The Central Board Board of Secondary Education has released the CBSE Class 10 SST Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 for upcoming Class 10 Board Exams. CBSE Class 10 SST Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 is now available on the on cbseacademic.nic.in.The CBSE will begin the Class 10 board exams on February 15 for the academic year 2022-23.
Check out: CBSE Class 10 Date Sheet 2023
Along with the CBSE Class 10 Maths Additional Practice Question Paper 2023, the CBSE also releases the CBSE Class 10 Maths Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 Marking Scheme. With the aid of CBSE Class 10 Maths Additional Practice Question Paper 2023, students may gain a better grasp of the board exam pattern, question types, answer possibilities, and other aspects. Here we have provided the CBSE Class 10 Maths Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 Pdf below in the article.
|Class 10 Maths Additional Practice Paper||Class 10 English Additional Practice Paper|
|Class 10 SST Additional Practice Paper||Class 10 Science Additional Practice Paper|
Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80
i. Question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
v. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.
vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary
Candidates for class 10 may download the CBSE Class 10 SST Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 and enhance their preparation for the upcoming CBSE Class 10 Board Exam 2023 by using the sample question
MCQs (1 x 20=20)
1. Rehman is a poor agricultural labour and needs a loan for cultivation on his small piece of land.
Which of the following would DEFINITELY offer him a fair interest rate and flexible terms of credit?
A. village moneylender
B. cooperative society
C. commercial bank
D. rich landowner
2. Shazia’s teacher asked her a question, to which she answered, “MGNREGA 2005”. What could have been the teacher’s question?
A. Name the act that was devised to implement the Right to Work.
B. Name the act that was devised to implement the Right to Equality.
C. Name the act that was devised to implement the Right to Freedom.
D. Name the act that was devised to implement the Right to Education.
3. Which of the following steps would guarantee the welfare of the employees in the organised sector?
P: payment of equal remuneration to men and women at the workplace
Q: protection of the employment of women during the time of maternity
R: prohibition of child marriage and providing relief to victims
S: payment of a one-time bonus to all retired employees
A. only P and S
B. only P, R and S
C. only P, Q and S
D. all – P, Q, R and S
4. Which of the following is NOT an example of the process of globalisation?
A. Google’s headquarters being in California with multiple offices across the world
B. Railways being the largest public sector undertaking employer in India
C. McDonalds introducing McAloo Tikki specially for the Indian menu
D. Spanish family having masala dosas for their weekend breakfast
5. A multinational company (MNC) is a corporate organization that owns and controls production in more than one country. Accordingly, which of the following countries has the BEST potential for an MNC to be set up?
A. Country W has a rich culture and ample biodiversity.
B. Country X provides loans to foreign companies easily at high interest rates.
C. Country Y has an educated workforce ready to work for affordable remuneration.
D. Country Z has a rule which allows people from a specific religion to conduct business freely.
6. Under the sustainable development goals, social equality with regards to access to resources is one of the most pressing challenges. Accordingly, which of the following crises is related to the statement above?
A. damage to infrastructure due to floods
B. scarcity of clean water for consumption
C. damage to crops caused by heavy rains
D. combating water borne diseases in rural India
7. Sharanya is making a list of natural resources for a project. She puts wind energy under one column and coal under another column. On what basis is she classifying the resources?
A. on the basis of origin
B. on the basis of ownership
C. on the basis of exhaustibility
D. on the basis of status of development
8. The Nicobar pigeon is a bird found only on small islands and coastal regions from the Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and further east – through the Malay Archipelago to the Solomon and Palau region. (Source – Wikipedia)Accordingly, which of the following kind of species would it fall under?
A. rare species
B. extinct species
C. endemic species
D. vulnerable species
9. Learning from Belgium’s experience, which of the following steps could have MOST LIKELY avoided a civil war in Sri Lanka that ended in 2009?
A. making reservations in jobs for the Tamil speaking minority community
B. dividing the entire country on the basis of linguistic lines to appease the citizens
C. devising laws to accommodate the ethnic differences of citizens to ensure peace
D. conducting a thorough census to strictly segregate the Indian Tamils from the Sri Lankan Tamils
10. Look at the world map given below and answer the following question.
Which of the following deductions can DEFINITELY be made from the map? 1
A. Argentina is the largest federal country in South America.
B. Germany has states that share power with the centre.
C. Asia has the maximum number of federal nations.
D. China does not have provincial administrations.
11. There are two statements given below, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. 1
Assertion (A): In India, the literacy rate among women is significantly lower than among men.
Reason (R): The patriarchal system in India gives more value to the education of the heir who carries on the family name.
A. A is true but R is false.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
D. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
12. Country P has recently adopted democracy after a long struggle. Which of the following outcomes can the citizens of this country DEFINITELY expect due to this change?
A. sharp decrease in poverty in all communities
B. more accountability on part of the government
C. drastic rise in the national income due to sharp economic growth
D. rules and laws to be drafted according to the needs of the majority groups
13. ‘Opposition slams minister’s remark; condemns rising fuel prices.’
The above statement shows the important function of opposition parties in a democracy. Which of the following options does NOT fall under the functions of an opposition party?
A. auditing the government’s spending and budget
B. criticising the government for its shortcomings and mistakes
C. asking questions from the government to ensure accountability
D. mobilising the support of other parties to oppose the decisions of the government
14. Which of the following shortcomings DEFINITELY exists in democratic regimes?
A. glorification of war
B. sluggish decision making
C. elimination of free market
D. diffusion of aggressive nationalism
15. Given below are some allegories used in Europe during the nationalist movement. Accordingly, which one of the following signified the beginning of a new era?
A. broken chains
B. rays of the rising sun
C. breastplate with eagle
D. olive branch around sword
16. Read the given data and answer the following question.
Identify the country that MOST PROBABLY has a well-developed healthcare system but
lesser average education than India. 1
A. Sri Lanka
17. The woodcut painting given below was created during the time when Indians were beginning to accept the idea of women’s education in the late 19th century.
Which of the following scenarios was the artist MOST LIKELY trying to portray in this art piece? 1
A. listening to music is the best way to spend one’s free time
B. increasing popularity of western idea of marriage
C. challenging the conventional gender roles
D. pleasure being the ultimate goal of life
Note: The following question is for visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Q No. 17
‘Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before the virtual writer!’ What did Mercier mean by the above lines?
A. rulers often attacked the writers in order to maintain their power over people
B. the spread of print culture would bring down the spirits of intellectual writers
C. printing of books had the potential to bring an end to despotism
D. cruel leaders needed to reflect upon their actions.
18. Against which of the following forms of discrimination did Mahatma Gandhi launch a satyagraha in South Africa?
19. Look at the image given below.
Which of the following goals of development should be prioritised in this region? 1
A. reducing income disparities
B. combatting climate change
C. ending gender violence
D. ensuring caste equality
20. Monica is reading an abstract written by Tarabai Shinde. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be the central issue of this text?
A. religious indoctrination by priests
B. miserable lives of farmers in debt
C. plight of upper caste Hindu widows
D. exploitation of children by factory owners
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 x 4=8)
21. ‘Even ‘ready’ foodstuff in distant parts of the world might share common origins.’ Justify the above statement with a relevant example.
22. What are some ways in which caste demonstrates itself in politics?
23. Briefly describe the two MAJOR ways that electricity is generated around the world for human consumption.
Briefly describe any two non-conventional sources of energy.
24. Why is the existence of a public sector necessary in any economy?
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3X5=15)
25. ‘Salt is something that is consumed by the rich and the poor alike across India.’
Which step by Viceroy Irwin enraged Gandhi to launch a nationwide protest movement using this essential item as a symbol? Elaborate with example.
Gandhi was vehemently against the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, popularly known as the Rowlatt Act. Elaborate.
26. ‘The organised working class owes respect to the first men who planted the standard of labour solidarity on the hostile frontier of the unorganised industry.’ Analyse the above statement to highlight the rights that the organized industry enjoys now due to the solidarity shown by the labour groups earlier.
27. Accommodation of social divisions is a crucial aspect of democracy. However, the extent of such accommodation depends on various perspectives of the people, politicians, and the government. Briefly explain these factors.
28. ‘We have not inherited the world from our forefathers — we have borrowed it from our children.’ Explain the above statement with an example.
29. Identify the road development project from the map given below and briefly describe it.
LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5X4=120)
30. ‘Business is all about solving people’s problems – at a profit.’
Explain how banks function like a business with respect to the above statement.
‘A bank is a place that will lend you money if you can prove that you do not need it.’
Justify the above statement in relation to the banks’ requirements to ensure the security of the funds they lend.
31. ‘Agricultural sector and manufacturing sector move hand in hand.’
Justify the above statement with suitable examples. 5
‘Determining an ideal industrial location is a challenging undertaking.’
Examine the above statement and elucidate.
32. Define political parties and describe any four problem areas in their working that they need to face and overcome.
Describe some ways political parties around the world can be reformed to overcome the challenges they face.
33. ‘Language is power, life and the instrument of culture, the instrument of liberation.’ Justify the above statement in light of the Nationalist Movement in Poland, Europe.
‘Importance of culture – art, poetry, stories and music help shape nationalist feelings.’
Justify the above statement with respect to European nationalism.
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4X3=12)
34. Observe the two images given below and answer the questions that follow.
34.1 Identify one similarity between the images given. (1)
34.2 How did James Watt contribute to the activity seen in image 2? (1)
34.3 Analyse the effect on the labour force in the cotton industry due to James Watt’s
35. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (4)
Today, Indian agriculture finds itself at a crossroads. To make agriculture successful and profitable, proper thrust should be given to the improvement of the condition of marginal and small farmers. The green revolution promised much. But today it’s under controversy. The keyword today is “gene revolution”, which includes genetic engineering. Organic farming is [also] much in vogue today because it is practised without factory-made chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides. A few economists think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they continue growing food grains on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises. India’s rural population is about 600 million which depends upon 250 million (approximate) hectares of agricultural land, an average of less than half a hectare per person. Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously. Because fruits, medicinal herbs, flowers, vegetables, and bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba need much less irrigation than rice or sugarcane. India’s diverse climate can be harnessed to grow a wide range of high-value crops.
Source: NCERT Contemporary India, Chapter-4, Agriculture
35.1 Give two reasons why the Green Revolution is under controversy. 1
35.2 ‘. . … holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises.’ Evaluate why this is a concern. 1
35.3 Bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba have been referred to as high-value crops. Why? 2
36. Read the passage, observe the image given below and answer the questions that follow. 4
The cartoon above refers to the problems of running Germany’s grand coalition government that includes the country’s two major parties, namely the Christian Democratic Union and the Social Democratic Party. The two parties are rivals to each other. They had to form a coalition government because neither of them got a clear
majority of seats on their own in the 2005 elections. They take divergent positions on several policy matters but jointly run the government.
Source (edited): NCERT
36.1 Which disadvantage of coalition governments is the image highlighting? 1
36.2 Why did the rival parties choose to make a coalition despite being rivals? 1
36.3 How does a democratic system, at times, cause such a challenge? 2
MAP SKILLS BASED QUESTIONS (2+3=5)
37. 37a. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. 2
Identify A and B based on the events given below.
A. The place of Cotton Mill Workers Satyagraha.
B. The 1920 Indian National Congress session took place here.
37b. On an outline map of India, locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols. 3
A. Rana Pratap Sagar
B. Singrauli Thermal Plant
C. Gandhinagar Software Technology Park
D. Paradip Port
NOTE: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of Q. No.
37. Attempt any FIVE questions. 5
37.1 Name the place where an unfortunate incident happened, due to which the NonCooperation Movement was called off. 1
37.2 Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in Dec 1920. 1
37.3 Name the state where Sardar Sarovar Dam is located. 1
37.4 Name the state where Singrauli thermal power plant is located. 1
37.5 Name the state where Pune Software Technology Park is located. 1
37.6 Name the state where Tuticorin Sea Port is located. 1
The Central Board of Secondary Education is going to conduct the CBSE Class 10 Board Exams from February 15, 2023, onwards.
CBSE Class 10 SST Additional Practice Question Paper 2023pdf is now available on the on cbseacademic.nic.in.Although to make things easier for students here we provide the direct Link to download the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Additional Practice Question Paper 2023 Pdf.
Students can better understand the format, question types, response options, and other elements of the board exam with the help of the CBSE Class 10 SST Additional Practice Question Paper 2023.
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