The students appearing in CBSE Exam 2023 must solve CBSE Class 12 History Practice Questions 2023 given on this page to consolidate their preparation. As exam dates are coming close, the students can assess their preparation for by solving CBSE Class 12 History Practice Questions 2023. Bookmark this page to get all the updates from the Central Board of Secondary Education.
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The exam pattern given here is based on the sample paper published by the Central Board of Secondary Education. The Class 12 History question paper will be divided into three sections namely Section A, Section B, Section C, and Section D. Check the further details listed below:
Section A: In this section, short answer type questions of 3 marks each will be asked.
Section B: In this section long answer-type questions of 6 marks each will be asked.
Section C: This section consists of case-based questions of 4 marks each.
Section D: This section consists of map-based questions of 2 marks each.
Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80
(i) Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 34 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question 1 to 21 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 22 to 27 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60-80 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no 28 to 30 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 8 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 300-350 words
(v) Section D – Question no.31 to 33 are Source based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each
(vi) Section-E – Question no. 34 is Map based, carrying 5 marks that includes the identification and location of significant test items. Attach the map with the answer book.
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q.1 Historians study ancient textual traditions to learn more about who wrote what and for whom. Accordingly, what does the above line MOST LIKELY suggest about historical text/inscriptions?
A. They comment on social situations and practices.
B. They were written from the perspective of some social categories.
C. They highlight the authority that the kings enjoyed over their subjects.
D. The language used in such sources was used by locals and royals of that era.
Q.2 Which of the following is reinforced by inscriptions that describe the kingdoms which ruled the Indian subcontinent between 600 BCE & 600 CE?
A. locals lived in mud houses
B. some people learned to read
C. high violence against women
D. seals were used for international trade
Q.3 Match the following and select the CORRECT option.
1. Mature Harappan settlement
2. Early Harappan settlement
4. Late Harappan occupation
a. Magan (Oman)
b. Lothal (Gujarat)
c. Cemetery H (Punjab region – India
d. Kalibangan (Rajasthan)
A. 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d
B. 1 – b, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – c
C. 1- b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – c
D. 1- d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
Q.4 Which of the following would describe the marriage between Ratna Mohanty, an Odia woman, and Raghbir Rathod, a man from Rajasthan?
Q.5 Given below is an image of Rajgir which is located in present-day Bihar and used to be known as Rajagaha during the sixth and the fourth centuries BCE. Which of the following statements about Rajgir may be said to be TRUE based on the image?
A. It was a place that was strategically important to defend from enemy attacks.
B. It was a place that was specifically designated for poor people to live.
C. It was located on a land where farming could be done by people easily.
D. It was a place where walls were made of clay bricks and mortar.
NOTE: The following question is for visually impaired candidates in lieu of an image question.
Who among the following would DEFINITELY be the poorest in a village which existed during King Ashoka’s rule?
A. landless labourers
B. small peasants
Q.6 ‘Monastic existence is a necessary condition of salvation.’
Accordingly which of the following is ESSENTIALLY desirable to attain salvation in Jainism?
A. being forgiving to other fellow human beings
B. live a free life from possessions and ties
C. follow the path of non-violence and truth
D. concentrate on performing karma
Q.7 Which among the following was used in warfare by the Vijayanagara Empire during the 14th century?
Q.8 Fill in the blank:
In the Vijayanagara Empire, Nayakas and Amar Nayakas were regarded as powerful because both __________.
A. owned the most fertile land in the kingdom
B. had friendly relations with the Sultans
C. managed and controlled the temples
D. offered military support to the King
Q.9 Given below are the places in which the Bhakti movement originated and spread across the country.
Arrange them in the correct chronological order.
iii. Tamil Nadu
A. i, iv, iii, ii
B. ii, iii, i, iv
C. iii, ii, iv, i
D. iv, i, ii, iii
Q.10 There are two statements given below, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The Harappan civilization declined gradually and slowly rather than abruptly.
Reason (R): Harappa witnessed many climatic changes, deforestation, excessive floods, and overuse of the landscape before collapsing.
A. A is true but R is false.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
D. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
Q.11 Al-Biruni, Ibn Battuta, and Francois Bernier came from vastly different social and cultural environments. Hence, they were more attentive to everyday activities and practices.
Accordingly, which of the following would such travellers MOST LIKELY include in their writings?
A. poetry that praised the emperor
B. weapons that were used in a war
C. people’s participation in choosing their local leader
D. customs that were followed during wedding celebrations
Q.12 The names of some notable individuals linked to the Indian uprising of 1857 are listed below.
Which among the following is CORRECTLY matched?
A. Lord Dalhousie – Viceroy of India
B. Wajid Ali Shah – Mughal Emperor
C. Shah Mal – rebel leader of the Kol tribals
D. Nana Saheb – successor to Peshwa Baji Rao II
Q.13 There are two statements given below, marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Rich ryots and village headmen – jotedars and mandals – wanted the Zamindars to be in trouble.
Reason (R): The greater part of rural credit was supplied by the jotedars, not by the Zamindars who administered rural territory than owning land.
A. A is true but R is false.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
D. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
Q.14 Al-Biruni depended mainly on the works of Brahmansa and often quoted from the Vedas, the Puranas, the Bhagavad Gita, the works of Patanjali, and the Manusmriti. From the above line, which of the following can be inferred?
A. He understood the oppression that untouchables faced in Indian society.
B. He read extensively about the existence of different religions in India.
C. He had a clear understanding of state diplomacy and administration.
D. He learned a lot about Indian society by reading ancient texts.
Q.15 Consider the working conditions of the following farmers:
P: He owns a small piece of land in his village which he cultivates with his wife.
Q: She is a farmer who cultivates outside of her village as she earns more there.
R: He owns a large size land in his village and hires farmers to work in his fields.
S: He is a farmer who works on land outside of his village on a contractual basis.
Who among these would have been considered khud-kashta peasants in 17th-century India?
A. both P and Q
B. both R and S
C. both P and R
D. both Q and S
Q.16 Why did most people work in the agriculture sector during medieval India?
A. The Mughals and other princely states during that time paid farmers the highest salaries.
B. There were plenty of cultivable lands where food and non-food crops could be produced.
C. According to caste rules, all members of the society needed to produce their own food.
D. Unlike other professions at the time, farming was done by both men and women.
Q.17 Why did the British favour the Santhals more than the Paharias?
A. Paharias were a nomadic group whereas the Santhals were a civilised settled population.
B. Paharias refused to practice shifting agriculture which the Santhals agreed to do.
C. Santhals agreed to collect mahua from the forests which the Paharias denied.
D. Santhals were ready to clear forests and plough which the Paharias refused.
Q.18 Which among the following actions were adopted by followers of Gandhian Nationalism?
A. encouraging people to learn English
B. giving hate speech against the Indian minorities
C. mobilising people to form an army against the British
D. breaking unfair laws that the British had imposed on Indians
Q.19 Which of the following sources from the 19th century will NOT provide facts surrounding the events of the sepoy mutiny?
A. articles from the Delhi Urdu Akhbar
B. coins and jewellery used by people
C. images from the Punch Magazine
D. the Azamgarh Proclamation
Q.20 After discussion among the constituent assembly members, which of the following was added to the Indian Constitution?
A. reserving one-third of the seats for women in local governments
B. having separate electoral seats for the Dalits and the Adivasis
C. granting the right to vote to all adult citizens of India
D. reserving seats for Muslims in government bodies
Q.21 Why did the argument for greater power to the provinces provoke a strong reaction among the members of the Assembly?
A. They feared that decentralisation will stall the economic development of the nation.
B. They feared that people would be more loyal to the province than the nation.
C. They wanted Indians to be under one nation – one government model.
D. They wanted to follow the British unitary system of governance.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.22 Give three examples that demonstrate complicated decision-making took place in the Harappan society.
Explain how archaeologists classified Harappan artefacts to reconstruct their history.
Q.23 ‘One means of claiming high status was to identify with a variety of deities.’
(a) What do the above lines imply about the new notions of kingships?
(b) Give two examples of what the states did to establish the new style of kingships between 200 to 300 AD.
Q.24 Give three reasons why Ibn Battuta’s travel accounts differ greatly from Al Biruni’s travel accounts.
Q.25 ‘In the constant struggle for power, forts and fortified settlements of the Vijayanagara Empire played a significant role in resisting invasions.’ Discuss
Q.26 ‘The East India Company commissioned Buchanan with specific instructions about what he had to look for and that he had to record.’ Justify the above statement with three suitable arguments.
Q.27 ‘The sepoys were the makers of their own rebellion.’
Give three examples in support of the above statement.
‘The national movement in the twentieth century drew its inspiration from the events of 1857.’
Write the three learnings that the leaders of the 20th century freedom movement received from the events of 1857.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.28 Elaborate through examples on how inequality and human suffering were facts of life in the Mahabharat era.
List the non-Kshatriya Kings and write about their policies that challenged the Brahmanical ideas of society.
Q.29 Discuss the various aspects of overseas trade that occurred between the 16th and 18th centuries in India and its impact on the economy.
Explain the caste and gender-based inequalities that existed in India during the 16th -18th century AD.
Q.30 Describe the major events that took place after Quit India movement that ultimately resulted in India’s partition.
List the various sources Rita may use to make a project about the major events of the Indian National Movement.
Q.31 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
34.1 The poem highlights the treatment meted out to the slaves in ancient India. Illustrate with one example.
34.2 Compare the teachings of Brahmanism and Buddhism that the poem tries to emphasise.
34.3 The poem finds mention in the Sutta Pitaka which literally means ‘Basket of Discourse’. What does it say about the main content of this canon of Buddhist writings?
Q.32 Read the excerpt given below and answer the questions that follow.
32.1 Chishti devotionalism was expressed through ziyarat and qawaali. Identify what Jahanara performed.
32.2 Explain why Jahanara referred to herself as a ‘faqira’ at the tomb.
32.3 Illustrate with four examples Jahanara’s absolute devotion and reverence for the ‘revered one’.
Q.33 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
33.1 What is the idea of separate electorates that Ballabh Pant was opposed to?
33.2 Why does Ballabh Pant call separate electorates as ‘suicidal to minorities’?
33.3 Explain the counter arguments in favour of separate electorates as B. Pocker Bahadur put forward.
Q.34 34.1 On the given political map of India, locate and label the following:
(a) Ajanta- a site of rock-cut cave monuments
(b) Lothal- an Indus Valley site
(c) Panipat – battle site between Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi
(d) Thanjavur- a centre of Nayaka power
34.2 On the same outline map, two places have been marked as A and B which were under British control in 1857. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.No.34
34.1 Mention any two mature Harappan sites that are in present-day Gujarat.
34.2 Mention any one important territory under the Mughal empire that is in present-day Pakistan.
Mention the centre of Nayaka power that has the Brihadishvara temple.
34.3 Mention two cities under British Control in 1857 that are on the western coast.
Below is Class 12 History Additional Practice Questions pdf download link:
Class 12 History Additional Practice Questions pdf download link
1. Explain the various perspectives that were discussed by the members of the Constituent Assembly from 1946-1950 about the depressed castes.
2. Give three differences between the roles that Zamindars and Jotedars played in the Permanent Settlement revenue system of Bengal of the 18th century.
Describe how the British transformed the Santhals into settled agriculturalists in the 19th century.
3. ‘The mutiny in the sepoy ranks quickly became a rebellion. There was general defiance of all kinds of authority and hierarchy.’ Elaborate with examples of how sepoys organised themselves to rebel against the British in 1857.
4. Explain by giving three examples of how Mahatma Gandhi gained followers and became a mass leader in India.
5. Explain in detail the different steps the Britishers took to suppress the rebellion of 1857.
“A whole world of nationalist imagination was woven around the revolt.” Elaborate by giving three examples of how the revolt is interpreted in the nationalist imaginaries.
6. Critically examine how the coming of Mahatma Gandhi changed the nature of the Indian National Movement.
7. List any six expectations which Mughals had from their nobles.
Rajiv bought Akbar Nama at the station while waiting for his train. Describe the various things that Rajiv will learn about Akbar’s empire from this book.
8. Read the passage and answer the questions given below
In court, status was determined by spatial proximity to the king. The place accorded to a courtier by the ruler was a sign of his importance in the eyes of the emperor. Once the emperor sat on the throne, no one was permitted to move from his position or to leave without permission.’
(a) Write the name of a courtier who was part of the Mughal courts. (1)
(b) Explain one key discussion that took place in Mughal courts. (1)
(c) Explain the roles played by the courtiers in the Mughal empire. (2)
9. Read the passage and answer the questions given below. ‘On 13 December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the “Objectives Resolution” in the Constituent Assembly. It was a momentous resolution that outlined the defining ideals of the Constitution of Independent India and provided the framework within which the work of constitution-making was to proceed.’
(a) Write about the concerns that Jaipal Singh of the Constituent Assembly raised regarding the Objectives Resolution.
(b) Write one pledge that was guaranteed to all citizens by the Objectives Resolution.
(c) Explain why the ideals of the Objectives Resolution were used to frame the Indian constitution.
(d) Write the names of two groups whose authority would have been challenged because of the ideals of the Objectives Resolution.
10. a) On the given political outline map of India, locate and label ANY ONE of the following with appropriate symbol:
(i) The northern state in India where Rowlatt Satyagraha was adopted by most people of that state.
(ii) The state from where Gandhi started the campaign of Salt Satyagraha and successfully broke the salt law.
b) The map given below highlights a key center marked as P, where a revolt took place in 1857 which was led by Nana Saheb. Identify P.
Note: The following questions are for the visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 10
10. a) Write the name of one dynasty with whom the Mughals maintained diplomatic relations.
b) Explain why the elites and moneylenders were attacked by the rebels during the 1857 revolt.
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You can get CBSE Class 12 History Practice Questions 2023 on this page. We have covered the practice question of other subjects on the official website of Adda247 School.
As per the CBSE Class 12 date sheet released by the board, the CBSE Class 12 Exam 2022 will be held between 26th April to 15th June 2023.
Yes, CBSE Class 12 History Practice Questions 2022 will be very helpful for students appearing in CBSE Exam 2023. The students practising CBSE Class 12 History Practice Questions 2023 will surely get some extra marks in the final examination.
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