tan⁡x, diff. w.r.t. x, we get

 dydx=sec⁡xtan⁡x-sec2⁡x=sec⁡x(tan⁡x-sec⁡x)

 

S132. Ans.(d)

Sol.

 Given dydx+2tan⁡x⋅y=sin⁡x

It is a linear differential equation in y,

  I.F. =e∫2tan⁡xdx=e-2log⁡cos⁡x =elog⁡(cos⁡x)-2=(cos⁡x)-2=1x

 y⋅1x =∫sin⁡x⋅1x dx+C=∫sec⁡xtan⁡xdx+C=sec⁡x+C

 ⇒y=cos⁡x+Ccos2⁡x,C is arbitrary constant.

 

S133. Ans.(c)

Sol.

The given plane is

 2x-3x+4z-6=0   … (1)

Direction ratio of the normal to the plane is <2, -3,4>.

The equation of the line through origin O (0,0,0) and perpendicular to the plane (1) are

 x-02=y-0-3=z-04  … (2)

Any point on the line (2) is

 N (2λ,-3λ,4λ), where is an arbitrary real number.

If it lies on the line (1), then

 2⋅2λ-3⋅(-3λ)+4⋅4λ-6=0⇒29λ=6⇒λ=629

  The foot of perpendicular from origin to the given plane is 2⋅629,-3⋅629,4⋅629 i.e. 1229,-1829,2429.

 

S134. Ans.(d)

Sol.

 Marginal cost (MC)=ddxC(x)=ddx0⋅0005x3-0⋅7x2-30x+3000=0.0015x2-1.4x-30

 

S135. Ans.(c)

Sol.

                                   let I=∫e6log⁡xe5log⁡xe4log⁡x33log⁡xdx =∫elog x6 elog x5 elog x4 elog x3 dx∵alog⁡b-log⁡ba =∫x6x5x4x3dx =∫x3x2x-1dx=∫x2(x-1)x-1dx=∫e2dx=x33+C

 

S136. Ans.(b)

Sol.

 04cos2⁡xdx=0212(1+cos⁡2x)dx =12x+sin⁡2x2 =124+sin 2 2-0-sin 0 2 =8+14

 

S137. Ans.(b)

Sol.

 02x3sin⁡(3x)dx=-x3cos⁡(3x)3-∫-x2cos⁡(3x)dx =-x3cos⁡(3x)3+x2sin⁡(3x)3-∫2xsin⁡(3x)3dx =-x3cos⁡(3x)3+x2sin⁡(3x)3+2xcos⁡(3x)9+23∫-cos⁡(3x)3dx =-x3cos⁡(3x)3+x2sin⁡(3x)3+2xcos⁡(3x)92sin⁡(3x)27 =-0+22sin⁡23+0-2sin⁡227+0-0-0+0 =227212

 

S138. Ans.(a)

Sol.

 1eex(1+xlog⁡(x))xdx=1eex1x+log⁡(x)dx =log⁡(x)ex =log⁡(e)ee-log⁡(1)e1 =ee

 

S139. Ans.(b)

Sol.

According to the question, if the couple has two children, then the sample space is: S = {(b, b), (b, g), (g, b), (g, g)} Assume that A denote the event of both children having male and B denote the event of having at least one of the male children

 

Thus, we have:

 A∩B={(b,b)} P(A∩B)=14 P(A)=1/4 P(B)=3/4  Hence P(A∣B)=P(A∩B)P(B)  

By substituting the values, we get

 =1434 =1/3  

 

S140. Ans.(c)

Sol.

 Using Bernoulli’s Trial P( Success =x)= nCxpxq(n-x)

 x=0,1,2,…n and q=(1-p),n=8

 The probability of success, i.e. the bulb is defective =p=6100=6100

 q=1-6100=94100

probability of that there is not more than one defective piece= P(0 defective items) + P(1 defective item)=

  8C061000941008+ 8C161001941007 475077150

 

S141. Ans.(d)

Sol.

The probability that any one of them has an accident is 0.1. The probability any car reaches safely is 0.9. The probability that all the cars reach the finishing line without any accident is = (0.9) (0.9) (0.9) = 0.729

 

S142. Ans.(b)

Sol.

Given,

 fx={(x+3)2-36x-3 ,x≠3 k ,x=3  

Since, f(x) is continuous at x=3

             x→3 f(x)=f(3) ⇒            x→3 f(x)=k ⇒        x→3(x+3)2-36x-3=k ⇒        x+3→6(x+3)262(x+3)-6=k ⇒        x→3 x+3+6=k ⇒        12=k

Thus, f(x) is continuous at x=3; if k=12.

 

S143. Ans.(a)

Sol.

 Let, the side of the cube be a cm then, volume of cube (V)=a3

Differentiating V w.r.t we get

 dVdt=3a2dadt ⇒3a2dadt=9cm3/s. Given ,dVdt=9cm3/s dadt=3a2cm/s

 and surface area of cube S=6a2

 dSdt=12adadt dSdt=12a×3a2=36acm2/s

When a=10

 dSdta=10=3610=3.6cm2/s

 

S144. Ans.(b)

Sol.

 Let =a2+2a 2a+1 1 2a+1 a+2 1 3 3 1 = L. H.S.

 Applying, R1R1R2,R2R2R3

 =a2-2a a-1 0 2a-1 a-2 1 3 3 1 =(a-1)2a+1 1 0 2 1 0 3 3 1  

 [Taking (a-1) common from R1 and R2 ]

 Now, expanding along C3,

 =(a-1)2{(a+1)⋅1-(2)1} =(a-1)2(a-1)=(a-1)3 

 

S145. Ans.(a)

Sol.

 Let P(n):An=1+2n -4n n 1-2n

 P(1):A=1+2(1) -4(1) 1 1-2(1) =3 -4 1 -1

Which is true.

Assume that P(k) is true.

 i.e., Ak=1+2k -4k k 1-2k Ak+1=AkA1 =1+2k -4k k 1-2k 3 -4 1 -1 =3+6k-4k -4-8k+4k 3k+1-2k -4k-1+2k =3+2k -4-4k k+1 -2k-1 =1+2(k+1) -4(k+1) k+1 1-2(k+1)

 ∴P(k+1) is true, whenever P(k) is true.

 Hence by the Principle of Mathematical Induction Pn is true for all ∩∈N.

 

S146. Ans.(d)

Sol.

A2=A⋅A=3 1 -1 2 3 1 -1 2 =9-1 3+2 -3-2 -1+4 =8 5 -5 3 5A=53 1 -1 2 15 5 -5 10 7I=71 0 0 1 =7 0 0 7         

 A2-5A+7I   =8 5 -5 3 15 5 -5 10 +7 0 0 7 =-7 0 0 -7 +7 0 0 7 =0 0 0 0 =0

 

S147. Ans.(c)

Sol.

 y=x2+1

 y=x,x=0,x=2 =02x2+1dx-02 xdx

 

S148. Ans.(a)

Sol.

 x24+y29=1

 =402324-x2dx =4023222x2dx =6πsq unit 

 

S149. Ans.(a)

Sol.

 Maximum Z=16 at (0,4)

 Explanation: Objective function is Z=3x+4y

 The given constraints are : x+y≤4,x≥0,y≥0.

 The corner points obtained by constructing the line x+y=4, are (0,0),(0,4) and (4,0).

 

 therefore Z=16 is maximum at (0,4).

 

S150. Ans.(a)

Sol.

 finding the optimal value (maximum or minimum) of a linear function of several variables

 Explanation: A linear programming problem is one that is concerned with finding the

 optimal value (maximum or minimum) of a linear function of several variables.

 

S151. Ans.(c)

Sol.

  The number of all onto functions from the set {1,2,3,…,n} to itself is

 permutations on n symbols  1,2,3,…,n.

 Hence, permutations on n symbols 1,2,3,4,5,…,n=n

 Thus, total number of all onto maps from the set 1,2,3,…,n to itself is same as

 permutations on n symbols 1,2,,4,5,…n which is n.

 

S152. Ans.(b)

Sol.

 When x>1,

 then f(x)=x-1x-1=1

 When x<1

 then f(x)=-(x-1)x-1=-1

 Hence, Rf={-1,1}

 

S153. Ans.(a)

Sol.

 f(f(x))=3f(x)+2 =3(3x+2)+2=9x+8

 

S154. Ans.(c)

Sol.

We have,

 f(x)=cos⁡x and g(x)=3x2 ∴g∘f(x)=g(f(x))=g(cos⁡x) =3(cos⁡x)2=3cos2⁡x  and f∘g(x)=f(g(x))=f3x2=cos⁡3x2

 Hence, gof fog.

 

S155. Ans.(a)

Sol.

 Given, A={1,2,3}

 The smallest relations containing (1,2) and (1,3) which are reflexive and symmetric but not

Transitive is given by

 R={(1,1),(2,2),(3,3),(1,2),(1,3),(2,1),(3,1)}

 (1,1),(2,2),(3,3)∈R, so relation R is reflexive.

 (1,2),(2,1)∈R and (1,3),(3,1)∈R, so relation R is symmetric.

 (2,1),(1,3)∈R but (2,3)∉R, so realation R is not transitive.

 Now, if we add any two pairs 2,3 and 3,2 to relation R, then relation R will become transitive.

 Hence, the total number of the desired relation is one.

 

S156. Ans.(b)

Sol.

 |KA|=KA|A|

 N=3

 |KA|=K3|A|

 

S157. Ans.(d)

Sol.

 R1R1+R2

 =x+y+z x+y+z x+y+z z x y 1 1 1 =(x+y+z)1 1 1 z x y 1 1 1

 =0R1 and R3  area identical 

 

S158. Ans.(a)

Sol.

 f(x)=x2/3 continuous at every point of [-1,1]

 Now,f(x)=x2/3

 f(x)=2/3x-1/3

 As,x→0+f(x)→

 f(0) does not exist.

 f(x) is not differentiable at x=0

 f(x) is not differentiable in (-1,1)

 Rolle’s theorem is not applicable for the given function.

 

S159. Ans.(b)

Sol.

 f(x)=2-3x+3x2x3 f(x)=-3+6x-3x2 =-3x2-2x+1 =-3(x-1)2

 Since (x-1)2 is always positive, x≠1

 f(x)<0, for all x∈R

 Hence, f(x) is a decreasing function, for all x∈R.

 

S160. Ans.(a)

Sol.

 2x2d2ydx2-3dydx+y=0

 ∴2x2y-3y+y=0

 Highest Order of Derivative =2

  Order =2

Q161. Ans. (a)

Sol.

 

Q162. Ans. (b)

Sol.

 

Q163. Ans. (a)

Sol.

Q164. Ans. (c)

Sol.

Q165. Ans. (c)

Sol.

Centroid divides median in the ratio 2: 1

 

Q166. Ans. (a)

Sol.

 

Q167. Ans. (c)

Sol.

 

Q168. Ans. (d)

Sol.

Q169. Ans. (d)

Sol.

 

Q170. Ans. (c)

Sol.

 

Q171. Ans. (b)

Sol.

 

Q172. Ans. (b)

Sol.

 

Q173. Ans. (a)

Sol.

 

Q174. Ans. (a)

Sol.

 

Q175. Ans. (d)

Sol.

The Maximum number of employees is from country A.

 

Q176. Ans. (b)
Sol.

Total number of employees of MNC

= 120 + 180 + 20 + 20 + 160 + 20 + 80

= 600

 

Q177. Ans. (a)

Sol.

 

Q178. Ans. (c)

Sol.

Total salary = 600 × 6000= 3.6 millions

 

Q179. Ans. (a)

Sol.

 

Q180. Ans. (c)

Sol.

 

Q181. Ans. (c)

Sol.

4×5=20

Similarly, 4×6 = 24

 

Q182. Ans. (c)

Sol. + 7 series

 

Q183. Ans. (d)

Sol.

 

Q184. Ans. (a)

Sol.

Except for option (a), rest all are +3 series

 

Q185. Ans. (a)

Sol.

 

Q186. Ans. (a)

Sol.

 

Q187. Ans. (a)

Sol. +5 series

 

Q188. Ans. (d)

Sol.

 

Q189. Ans. (b)

Sol.

 

Q190. Ans. (c)

Sol.

 

Q191. Ans. (d)

Sol.

 

Q192. Ans. (d)

Sol.

(1 – 9) × 10 = -80

(2 – 8)×10 = -60

(8 – 1)×10 = 70

(3 – 2)×10 = 10

 

Q193. Ans. (a)

Sol.

 

Q194. Ans. (d)

Sol.

Q195. Ans. (b)

Sol.

 

Q196. Ans. (a)

Sol.

A, C, H

 

Q197. Ans. (c)

Sol.

4, 4+13, 4 + 13 – 4

6, 6 + 13, 6 + 13 – 4

15, 15 + 13, 15 + 13 – 3

11, 11 + 13, 11+ 13 – 4

 

Q198. Ans. (b)

Sol.

 

Q199. Ans. (c)

Sol.

 

Q200. Ans. (d)

Sol.

 

Q201. Ans. (c)

Sol. Disguised unemployment exists where part of the labor force is either left without work or is working in a redundant manner where worker productivity is essentially zero.

 

Q202. Ans. (a)

Sol.  Mihirbhoj took the title of ‘Pramana’

 

Q203. Ans. (c)

 

Q204. Ans. (a)

Sol. The time or date (twice each year) at which the sun crosses the celestial equator, when day and night is of equal length (about 22 September and 20 March)

 

Q205. Ans. (d)

Sol. India shares its political borders with other countries. Pakistan and Afghanistan are on the west and Bangladesh and Myanmar on the east. The northern boundary is made up of the Sinkiang province of China, Tibet, Nepal and Bhutan.

 

Q206. Ans. (c)

Sol. Nanak was born on 15 April 1469 at Rāi Bhoi Kī Talvaṇḍī (present day Nankana Sahib, Punjab, Pakistan) near Lahore

 

Q207. Ans. (b)

Sol. China has the maximum number of neighbors touching its border. The 14 countries touching its border are: India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan, Kazakhstan, Mongolia, Russia, North Korea, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Bhutan and Nepal

 

Q208. Ans. (a)

Sol. Polycot is a mixture of Polyester and cotton.

 

Q209. Ans. (a)

Sol. Inexhaustible resources are those resources which are present in unlimited quantity in nature and those resources which do not get exhausted or depleted by human activities. Inexhaustible resources are also known as renewable resources. These include air, clay sand, water and solar energy.

 

Q210. Ans. (c)

Sol. According to Dr. Ambedkar, Article-32 is the most important article of Indian constitution.

 

Q211. Ans. (d)

 

Q212. Ans. (c)

Sol. A child inherits half their DNA from each parent, while each parent passes half their DNA to each child. This is achieved through sexual fertilization, requiring the meeting of the sperm with the egg, and the combining of the DNA from both (since the sperm and egg contain only half the genetic information in the parent)

 

Q213. Ans. (b)

 

Q214. Ans. (d)

Sol. Weather is described in terms of variable conditions such as temperature, humidity, wind velocity, precipitation, and barometric pressure. The average weather conditions of a region over time are used to define a region’s climate.

 

Q215. Ans. (d)

Sol. Baking soda is used for making baking powder, in soda-acid fire extinguishers, to neutralize excess acid in the stomach.

 

Q216. Ans. (a)

Sol. The minimum qualifications of a person to become a member of Lok Sabha – Must be a citizen of India, Must not be less than 25 years of age, and not hold an office of profit under Union Government.

 

Q217. Ans. (a)

Sol. In Indian parliamentary system, the leader of the largest opposition party having not less than 1/10th seats of total strength of the house is recognized as the leader of the opposition in that House.

 

Q218. Ans. (a)

Sol. The exit of food from the stomach is regulated by a sphincter muscle which releases it in small amounts into the small intestine.

 

Q219. Ans. (d)

Sol. Classification of species is a reflection of their evolutionary relationships.

 

Q220. Ans. (c) 

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CUET Sample Paper 2022: FAQs

Q. Is CUET compulsory for Du 2022?

Yes, DU started taking admission for UG courses through CUET 2022. If students want to get admission in one of the UG courses of DU must apply for CUET 2022. 

Q. Is CUET 2022 have a negative marking?

Yes, CUET 2022 has a negative marking. The students will get +5 marks for each correct answer and a -1 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer.  

Q. Is CUET 2022 difficult?

If you will prepare with full planning and you are giving your 100% then you will sail through CUET 2022 and you won’t find it difficult. 

 

 

 

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