To clear the UPSC CSE 2021 exam, aspirants must be very strong in their fundamentals along with the current affairs. Adda247 has taken an important step to help all CSE aspirants by providing them daily quizzes on App. Now aspirants will get free quizzes to practice along with analysis of The Hindu, PIB, etc.

1. Consider the following cases and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. In the Alakh Alok Srivastava case, the Supreme Court of India intervened to ensure the availability of basic amenities such as food and medicines during travel and transit of migrant workers.
2. In the Harsh Mander case, while highlighting the right to health and equity, the petitioners stated before the Supreme Court that migrant workers needed money apart from food and shelter homes in order to return home safely.
3. They argued that under Section 12 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, stranded workers should be given salaries and relief by the government.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

UPSC 2021 Online Coaching Classes | Bilingual GS Foundation Batch
2. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi.
1. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi is a central sector scheme under the government of India which provides income support to the farmers and their families.
2. Under the scheme, income support of 10,000/- per year in three equal instalments is provided to small and marginal farmer families having combined landholding/ownership of up to 5 hectares.
3. State Governments and UT administrations will identify the farmer families which are eligible for support as per scheme guidelines.
4. The fund will be directly transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 89, 12 January
3. Which of the Indian states has a history of consulting with worker groups and civil society organisations beginning from the initial stage of policy formulation to its field-level implementation?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d)Odisha

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 88, 11 January
4. Abraham Accords were signed between which of the following countries?
1. Israel
2. United Arab Emirates
3. Qatar
4. Saudi Arabia
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 87, 9 January
5. Consider the following statements with respect to the Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF).
1. The initial purpose of the fund was to help people displaced due to the partition of India and Pakistan.
2. The resources of the PMNRF are utilized primarily to render immediate relief to families of those killed in natural calamities.
3. PMNRF has not been constituted by the Parliament.
4. Home Minister is the Chairman of PMNRF.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Aiming for UPSC CSE 2021? Get the best test series for sure selection: Click Here

6. Which among the following public sector unit is set to invest Rs.1.22 lakh crore by 2023-24, to achieve 1 billion tons of fuel output?
(a) SAIL
(b) NTPC
(c) Coal India
(d) ONGC

UPSC Prelims 2021 – Indian Polity | Strategy & Goal: Check Details Here
7. Which among the following Union Territories of India have joined in the ‘One Nation One Ration Card’ Scheme?
(a) Puducherry and Andaman & Nicobar
(b) Ladakh and Puducherry
(c) Lakshadweep and Andaman & Nicobar
(d) Ladakh and Lakshadweep

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 86, 8 January
8. Who among is the first and youngest tribal woman in the world to climb six tallest mountain peaks across six continents?
(a) Shivangi Pathak
(b) Aditi Vaidya
(c) Malavath Poorna
(d) Anuja Vaidya
9. Every year National Youth Day is celebrated on-
(a) December 29
(b) January 12
(c) March 12
(d) February 14

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 85, 7 January
10. What is Landouria Tonywhitteni that was named after Tony Whitten?
(a) Beetle
(b)Snail
(c) Grasshopper
(d) Snake

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 84, 5 January
Ans. 1(d), 2(c), 3(a), 4(a), 5(a), 6(c), 7(d), 8(c), 9(b), 10(b)

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 14 January, 2021

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SEBI Grade A Syllabus 2021: The Securities & Exchange Board Of India (SEBI) has released a recruitment notification to appoint suitable candidates for the post of Assistant Manager in the following categories

  • General, Legal, IT, Civil & Electrical Engg, Research & Official Language.

As per SEBI Grade A Notification, 147 vacancies has been released.

The most important thing to do first gets to know the complete syllabus for SEBI Grade A Officer Exam 2021. The SEBI Syllabus and Exam Pattern is quite different from other exams. Hence, it becomes all the more important to understand it first.

SEBI Grade A 2021 Syllabus

The syllabus for SEBI Grade A is quite different from the rest of the Govt. Exams. SEBI Grade A Officer Exam comprises of three phases.  

  • Phase I: On-line screening examination consisting of two papers of 100 marks each
  • Phase II: On-line examination consisting of two papers of 100 marks each
  • Phase III: Interview

Paper I and Paper II of General Stream will be common to all the candidates. All the questions in every phase will be Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ’s) with an exception to the language subject.  All question papers (in both the Phases, except the test of English) will be set bilingually in Hindi and English.

The sequence for SEBI Grade A Syllabus is given in the following manner:

sebi-grade-a-syllabus

SEBI Grade A Exam Pattern For Phase I

SEBI Grade A Phase I Exam will have two papers: Paper I and Paper II. Both the papers will have Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ’s). Paper 1 will be common for all the streams whereas the exam pattern of Paper 2 will vary according to various disciplines. Both the papers will be of 100 marks.

Paper Stream/Subjects Maximum Marks Duration Cut-Off
Paper 1 All Streams: General Awareness, English Language,
Quantitative Aptitude and Test of Reasoning.
100 60 minutes 30%
Paper 2 General Stream: Commerce, Accountancy, Management,
Finance, Costing, Companies Act and Economics
100 40 minutes 40%
Legal, Information Technology, Engineering
Stream (Civil & Electrical), Official Language
stream
100 40 minutes 40%
Research Stream: Economics, Econometrics, Statistics,
Finance and Commerce.
Aggregate Cut off 40%

SEBI Grade A Phase I Marking Scheme

  • There shall be negative marking of 1/4th of marks assigned to the question for every incorrect answer.
  •  There shall be a cut-off of minimum 30% for Paper 1 (no sectional cut-off shall be there)
  • Candidates would need to secure separate cut-off in each paper as mentioned above as well as an aggregate cut-off marks of 40% in Phase I exam to be shortlisted for Phase II
  • Candidates have to secure separate cut-off in each paper as mentioned above as well as aggregate cut-off marks of 40% in Phase I exam to be shortlisted for Phase II.

SEBI Grade A Online Test Series

SEBI Grade A Exam Pattern For Phase II

Candidates who secure the cut off will be eligible to appear for the SEBI Grade A Phase II Exam. SEBI Grade A Phase 2 will have two Papers: Paper I and Paper II of 100 marks each. Paper I and General Stream will be common to all. Candidates need to secure more marks in this phase as this would be taken into account for the final selection.

Paper Stream/Subjects Maximum Marks Duration Cut-Off
Paper I All streams: English (Descriptive Test) to
test the drafting skills
100 60 minutes 30%
Paper II General Stream: MCQ’s on
Commerce, Accountancy,
Management, Finance, Costing, Companies
Act & Economics
100 40 minutes 40%
Legal, Engineering Stream (Civil &
Electrical) and Official Language stream:
MCQ’s on Specialized
subject related to stream.
100 40 minutes 40%
Research Stream: MCQ’s on Economics, Econometrics,
Statistics, Finance and Commerce.
Aggregate Cut off 40%

Candidates who have applied in multiple streams, Paper II will be conducted in various shifts, the timings of which will be intimated in the Hall Ticket.

Marking Scheme For SEBI Grade A Phase II

  • There shall be negative marking of 1/4th of marks assigned to the question for Paper 2 in Phase II
    (except IT stream for which details shall be informed in due course).
  • There shall be a cut-off of minimum 30% for Paper 1 and a cut-off of minimum 40% for Paper 2 in
    Phase II.
  •  Candidates would need to secure separate cut-off in each paper as mentioned above as well as
    aggregate cut-off marks of 40% in Phase II exam (weightage of 1/3rd for Paper 1 and 2/3rd for Paper 2)
    to be shortlisted for Phase III.

Download SEBI Grade A Exam Pattern

SEBI Grade A Syllabus For Phase I: Paper I

SEBI Grade A Syllabus Phase I For Paper I will be common for all the candidates. This will have MCQ’s of 100 marks. Paper I will have four sections:

  • English Language
  • Reasoning Ability
  • Quantitative Aptitude
  • General Awareness (including Financial Awareness)

English Language

  • Error Spotting
  • Column based Fillers and Sentence Connectors
  • Paragraph Completion
  • Sentence Rearrangement
  • Comprehension
  • Fill in the Blanks
  • Passages
  • Synonyms and Antonyms
  • Active and Passive Voice
  • Direct and Indirect Speech
  • Idioms & Phrases etc.

Reasoning Ability

  • Puzzles
  • Seating Arrangements
  • Direction Sense
  • Blood Relations
  • Syllogisms
  • Inequalities
  • Order and Ranking
  • Coding-Decoding
  • Machine Input-Output
  • Alpha-Numeric-Symbol Series
  • Data Sufficiency
  • Number System and Conversions
  • Logical Reasoning etc.

Quantitative Aptitude

  • Data Interpretation
  • Inequalities
  • Number Series
  • Approximation and Simplification
  • Data Sufficiency
  • HCF and LCM
  • Inequality (Quadratic & Quantity based)
  • Profit and Loss
  • Time and work & Pipe and cistern
  • Permutation, Combination & Probability
  • Problem on Ages
  • Work and Time
  • Speed Distance and Time
  • Mensuration
  • Average, Ratio and Proportion etc.

General Awareness:

The GA section will consist of contemporary events of national & international importance. The general awareness section of SEBI Grade A will revolve around the following aspects.

  • Current Affairs
  • Financial Awareness
  • Current Affairs – National & International
  • Budget
  • Awards and Honours
  • Important Financial & Economic News
  • Important Days
  • International & National Organizations
  • Sports
  • Books and Authors
  • Science – Inventions & Discoveries
  • Countries & Capitals etc

SEBI Grade A Syllabus For Phase I & II: General Stream

SEBI Grade A Syllabus for Paper 2 will be common for Phase I & Phase II. The questions will be MCQ’s type of 100 marks  for General Stream. The topics for SEBI Grade A Paper II Syllabus for General stream is given below.

  1. Commerce & Accountancy
  2. Management
  3. Finance: Financial System, Financial Markets, General Topics
  4. Costing
  5. Companies Act
  6. Economic

SEBI Grade A Syllabus For Phase I & II: Stream Wise

The syllabus for Phase I and Phase II for SEBI Grade A Officer will be common. This Paper will be of 100 marks. There will be aggregate cut-off as well as paper wise cut off. The syllabus will be based on the  Specialized Subject chosen by the candidate. The subjects for the specialized is given below. i.e.

  1. Legal
  2. Information Technology
  3. Engineering: Civil Engineering, Electrical Engineering
  4. Research Streams
  5. Official Language Stream

The syllabus for each of the specialized streams is given below.

SEBI Grade A Syllabus for Legal Stream

Phase I Phase II
  1. Constitution of India
  2. Law of Contracts
  3. Criminal Law
  4. Law of Evidence
  5. Code of Civil Procedure
  6. Administrative Law and Principles of Natural Justice
  7. Jurisprudence and Interpretation of Statutes
  8. Important Latin terms and maxims
  9. Law of Torts and Consumer Protection Act
  10. Arbitration and Conciliation Act
  11. Transfer of Property Act
  12.  Companies Act, 2013
  13. Securities Laws – SEBI Act
  1. Constitution of India
  2. Law of Contracts
  3. Criminal Law
  4. Law of Evidence
  5. Code of Civil Procedure
  6. Administrative Law and Principles of Natural Justice
  7. Jurisprudence and Interpretation of Statutes
  8. Important Latin terms and maxims
  9. Law of Torts and Consumer Protection Act
  10. Arbitration and Conciliation Act
  11. Transfer of Property Act
  12.  Companies Act, 2013
  13. Securities Laws – SEBI Act
  14. Taxation

Syllabus for Information Technology: Phase I

  1. Database Concepts
  2. SQL Queries
  3. Programming Concepts (Java/C C++ )
  4. Data Analytics Languages (Python / R)
  5. Algorithms for problem-solving
  6. Networking Concepts
  7. Information & Cyber Security Concepts
  8. Data warehousing
  9. Shell Programming

Syllabus for Civil Engineering 

  1. Building Materials
  2. Solid Mechanics
  3. Structural Analysis
  4. Design of Steel Structures
  5. Design of Concrete and Masonry structures
  6. Construction Practice, Planning and Management
  7. Flow of Fluids, Hydraulic Machines and Hydro Power: Fluid Mechanics, Open Channel Flow, Pipe Flow, Hydraulic Machines and Hydro power
  8. Hydrology and Water Resources Engineering:
  9. Environmental Engineering: Water Supply, Waste Water, ) Solid Waste Management, Air, Noise pollution and Ecology
  10. Geo-technical Engineering and Foundation Engineering: Geo-technical Engineering, Foundation Engineering
  11. Surveying and Geology: Surveying, Geology
  12. Transportation Engineering: Highway, Tunneling, Railways Systems, Harbours

Syllabus for Electrical Engineering

  1. Electrical Materials
  2.  Electric Circuits and Fields
  3. Electrical and Electronic Measurements
  4.  Computer Fundamentals
  5.  Basic Electronics Engineering
  6. Analog and Digital Electronics
  7. Systems and Signal Processing
  8. Control Systems
  9. Electrical Machines
  10.  Power Systems
  11. Power Electronics and Drives

Syllabus for Research Stream

  1. Economics
  2. Public Economics
  3.  Statistics and Econometrics
  4.  International Economics
  5. Financial Markets

Syllabus for Official Language 

  1. भारत सरकार की राजभाषा नीतत (Official Language Policy of the Govt. of India) से संबंतित प्रश्न
  2. तिन्दी से अंग्रेजी अनुवाद [शब्द / वाक्ांश / वाक् / Terms / Phrases / Sentences]
  3. अंग्रेजी से तिन्दी अनुवाद [शब्द / वाक्ांश / वाक् / Terms / Phrases / Sentences]
  4. तिन्दी से अंग्रेजी – तवतिक शब्दावली (Legal Terminology)
  5. अंग्रेजी से तिन्दी – तवतिक शब्दावली (Legal Terminology)
  6. तिन्दी से अंग्रेजी – प्रशासतनक / बैंतकंग / प ंजी बाजार संबंिी शब्दावली (Administrative / Banking / Capital Market Terminology)
  7. अंग्रेजी से तिन्दी – प्रशासतनक / बैंतकंग / प ंजी बाजार संबंिी शब्दावली (Administrative / Banking / Capital Market Terminology)

SEBI Grade A Syllabus For Phase II: Paper I

This is common for all the candidates appearing for SEBI Grade A Phase II Exam. This is the English Descriptive Test to test the drafting skills of the candidates. This test will be of 100 marks of 60 minutes.

English Writing Skill Syllabus

The paper on English shall be framed in a manner to assess the writing skills including expression and
understanding of the topic including precis writing/ essay writing/ comprehension.

Interview

The candidates who will be successful in Phase I and Phase II of SEBI Grade A Officer Recruitment will be called to appear for the Interview. Candidates equaling 3 times the number of vacancies shall be shortlisted, in order of merit, for Phase III i.e. the Interview.

The shortlisted candidate may opt for the interview either in Hindi or English. Weightage of marks obtained in Phase II will be 85%, while marks obtained in the interview shall be given a weightage of 15%.

Thus, the selection will be made on the marks secured in Phase II and Interview for the final selection for the candidates as a SEBI Grade A Officer.

SEBI Grade A Syllabus: FAQ’s

Q 1. What is the process of selection into SEBI Grade A Officer Recruitment?
Ans. SEBI Grade A Officer Exam comprises of three phases.

  • Phase I: On-line screening examination consisting of two papers of 100 marks each
  • Phase II: On-line examination consisting of two papers of 100 marks each
  • Phase III: Interview

Marks of Phase II and III will be used for final selection.

Q 2. What is the exam pattern of SEBI Grade A Officer Exam?
Ans. There will be two papers each for Phase I and Phase II. All the questions will be MCQ’s except that of language paper. The exam will be of 100 marks for each paper.

Q 3. Which papers will be common for all the candidates?
Ans. Paper I of Phase I & Phase II, and General paper of Phase I & Phase II will be common to all the candidates.

Q 4. Is there negative marking?
Ans. Yes, there is a negative marking of 1/4 for every incorrect answer in the objective questions.

Q 5. What is the selection process for SEBI Grade A Officer Recruitment?
Ans. The selection will be made on the marks secured in Phase II and Interview for the final selection for the candidates as a SEBI Grade A Officer.

SSC MTS Syllabus 2021: The Staff Selection Commission is the body responsible for conducting the Multi-Tasking Staff (Non-Technical) Recruitment. The candidates who are interested in this recruitment should begin with their preparation for the upcoming examinations. In this article, we have provided with SSC MTS Syllabus for the Exam going to conduct in 2021 in order to help you for a better start. SSC MTS Registration 2021 is expected to begin on 02nd February 2021. Stay tuned with us for every latest update for SSC MTS Syllabus 2021.

The SSC MTS Syllabus consists of the following two papers

  • SSC MTS Paper I: Objective Type test
  • SSC MTS Paper-II: Descriptive test

This article includes the SSC MTS Syllabus as well as Exam Pattern along with the number of questions expected from each topic, the weightage of these questions, and how to approach them.

SSC MTS Syllabus 2021: Selection Process

To get a fair idea about SSC MTS 2021 Syllabus, it is necessary to know the exam pattern for the same. SSC Multi Tasking Staff Exam is conducted for two papers – Paper I and Paper-II. Paper I consists of objective type multiple choice questions while Paper II has descriptive questions.    

ssc-mts

The candidates will have to clear the cut-off for SSC MTS Paper I to appear for Paper-II. SSC MTS Paper I is crucial from the point of selection as an MTS.

Paper-II is only qualifying in nature. However, marks scored by the candidates in Paper-II will be used to decide merit in case more than one candidate score equal normalized marks in Paper-I.

SSC MTS Syllabus 2021: Exam Pattern For Paper I

SSC MTS 2021 Notification will be out in February 2021 (tentatively). The notification was supposed to be out on June 2nd but it has been delayed.

  • The SSC MTS Paper I will be bilingual i.e. both English and Hindi language, except the English section.
  • There are 100 questions in Paper I of 1 mark each.
  • There will be a negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong attempt by the candidate. No marks will be deducted for unanswered questions.
  • The total duration of SSC MTS Paper I is 90 minutes for the general candidates while 120 Minutes for PwD candidates.
Sections Subjects No. of Questions Marks Duration
I General English 25 25 General- 90 MinutesPwD- 120 Minutes
II General Intelligence & reasoning 25 25
III Numerical Aptitude 25 25
IV General Awareness 25 25
Total 100 Questions 100 Marks

SSC MTS Syllabus 2021: Exam Pattern For Paper II

The candidates who will clear SSC MTS Paper I will be called to appear for Paper-II.

  • The SSC MTS Paper-II will be qualifying in nature.
  • However, marks scored by the candidates in Paper-II will be used to decide merit in case more than one candidate score equal normalized marks in Paper-I.
  • SSC MTS Paper-II will be pen and paper mode paper which will be descriptive in nature.
  • The Paper will be set in Hindi, English, and in other languages mentioned in the VIIIth Schedule of the Constitution.
  • The maximum mark are 50 marks.
  • The duration of SSC MTS Paper-II is 30 minutes for the General Category and 40 minutes for the PwD Category of candidates
Subject Max. Marks Duration of Exam
One short essay/letter in English
or any other language included in the 8thschedule of the constitution
50 marks 30 Minutes

How To Score Good Marks In SSC MTS Letter Writing?

SSC MTS Syllabus 2021

The syllabus for SS MTS 2021 is given below for Paper I, the first stage of the Examination. SSC MTS Paper I will have for sections: || General English General Intelligence and Reasoning Numerical Aptitude General Awareness ||

Syllabus for General Intelligence and Reasoning

  • Similarities and Differences
  • Space Visualization
  • Problem Solving
  • Analysis
  • Judgment
  • Decision Making
  • Visual Memory
  • Observation
  • Relationship Concepts
  • Figure Classification
  • Arithmetical Number Series
  • Non-Verbal Series
  • Arithmetical Computation
  • Analytical Functions, etc.

Syllabus For Numerical Aptitude

  • Number Systems
  • Number System
  • HCF/LCM
  • Computation of Whole Numbers
  • Decimals and Fractions
  • Relationship between Numbers
  • Fundamental Arithmetical Operations
  • Percentages
  • Ratio and Proportion
  • Averages
  • Interest
  • Profit and Loss
  • Discount
  • Use Of Tables and Graphs
  • Mensuration
  • Time And Distance
  • Ratio and Time
  • Time and Work

Syllabus For General Awareness

Current events and India’s recent economic and social policies. Candidates should also keep themselves updated on India’s relations/agreements with the neighboring countries. Apart from that, candidates should cover the following topics:

  • Indian Constitution
  • Award-Winning Books
  • History, Culture
  • Awards and Honors
  • Economy and Polity
  • Current Affairs, Science – Inventions & Discoveries
  • Important Financial

Syllabus For the English Language

Comprehension, Active/Passive Voice, Direct/Indirect Speech, Vocabulary, Grammar, Sentence structure, Synonyms, Antonyms, and its correct usage, Phrases, and Idioms.

SSC MTS Syllabus Preparation related links

Static GK Current Affairs Daily News

SSC MTS Syllabus 2021: FAQ’s

Q. When will SSC MTS Exam 2021 be conducted?
Ans. SSC MTS Exam 2021 will be conducted for two Papers. Paper, I will be held from July 07 to 20 2021 while Paper-II dates are yet to be announced.

Q. Is there any negative marking in SSC MTS Paper?
Ans. Yes, there will be a negative marking of 0.25 in Paper I for an incorrect answers. Paper-II will be qualifying in nature only.

Q. What is the syllabus for SSC MTS Paper I?
Ans. SSC MTS Paper I will have four sections: General English, General Intelligence and Reasoning, Numerical Aptitude, and General Awareness.

Q. What is the syllabus for SSC MTS Paper-II?
Ans. A short essay is to be written or letter in English or any language included in the VIII Schedule of the Constitution.

Q. Is SSC MTS conducted online or offline?
Ans. SSC MTS Exam is conducted in two parts: Paper 1 and Paper 2. Paper 1 is MCQ-based and will be conducted online while Paper 2 will be the descriptive test and will be conducted in pen and paper mode.

To clear the UPSC CSE 2021 exam, aspirants must be very strong in their fundamentals along with the current affairs. Adda247 has taken an important step to help all CSE aspirants by providing them daily quizzes on App. Now aspirants will get free quizzes to practice along with analysis of The Hindu, PIB, etc.

1. Consider the following statements about the K-shaped recovery.
1. A K-shaped recovery happens when different sections of an economy recover at starkly different rates.
2. Households at the top of the pyramid are likely to have seen their in- comes largely protected, and savings rates forced up during the lockdown, increasing ‘fuel in the tank’ to drive future consumption.
Choose the correct option(s):
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC 2021 Online Coaching Classes | Bilingual GS Foundation Batch
2. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding the Viability Gap Funding?
(a)The government has expanded the provision of financial support by Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for Public-Private Partnerships (PPP) in infrastructure projects.
(b) The scheme was introduced in 2006 and will be continued till 2021-22.
(c)This will include critical sectors such as health, education, water and waste management.
(d) In identified sectors, the centre would chip in with 30% of the cost of the project, the state can also chip in with another 30%.

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 88, 11 January
3. Consider the following statements.
1. The Finance Ministry has notified e-invoicing for all companies with turnover ₹ 100 Cr from 1st January.
2. E-invoicing is already in implementation from 1st October but for firms with turnover ₹ 500 Cr.
3. E-invoicing essentially involves reporting the details of the specified GST documents to a government-notified portal and obtaining a reference number.
Choose the correct option(s):
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option(s).
1. As per the RBI Bulletin, Indian economy rebounded from a sharp contraction in the first quarter to register a growth rate of a negative 8.6% in the second quarter.
2. India has entered into recession for the first time in its history with two successive quarters showing negative growth.
Options:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 87, 9 January
5. Consider the following statements regarding the Atal Tinkering Lab and choose the correct option(s).
1. The Indian Space Research Organization recently announced that it is to adopt 100 Atal Tinkering Labs across the country.
2. By adopting hundred Atal Tinkering Labs, ISRO is to facilitate mentoring and coaching of students in cutting edge technologies.
Options:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 86, 8 January
6. Who among the following Developed Khadi Prakritik Paint?
(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(b) Ministry of textile
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 85, 7 January
7. Which of the following statements is/are correct and choose from the given options?
1. The Geological Survey of India has found promising concentrations of Vanadium in the Tamang and Depo areas of Arunachal Pradesh.
2. According to the Geological Survey of India, the Vanadium mineralisation is geologically similar to the “Stone Coal” Vanadium deposits of China.
(a) Only 1
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only 2
(d) None of these

Aiming for UPSC CSE 2021? Get the best test series for sure selection: Click Here
8. In which of the following states the ‘Jal- Jiwan- Hariyali mission’ is a flagship climate change initiated?
(a) Bihar
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
9. The ‘APNA UREA – Sona Ugle’ brand of Hindustan Urvarak and Rasayan Limited (HURL) was launched by which Union Minister?
(a) Amit Shah
(b) D.V. Sadananda Gowda
(c) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
(d) Nirmala Sitharaman

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 84, 5 January
10. Which cricketer won the ‘Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy’ for ‘Player of the Year’, presented by the International Cricket Council (ICC)?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Pat Cummins
(c)Kane Williamson
(d) Ben Stokes
Ans. 1(c), 2(b), 3(d), 4(c), 5(c), 6(a), 7(b), 8(a), 9(b), 10(d)

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 12 January, 2021

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Daily news will speed up the preparation for the Civil Services Examination and it also plays a crucial role to grasp the current affairs topic comprehensively. Here we have covered most of the topics related to various categories including National, International, Sports, Science and Technology, and so on.

 1. Single Window Clearance System Web Portal

– Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah inaugurated ‘Single Window Clearance System Web Portal’ in Coal Mining sector; also handed over the Charter of letters to the successful bidders in the country’s first Commercial Coal Mining Auction.

– Coal Sector has crossed an important milestone towards fulfilling the dream of Aatmanirbhar Bharat under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

– Coal Sector would play a very important role in achieving the target of a five trillion dollar economy by 2022.

– Commercial coal mining auctions will now facilitate Small and Medium Industries to receive coal supplies easily.

– In 2014, Government under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi made many changes and today with full transparency in the Coal Sector, equal opportunities are available for all.

– 19 successful bidders allotted mines under the country’s first Commercial Coal Mining Auction; this will provide an estimated revenue of about Rs 6,500 crore to States every year and also create more than 70,000 jobs.

– Commercial Coal Mining Auction process will open the way for development in Central and Eastern tribal areas of the country.

– Rs. 46,000 crore District Mineral Development Fund created for people living near mines; has led to the development of tribal, Dalit, backward and poor people living in these areas.

– Government made several policy changes, taking important decisions in many sectors including Agriculture, Education, Space, Economy and Fertilizers; this scheme launched is also a part of this policy.

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2. First direct flight between Kalaburagi to Tirupati flagged off under UDAN

– Taking another step in boosting the regional aerial connectivity in India, Star Air commenced the direct daily flight operations from Kalaburagi, Karnataka to Tirupati, Andhra Pradesh under the RCS-UDAN (Regional Connectivity Scheme – Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik) of Government of India.

– Attesting the dual objectives of the UDAN scheme; making air travel affordable for the people & simultaneously enhance its coverage in the country, 305 UDAN routes & 53 airports including 5 heliports and 2 Water Aerodromes have been operationalized till date.

– Inaugurated under the UDAN scheme, Kalaburagi airport recently completed a successful 1 year of service. The airport has become the fastest growing airport in the country.

– More than 1000 flights have ferried more than 43,000 people from the airport. To celebrate the hard work, commitment, and perseverance of the involved professionals, the officials of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) and Airport Authority of India (AAI) were present at the route launch.

–  Tirupati city, also called as the ‘Spiritual Capital of Andra Pradesh’, is home to the most famous and auspicious Sri Venkateshwara Swamy Temple popularly called ‘Tirupati Balaji Temple’ which has its name in the most-visited shrine across the globe.

– The temple attracts 50,000 to 100,000 devotees every day. Apart from the Tirupati Balaji temple, the place is also famous for other historical temples, Sri Venkateshwara National Park, Deer Park, Tirupati, & Talakona Waterfalls, Tirupati.

– The century-old temples in Tirupati are one of the first choices of the pilgrims of the country. Moreover, the Tirumala Hills in Tirupati is the second oldest rock mountain hills in the world.

– Due to the unavailability of any direct transportation mode between these two cities, people had to travel either by road or had to opt for a rail journey combined with a road trip, which took more than 12 hours by road & more than 20 hours by train & bus to cover the entire journey of 630 km.

– Now, people can opt for a direct flight and cover this long-distance journey in just 70 mins.

– The airline, Star Air was awarded the Kalaburagi – Tirupati route under the RCS-UDAN-3 bidding process last year.

– The airline will be operating three weekly flights on the route and will deploy its 50-seater Embraer-145 luxury aircraft. With the flag-off, there are now 24 routes under the ambit of RCS-UDAN for Star Air.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 11 January, 2021

3. Professor Shashikumar Chitre

The Prime Minister, Narendra Modi has expressed grief over the demise of Professor Shashikumar Chitre.

– In a tweet, the Prime Minister said, “Saddened to hear of the demise of Professor Shashikumar Chitre. He will be remembered for his work in astrophysics and subjects like solar physics, gravitational lensing and science education. His valuable work will continue inspiring students in the times to come. Om Shanti.”

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 9 January, 2021

4. ‘National Energy Conservation awards 2020’

– Relentless and continuous efforts to provide clean and green transportation to all its stakeholders and commuters has resulted in Indian Railway bagging 13 awards in three prestigious categories of National Energy Conservation Awards (NECA) for the year 2020, organized by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), Ministry of Power.

– Western Railway has been awarded the First Prize, Eastern Railway has been awarded the Second prize, North Eastern Railway & South Central Railway has been awarded Certificate of Merit in the Transport Category.

– In Building Category, Divisional Railway Manager’s offices at Bhavnagar and Rajkot have won the first and second prize respectively.

– Electrical Department, DRM Office, North Eastern Railway has been awarded Certificate of Merit.

– In Railway workshops subcategory, Diesel Loco Shed, South Central Railway, Vijayawada has bagged the First prize, Kanchrapara Workshop, Eastern Railway, North 24 Parganas has won the second prize.

– The certificate of Merit has been awarded to Mechanical Workshop, North Eastern Railway, Izzatnagar, Central Railway Workshop, Mysore, Mechanical Workshop, Dibrugarh, North East Frontier Railway and Central Workshop, Ponmalai, Southern Railway, Tiruchchirappalli.

– These awards have been given to Indian Railways’ zones and workshops for significant improvements in energy conservation by adopting various measures to promote energy efficiency.

– Indian Railways is committed to improving performance towards energy efficiency and clean environment in the coming years.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 8 January, 2021

5. Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE)

– Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Prakash Javadekar released Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) of 146 National Park and Wildlife Sanctuaries in the Country.

– At present, India has a network of 903 Protected Areas in the country covering about 5% of the total geographic area of the country.

– In order to assess the efficacy of Protected Areas, evaluation of management effectiveness is required.

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– According to Prakash Javadekar, what other countries could not achieve, India has achieved and today has thriving biodiversity. “70% of the global tiger population, 70% of Asiatic lions and more than 60% of leopards population in India is a certificate of India’s thriving biodiversity, as these big cats sit at the top of the food chain and their growing numbers show the well being of the whole ecosystem.”

– He also announced that from this year onwards 10 best National Parks, 5 coastal and Marine parks and top five Zoos in the country will be ranked and awarded every year.

– Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) of Protected Areas (PAs) has emerged as a key tool for PA managers and is increasingly being used by governments and international bodies to understand the strengths and weaknesses of the protected area management systems.

– The results of the present assessment are encouraging with an overall mean MEE score of 62.01% which is higher than the global mean of 56%.

– With this round of evaluation, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change(MoEFCC) successfully completed one full cycle of evaluating all terrestrial National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries of the country from 2006 to 2019.

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 7 January, 2021

– MEE is a very important document that provides valuable guidance on various aspects of wildlife and protected area expand MEE of Marine Protected Areas.

– A new framework for MEE of Marine Protected Areas has been also jointly prepared by WII and MoEF&CC and it will be very useful document to implement.

– The Environment Minister also launched the Management Effectiveness Evaluation of Indian Zoos (MEE-ZOO) framework which proposes guidelines, criteria and indicators for the evaluation of zoos of the country through Management Effectiveness Evaluation Process (MEE-ZOO) in a manner which is discrete, holistic and independent.

– The assessment criteria and indicators look beyond the traditional concepts, include issues of animal welfare, husbandry and sustainability of resources and finance.

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 88, 11 January

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To clear the UPSC CSE 2021 exam, aspirants must be very strong in their fundamentals along with the current affairs. Adda247 has taken an important step to help all CSE aspirants by providing them daily quizzes on App. Now aspirants will get free quizzes to practice along with analysis of The Hindu, PIB, etc.

1. Which of the following pairs regarding martial arts is/are correctly matched?
1. Silambam: Karnataka
2. Kalariyapattu: Kerala
3. Sarit Sarak: Mizoram
4. Gatka: Punjab
Options:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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2. India co-sponsored a Security Council resolution tabled by which country, that seeks women’s participation in peacekeeping missions?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Indonesia
(d) Afghanistan
3. Consider the following statements regarding the Fifth BRICS Media Forum.
1. The Fifth BRICS Media Forum was held virtually recently.
2. China’s Xinhua news agency came up with the idea of a BRICS Media Forum in 2015 to promote media cooperation.
3. Its aim to establish an efficient coordination mechanism among BRICS media.
4. It gathers stronger momentum for the development of BRICS countries through exchange and pragmatic cooperation under the mechanism.
Options:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 87, 9 January
4. Consider the following statements.
1. Five women have moved the Supreme Court against the compulsory practice of sacramental confession in certain Churches in Kerala.
2. Petitioner that is members of the Church had alleged that the practice was leading to several problems including sexual exploitation of women and blackmailing of both men and women followers.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 86, 8 January
5. Consider the following statements about bird flu and choose the correct answer.
1. New Bird flu cases have been confirmed in Gujarat recently, in addition to Kerala, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Haryana where the disease has already been confirmed.
2. Bird flu or avian influenza is the name used to describe a viral infection that is reported mostly in birds, but has the potential to affect humans and other animals.
Option:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 85, 7 January
6. Consider the following statements about the NCAVES Project and choose the correct answer.
1. The Natural Capital Accounting and Valuation of Ecosystem Services (NCAVES) project.
2. It seeks to advance the theory and practice of environmental and ecosystem accounting in Brazil, China, India, Mexico and South Africa.
3. The project has been jointly implemented by the United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the Secretariat of the Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD).
4. The project will have a duration until the end of 2022.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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7. Which of the following countries has held its third multilateral dialogue with countries from South Asia to take forward closer cooperation on fighting COVID-19?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Italy
(d)Iran

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 84, 5 January
8. Consider the following statements about the bird fl Institutions of Eminence (IoEs) and choose the correct answer.
1. Institutions of Eminence scheme have been launched in order to implement the commitment of the Government to empower the Higher Educational Institutions and to help them become world-class teaching and research institutions.
2. The University Grants Commission (UGC) has amended its regulations, allowing Institutions of Eminence (IoEs) to set up campuses abroad after receiving no-objection certificates from the Ministry of External Affairs and Ministry of Home Affairs.
Option:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Recently Pangti village was in news for:
(a) The only known habitat of Apatani tribes.
(b) Conservation of Amur Falcon
(c) The Arogyapacha plant was discovered.

(d) Breakout of Avian influenza.

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 83, 4 January
10. Ex EKUVERIN is a bilateral exercise of India with which of the following countries.
(a)Singapore
(b) Oman
(c)Myanmar
(d)Maldives
Ans. 1(b), 2(c), 3(d), 4(c), 5(c), 6(c), 7(a), 8(c), 9(b), 10(d)

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 11 January, 2021

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To clear the UPSC CSE 2021 exam, aspirants must be very strong in their fundamentals along with the current affairs. Adda247 has taken an important step to help all CSE aspirants by providing them daily quizzes on App. Now aspirants will get free quizzes to practice along with analysis of The Hindu, PIB, etc.

1. What is the theme of 16th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention 2021?
(a) Contributing to Aatmanirbhar Bharat
(b) Role of Indian Diaspora in building New India
(c) Redefined Engagement With Indian Diaspora
(d) Apna Bharat Apna Gaurav

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2. Consider the following statements regarding the New Industrial Development Scheme for Jammu & Kashmir.
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme and is the first time in any Industrial Incentive Scheme of the Government of India..
2. The main purpose of the scheme is to generate employment which directly leads to the socio-economic development of the region.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 86, 8 January
3. Consider the following statements regarding the Bengal revolutionary organisations in the 1920s.
1. That time the most active and famous revolutionary organisation was the Chittagong Revolt group under Surya Sen.
2. Anushilan group joined the forces with Subhash Chandra Bose.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 85, 7 January
4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Basavanna?
1. Basavanna was a 13th-century philosopher, statesman, Kannada poet and a social reformer during the reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I in Karnataka.
2. Basavanna spread social awareness through his poetry, popularly known as Vachanaas.
3. He introduced new public institutions such as the Anubhava Mantapa (or, the “hall of spiritual experience”)
Choose the correct Answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Consider the following statements regarding types of Immunity.
1. Innate Immunity is a non-specific type of defense that is present at the time of birth.
2. Acquired Immunity is pathogen-specific and is characterized by memory.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 84, 5 January
6. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the World Food Price Index 2020?
1. It was introduced in 1996 as a public good to help in monitoring developments in the global agricultural commodity markets.
2. It measures changes for a basket of cereals, oilseeds, dairy products, meat and sugar.
3. The Food and Agriculture Organization’s (FAO) food price index averaged 107.5 points in December 2020.
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the 25th Amendment of the US Constitution?
1. The Twenty-fifth Amendment is known as an amendment (1967) to the Constitution of the United States.
2. It set forth succession rules relating to vacancies and disabilities of the office of the president and of the vice president.
3. It was proposed by the U.S. Congress on July 6, 1965, and it was ratified on Feb. 10, 1967.
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 83, 4 January
8. What does the Portuguese brought to India?
1. First printing press
2. Tobacco and Red chillies
Choose the correct answer
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 82, 29 December
9. Which of the following is/are the publications of RBI?
1. Consumer Confidence Survey (CCS – Quarterly)
2. Financial Stability Report (Half-Yearly)
3. Inflation Expectations Survey of Households (IESH – Quarterly)
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
10. Consider the following statements regarding the International Organization of Securities Commissions (IOSCO).
1. It was founded in 1985 and its headquarter is in Madrid Spain.
2. IOSCO Asia Pacific Hub is located in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
3. It works closely with the G20 (Group of Twenty) and the Financial Stability Board (FSB) in setting up the standards for strengthening the securities markets.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: 1(a), 2(c), 3(a), 4(b), 5(c), 6(d), 7(d), 8(c), 9(d), 10(b)

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 9 January, 2021

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To clear the UPSC CSE 2021 exam, aspirants must be very strong in their fundamentals along with the current affairs. Adda247 has taken an important step to help all CSE aspirants by providing them daily quizzes on App. Now aspirants will get free quizzes to practice along with analysis of The Hindu, PIB, etc.

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Basavanna and Sharana movement.
1. The egalitarianism of Basavanna’s Sharana movement was too radical for its times.
2. Sharanas challenged the final bastion of the caste order: they organised a wedding where the bridegroom was from a lower caste, and the bride a Brahmin.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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2. Consider the following statements regarding the vertical and horizontal reservations.
1. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes is referred to as vertical reservation. It applies separately for each of the groups specified under the law.
2. Horizontal reservation refers to the equal opportunity provided to other categories of beneficiaries such as women, veterans, the transgender community, and individuals with disabilities, cutting through the vertical categories.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 85, 7 January
3. Which of the following is/are the objectives of Science, Technology and Innovation (STI) policy?
1. To position India among the top five scientific superpowers in the decade to come.
2. To double the number of full-time equivalent (FTE) researchers, gross domestic expenditure on R&D (GERD) and private-sector contribution to GERD every five years.
3. To attract, nurture, strengthen, and retain critical human capital through a people-centric STI ecosystem.
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. In the medieval period of Indian history, Banjaras were generally
(a) Warriors
(b) Traders
(c) Agriculturists
(d) Weavers

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 84, 5 January
5. Consider the following statements regarding the State of Global Air 2020 (SoGA 2020) released by the Health Effects Institute (HEI).
1. As per the SoGA 2020, high Particulate Matter (PM) contributed to the deaths of more than 1,16,000 Indian infants who did not survive their first month.
2. More than half of these deaths were associated with outdoor PM2.5 and others were linked to the use of solid fuels such as charcoal, wood, and animal dung for cooking.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 83, 4 January
6. Which of the following is/are the vision of the National Programme for Health Care of Elderly?
1. To build a framework to create an enabling environment for “a Society for all Ages”.
2. To provide accessible, affordable, and high-quality long-term, comprehensive and dedicated care services to an Ageing population.
3. Creating a new “architecture” for Ageing.
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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7. In context with the economic history of medieval India, what does the term Agrahatta means?
(a) Land grants made to military officers
(b) Bonded labour
(c) Wasteland converted into cultivated land
(d) Waterwheel used in the irrigation of land
8. Consider the following statements regarding Magnetotelluric-MT survey.
1. The National Centre for Seismology (NCS) is conducting a unique geophysical (magnetotelluric-MT) survey in Delhi- NCR region to accurately assess potential seismic hazards.
2. Its findings will help different user agencies for designing quake-resistant buildings, industrial units and structures such as hospitals and schools.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 82, 29 December
9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Kamdhenu Gau-Vigyan Prachar-Prasar Exam?
1. The exam has been initiated for raising mass awareness about Indigenous cows among young students and all citizens.
2. It will be conducted in three categories, primary, secondary, and general public levels.
3. The exam will be in Hindi, English and 12 regional languages.
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 81, 26 December
10. Which of the following is/are the features of Toycathon 2021’?
1. It is based on Indian culture and ethos, local folklore and heroes, and Indian value systems.
2. It has five themes, including fitness and sport and rediscovering traditional Indian toys.
3. Participants will be Students, teachers, start-ups and toy experts.
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: 1(c), 2(c), 3(b), 4(b), 5(c), 6(d), 7(d), 8(c), 9(c), 10(c)

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 8 January, 2021

Join UPSC & State PSC Channel 👉 Click Here

To clear the UPSC CSE 2021 exam, aspirants must be very strong in their fundamentals along with the current affairs. Adda247 has taken an important step to help all CSE aspirants by providing them daily quizzes on App. Now aspirants will get free quizzes to practice along with analysis of The Hindu, PIB, etc.

1. Which of the following is/are the reasons for Drug Abuse?
1. To be accepted by the peers
2. Experimentation and ineffective policing
3. Changing cultural values and increasing economic stress
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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2. Consider the following statements regarding the Lithium-ion Battery Applications.
1. Electronic gadgets, Tele-communication, Aerospace, Industrial applications.
2. Lithium-ion battery technology has made it the favourite power source for electric and hybrid electric vehicles.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act of 1919.
1. It is the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments.
2. It is the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 84, 5 January
4. Consider the following statements regarding Bird flu or Avian influenza (AI).
1. It is a highly contagious viral disease affecting several species of food-producing birds (chickens, turkeys, quails, guinea fowl, etc.) as well as pet birds and wild birds.
2. Avian influenza virus subtypes include A(H5N1), A(H7N9), and A(H9N2).
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 83, 4 January
5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about RailTel?
1. RailTel has proposed to the Ministry of Education its plan for equipping rural schools, run by the central government, with the ability to hold ‘smart classes’.
2. The proposal is to power remote government schools with high-speed broadband and create an “Internet of Things” environment for learning.
3. The plan is to create end-to-end e-learning solutions for the schools, using the solid Optical Fibre Cable network.
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2021 – Set 82, 29 December
6. Consider the following statements regarding the Banana Grit.
1. Banana Grit and its byproduct can improve gut health and is an ideal ingredient in a healthy diet.
2. The concept was introduced to utilise the presence of resistant starch in bananas.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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7. Consider the following statements regarding Rowlatt Satyagraha.
1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League.
3. Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 81, 26 December
8. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Judicial Review?
1. Judicial reviews are a challenge to the way in which a decision has been made, rather than the rights and wrongs of the conclusion reached.
2. Judicial review is also called the interpretational and observer roles of the Indian judiciary.
Choose the correct answer
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Consider the following statements regarding the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC).
1. It is a political, economic, social, and regional organisation which was established by an agreement concluded in 1980 among Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE in view of their special relations, geographic proximity, similar political systems based on Islamic beliefs, joint destiny and common objectives.
2. The structure of the GCC consists of the Supreme Council (the highest authority), the Ministerial Council and the Secretariat General. The Secretariat is located in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS Prelims Mock-Test 2020 – Set 79, 24 December
10. Which of the following statement(s)is/are correct about the Nile River?
1. It originates in Burundi, south of the equator, and flows northward through northeastern Africa, eventually flowing through Egypt and finally draining into the Mediterranean Sea.
2. It has a length of about 6,695 kilometers (4,160 miles).
3. The Nile River forms an arcuate delta as it empties into the Mediterranean Sea. Deltas with triangular or fan-shape are called arcuate (arc-like) deltas.
Choose the correct answer
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: 1(d), 2(c), 3(a), 4(c), 5(d), 6(c), 7(a), 8(c), 9(b), 10(d)

Daily Gist of ‘The Hindu’, ‘PIB’, ‘Indian Express’ and Other Newspapers: 7 January, 2021

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RRB NTPC Syllabus 2021: NTPC is one of the most sought after railway exams. For RRB NTPC 2021 Exam lakhs of applications have been received against 35,277 vacancies. This in itself highlights the cut-throat competition. In order to qualify for the RRB NTPC 2021 Exam,  complete knowledge of the RRB NTPC Syllabus and Exam Pattern. The Recruitment Notification has been released for Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) Posts by Railway Recruitment Board (RRB). Let’s have a look at the detailed RRB NTPC 2021 Exam Pattern & Syllabus.

RRB NTPC CBT 1 Admit Card Link

RRB NTPC Syllabus 2021: Overview

Name Of the organization Railway Recruitment Board
Name of the post(s) Non-Technical Popular Categories (Junior Clerk cum Typist,
Accounts Clerk cum Typist, Junior Time Keeper, Trains Clerk,
Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Traffic Assistant, Goods Guard,
Senior Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Senior Clerk cum Typist,
Junior Account Assistant cum Typist, Senior Time Keeper,
Commercial Apprentice, Station Master)
Category Government Job
Selection Process
  • 1st Stage Computer Based Test (CBT)
  • 2nd Stage Computer Based Test (CBT)
  • Typing Skill Test/ Computer-Based Aptitude Test
  • Document Verification/ Medical Examination
Official Website indianrailways.gov.in

RRB NTPC Exam Pattern

Like a large no. of Govt. Exams, the exam of RRB NTPC 2021 will be conducted in the below-mentioned steps:

  • First Stage of CBT,
  • Second Stage of CBT,
  • Typing Test (Skill Test)/ Aptitude Test,
  • Document Verification
  • Medical Examination

The candidates will have to qualify each stage in order to be eligible for an appointment at the Indian Railways.

ibps-po-mock-test

RRB NTPC Syllabus: CBT 1 Exam Pattern

Candidates can check the RRB NTPC CBT 1 Exam Pattern in the table given below. This is just a screening round i.e., the marks of CBT 1 will not be included in the final merit list. It is to remove the slightly non-serious candidates. The normalized score of CBT 1 shall be used for shortlisting of candidates for CBT 2 which will be around 20 times the vacancies. All the questions will be objective in nature, i.e. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ’s).

Sl No. Sections No. of Questions Total Marks Duration
1. General Awareness 40 40
  • 90 minutes
  • 120 minutes for PWD
2. Mathematics 30 30
3. General Intelligence and Reasoning 30 30
Total 100 100

Note: There will be a negative marking of 1/3 Marks for every question wrongly attempted. No marks will be deducted for a question left unanswered.

RRB NTPC Syllabus: CBT 1 Syllabus

The complete RRB NTPC syllabus for the RRB NTPC 2021 is given below. Candidates can check the syllabus of the Mathematics, Reasoning, and General Awareness in the table given below:

RRB NTPC Mathematics Syllabus

Sections Topics to Prepare
Simplification
  • BODMAS Rule
  • Fractions
  • Approximate Value
  • Surds & Indices
Interest
  • Problems on Simple Interest
  • Problems on Compound Interest
  • Installments
Percentage
  • Calculation on Basic Percentage Problems
Ratio & Proportion
  • Problems on Simple Ratios
  • Problems on Compound Ratio
  • Direct/Indirect Proportions
Average
  • Problems on Average
  • Problems on Weight
  • Problems on Height
  • Problems on Marks
Problems on Ages
  • Basic Problems
Speed, Time & Distance
  • Problems on Average
  • Problems on Relative Speeds
  • Problems on Boats, Train, etc.
Algebra
  • Basic Linear Equation in One variable
  • Basic Linear Equation in two variable
Profit & Loss
  • Problems on Profit/Loss
  • Dishonest/Successive Dealings
  • Partnerships
Number Series
  • Complete the Series
  • Finding Missing/Wrong Term
Mensuration
  • Problems on Plane Figures: Square, Rectangle, Circle, etc.
Time & Work
  • Problems on Work Efficiency
  • Problems on Wages
  • Problems on Pipes
Mixture Problems
  • Make a mixture from two or more entries/mixtures

RRB NTPC General Intelligence & Reasoning Syllabus

Sections Topics to Prepare
Classification
  • Number
  • Letter & Meaningful Words
  • GK Based Questions
Analogy
  • Number
  • General Knowledge
  • Meaning & Letter Based Questions
Series
  • number & Alphabet Series
Coding-Decoding
  • Letter Shifting
  • Coding Letters by words
  • Coding by Analogy
  • Coding-Decoding based on Numbers
  • Operations on Place Value
  • Coding & Decoding on Fictitious Language
Blood Relations
  • family Tree Problems
  • General Blood Relation Problems
Clock & Calendar
  • Calendar Based Questions
  • Questions on Time & Clock Hands
Ordering & Ranking
  • Simple ranking Questions
Directions & Distances
  • Simple Problems on Directions
  • Formula Based Distance Questions
Word Formation
  • Arranging words in a meaningful order
Non-Verbal Reasoning
  • Complete the Pattern
  • Figure Based Analogy
  • Classification
  • Series
  • Cube-Based Questions
Others
  • Missing Number
  • Venn Diagram
  • Puzzle

RRB NTPC General Awareness Syllabus

Sections Topics to Prepare
Current Affairs/General Awareness
  • Economics
  • Current Affairs
  • Geography
  • History
  • Polity
  • Computers
  • Sports
  • Literature
  • Awards
  • Books & Authors
  • Miscellaneous
General Science
  • Environment
  • Living Organism
  • Life Processes in Organisms & Plants
  • Heredity & Evolution
  • Natural Resources
  • Atoms & Molecules
  • Chemical Reactions & Equations
  • Acid, Bases & Salts
  • Metals & Non-Metals
  • Periodic Table
  • Force & Laws of Motions
  • Work & Energy
  • Sound
  • Light
  • Electricity
  • Sources of Energy
  • Diseases, Reasons & Cure
  • Improvement in Food Resources

RRB NTPC CBT 2 Exam Pattern

Candidates can check the RRB NTPC CBT 2 Exam Pattern in the table given below. This is both a screening and scoring round i.e., the marks of CBT 2 will be included in the final merit list. It is the merit deciding round. The candidates will have to secure more marks in order to meet the required RRB NTPC Cut-Off.

The normalized score of CBT 2 shall be used for shortlisting of candidates for Skill Test/ Aptitude Test. RRB NTPC Phase-II will as well have MCQ’s.

Serial No. Sections No. of Questions Total Marks Duration
1. General Questions Awareness 50 50
  • 90 minutes
  • 120 minutes for PwD
2. Mathematics 35 35
3. General Intelligence and Reasoning 35 35
Total 120 120

Note: There will be a negative marking of 1/3 Marks for every question attempted wrong. No marks will be deducted for a question left unanswered.

current-affairs-ssc-cgl

RRB NTPC Syllabus for CBT 2 Exam

Mathematics Syllabus

  • BODMAS Rule
  • Fractions
  • Approximate Value
  • Surds & Indices
  • Problems on Simple Interest
  • Problems on Compound Interest
  • Installments
  • Calculation on Basic Percentage Problems
  • Problems on Simple Ratios
  • Problems on Compound Ratio
  • Direct/Indirect Proportions
  • Problems on Average
  • Problems on Weight
  • Problems on Height
  • Problems on Marks
  • Basic Problems
  • Problems on Average
  • Problems on Relative Speeds
  • Problems on Boats, Train, etc.
  • Basic Linear Equation in One variable
  • Basic Linear Equation in two variable
  • Problems on Profit/Loss
  • Dishonest/Successive Dealings
  • Partnerships
  • Complete the Series
  • Finding Missing/Wrong Term
  • Problems on Plane Figures: Square, Rectangle, Circle, etc.
  • Problems on Work Efficiency
  • Problems on Wages
  • Problems on Pipes
  • Make a mixture from two or more entries/mixtures

General Intelligence & Reasoning Syllabus

Sections Topics to Prepare
Classification
  • Number
  • Letter & Meaningful Words
  • GK Based Questions
Analogy
  • Number
  • General Knowledge
  • Meaning & Letter Based Questions
Series
  • number & Alphabet Series
Coding-Decoding
  • Letter Shifting
  • Coding Letters by words
  • Coding by Analogy
  • Coding-Decoding based on Numbers
  • Operations on Place Value
  • Coding & Decoding on Fictitious Language
Blood Relations
  • family Tree Problems
  • General Blood Relation Problems
Clock & Calendar
  • Calendar Based Questions
  • Questions on Time & Clock Hands
Ordering & Ranking
  • Simple ranking Questions
Directions & Distances
  • Simple Problems on Directions
  • Formula Based Distance Questions
Word Formation
  • Arranging words in meaningful order
Non-Verbal Reasoning
  • Complete the Pattern
  • Figure Based Analogy
  • Classification
  • Series
  • Cube-Based Questions
Others
  • Missing Number
  • Venn Diagram
  • Puzzle

General Awareness Syllabus

Sections Topics to Prepare
Current Affairs/General Awareness
  • Economics
  • Current Affairs
  • Geography
  • History
  • Polity
  • Computers
  • Sports
  • Literature
  • Awards
  • Books & Authors
  • Miscellaneous
General Science
  • Environment
  • Living Organism
  • Life Processes in Organisms & Plants
  • Heredity & Evolution
  • Natural Resources
  • Atoms & Molecules
  • Chemical Reactions & Equations
  • Acid, Bases & Salts
  • Metals & Non-Metals
  • Periodic Table
  • Force & Laws of Motions
  • Work & Energy
  • Sound
  • Light
  • Electricity
  • Sources of Energy
  • Diseases, Reasons & Cure
  • Improvement in Food Resources

RRB NTPC Syllabus: Computer Aptitude Test (CABT)

The candidates who have opted for Traffic Assistant and Station Master will have to appear for the RRB NTPC CBT Exam. The candidates need to secure a minimum T-Score of 42 marks in each of the test batteries to qualify. This is applicable to all candidates irrespective of community or category i.e. irrespective of SC/ST /OBC-NCL /EWS /PwBD/ Ex-SM and no relaxation in the minimum T- Score is permissible

Serial no. Name of Post Level in 7th CPC 1st stage CBT 2nd stage CBT Skill Test requirement
1. Junior Clerk cum Typist 2 Common for all posts Common for all Level 2 posts Typing Skill Test
2. Accounts Clerk cum Typist 2 Typing Skill Test
3. Junior Time Keeper 2 Typing Skill Test
4. Trains Clerk 2
5. Commercial cum Ticket Clerk 3 Separate for Level 3 post
6. Traffic Assistant 4 Separate for Level 4 post Computer-Based Aptitude Test
7. Goods Guard 5 Common for all Level 5 posts
8. Senior Commercial cum Ticket Clerk 5
9. Senior Clerk cum Typist 5 Typing Skill Test
10. Junior Account Assistant cum Typist 5 Typing Skill Test
11. Senior Time Keeper 5 Typing Skill Test
12. Commercial Apprentice 6 Common for all Level 6 posts
13. Station Master 6 Computer-Based Aptitude Test

RRB NTPC Typing Skill Test (TST)

The candidates should be able to type 30 words per minute (WPM) in English or 25 WPM in Hindi on Personal Computer only without editing tools and spell check facility. Details for RRB NTPC Syllabus 2021 Typing Skill Test

RRB NTPC 2021 Typing Skill Test (TST)
Medium of Language Typing Speed
English 30 words per minute (w.p.m.)
Hindi 25 words per minute (w.p.m.)

Note:

  • The candidate should be able to type on Personal Computer only without editing tools and spell check facility.
  • For guidelines of those who appear for typing skill test in Hindi, Kruti Dev and Mangal font shall be made available for typing skill test on Personal Computer.
  • Exemption in Typing Skill Test may be extended to candidates who are permanently disabled due to Blindness/Low Vision, Cerebral Palsy & Loco Motor Disability with not less than 40% permanent disability. Such eligible PwBD candidates have to upload a scanned copy of the Typing Skill Test Exemption Certificate issued by the Competent Medical Board on the website of respective RRBs before the conduct of the typing skill test.
  • The merit will be drawn only for the candidates qualified in the TST or TST exempted PwBD candidates based on performance in 2nd Stage CBT.

RRB NTPC Document Verification/ Medical Examination

Based on the performance of candidates in 2nd Stage CBT and CBAT/TST, candidates equal to the number of vacancies will be called for Document Verification as per their merit and options. Appointment of selected candidates is subject to their passing requisite Medical Fitness Test to be conducted by the Railway Administration, final verification of educational and community certificates, and verification of antecedents/ character of the candidates.

RRB NTPC Syllabus 2021 Faqs

Q1. When was the RRB NTPC vacancy were announced.?
Ans. RRB NTPC vacancy was announced in March 2019.

Q2. How many stages are there in RRB NTPC.?
Ans. There are three stages in the RRB NTPC.

Q3. Is there a negative marking in RRB NTPC Exam.?
Ans. Yes, there will be a penalty of 1/3 marks for every incorrect answer.

Q4. How many questions will be there in RRB NTPC CBT 1.?
Ans. There will be 100 questions in RRB NTPC CBT 1.

Q5. Is there an Interview in RRB NTPC.?
Ans. No, there is no interview in RRB NTPC.